Review #3 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

BRCA1 lifetime breast cancer risk

A

55-70%

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2
Q

BRCA2 lifetime breast

A

45-70%

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3
Q

BRCA1 lifetime ovarian cancer risk

A

40%

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4
Q

BRCA2 lifetime ovarian cancer risk

A

15%

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5
Q

Other cancers associated with BRCA

A

Colon, prostate, pancreatic

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6
Q

Rates of pregnancy with perfect use of… OCPs, CuIUD, LNGIUD, Nexplanon

A

0.3, 0.6, 0.2, 0.05

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7
Q

Treatment for fibrocystic breast disease

A

NSAIDs, OCPs (danazol, tamoxifen in adults with pain not relieved by these treatments)

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8
Q

Systemic treatment for GSM

A

Ospemifene, a SERM approved for use in postmenopausal women with dyspareunia

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9
Q

Treatment for foul vaginal odor (with pessary, for example)

A

Oxyquinolone sulfate gel intravaginally 2-3 times per week

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10
Q

Muscle incised in midline episiotomy

A

Bulbospongiosus

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11
Q

Most common bacteria causing mastitis

A

S. aureus, coag neg staph, strep viridans

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12
Q

Embryo transfer most likely to be successful how many days after fertilization

A

5 (blastocyst)

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13
Q

Cyst of mongomery

A

Peri-areolar cyst, seen on ultrasound, most likely to resolve spontaneously

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14
Q

SERM causing endometrial polyps

A

Tamoxifen

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15
Q

Radiation dose generally considered safe for a fetus

A

50 mGy

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16
Q

History-indicated cerclage

A

One or more second trimester losses related to painless cervical dilation

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17
Q

Developmental cause of transverse vaginal septum

A

Failure of fusion of urogenital sinus and Mullerian ducts

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18
Q

Autoimmune disease associated with chlamydia infection

A

Reactive arthritis

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19
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Doxy 100 mg BID x7 days, or (if pregnant) azithromycin 1 g x1 dose

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20
Q

HIV screening interval for pregnant patient with HIV-positive partner (suppressed viral load)

A

qtrimester

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21
Q

Delivery timing for placenta previa

A

34.0 to 35.6 wga

22
Q

Likelihood of accreta with previa by number of prior C/S

A

1% (none), 3% (one prior), 11%, 40%, 61%, 67%

23
Q

What to do with measles exposure in pregnancy if known not to be immune

A

IVIG within 6 days of exposure

24
Q

Tamiflu dosing: ppx vs tx

A

75 mg QD x10 d or 75 mg BID x5 d

25
Next step for "unsatisfactory cytology" pap
Repeat in 2-4 months (any age group)
26
Origins of uterovaginal nerve plexus
Inferior hypogastric plexus and sacral nerve roots
27
EPDS score c/f depression
>12
28
Timing for rescue BMZ
At least 14 days
29
Pregnancy risks with anorexia
FGR, SGA, antepartum hemorrhage
30
Pregnancy risk with bulimia
SAB
31
Which ovarian vein more likely to be affected by thrombosis
Right
32
Max fluid deficit for electrolyte-poor fluid in hysteroscopy
1000 mL
33
Youngest age to initiate HPV-based testing for cervical cancer
35 y/o
34
Definition of recurrent pregnancy loss
2 or more clinically proven pregnancies | 3 consecutive pregnancies (do not have to be clinically proven)
35
Initial work-up for RPL
Parental karyotype, uterine assessment, TSH, APLS labs
36
Johnson procedure
Standard attempt to reduce inverted uterus
37
Haultain procedure
Laparotomy with incision in posterior of uterus to reduce inversion
38
Huntington procedure
Laparotomy with serial clamping to reduce inversion
39
When to start ASA ppx
12 - 16 wga
40
Anti-epileptic associated with cleft palate
Topiramate
41
Anti-epileptic associated with major congenital malformations and cognitive / behavior teratogenesis
Valproate
42
Safest anti-epileptics in pregnancy
Lamotrigine, levetiracetam
43
Bacteria found in cultures from long-term IUD users
Actinomyces
44
Phenotype of newborn with congenital adrenal hypoplasia
Ambiguous genitalia (in XX individual)
45
What causes low aldosterone, low cortisol, and high testosterone at birth? (enzyme deficiency and disease name)
21-hydroxylase deficiency, leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia
46
What defines FMR1 gene premutation?
CGG repeats 50-100
47
Disorders detected by NIPs
Trisomy 13, 18, 21, or sex chromosome disorders
48
Recommended pre-op testing for healthy patients over 65 y/o
CBC
49
Which progestin has anti-androgenic effects?
Drospirenone
50
Rotational forceps
Kielland