Review Questions from Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 vital signs:

A

O2 Sat, RR, HR, BP, Temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What other past histories would suggest that a pt has CAD?

A

MI, CABG, stents, angioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does PMHx of CVA mean the pt has CAD?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the diff b/t CAD and MI

A

CAD leads to MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If someone has a PMHx of A-Fib or CHF do they also have CAD?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the cardiac risk factors?

A

HTN, HLD, CAD, DM, smoking, FHx of MI <55 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 2 ways that an MI can be diagnosed?

A

Troponin, EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some assoc sx of MI other than CP?

A

Diaphoresis, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some assoc sx of CHF?

A

SOB, pedal edema, orhopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would be the CC of a pt with a PE?

A

CP or SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the risk factors for a PE?

A

DVT, pregnancy, BCP, cancer, immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What study would diagnose a PE?

A

CTA w/contrast or VQ scan depending on Creat levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a PTX?

A

collapsed lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference b/t a nebulizer and inhaler?

A

nebulizer is the machine that gives breathing treatments. inhaler is portable, mostly used for an attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is asthma?

A

inflammation of the bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What might a person with PNA complain of?

A

SOB or productive cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 7 areas of the abdomen

A

RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ, periumbilical, suprapubic, epigastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What might someone with GERD complain of?

A

epigastric burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For older pt with GERD, what other disease must be r/o?

A

CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does bile do and where is it stored?

A

liver, digests fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What might be the CC of a pt with gallstones?

A

RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What PE finding is closely associated with Cholecystitis

A

Murphy’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are gallstones Dx?

A

US RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name associated sx of appendicitis:

A

fever, N/V, decreased appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is appendicitis Dx?
CT A/P w/PO
26
What would someone with pancreatitis c/o?
epigastric or LUQ pain
27
How is pancreatitis Dx?
elevated Lipase
28
Name four possible CCs for a GI bleed pt.
hematemesis, coffee ground emesis, melena, hematochezia
29
How is a GI bleed Dx in the ED?
guaiac test, poop test
30
What will be the CC for someone with diverticulitis?
LLQ pain
31
What studies would Dx diverticulitis?
CT A/P w/PO
32
What might a person with a SBO c/o?
abd pain, vomiting
33
How is a SBO Dx?
CT A/P w/PO
34
What will be the CC of someone with a UTI?
dysuria
35
How is a UTI Dx?
urine dip or UA
36
What might a person with kidney stones c/o?
flank pain and dysuria
37
How are kidney stones Dx?
CT A/P NO CONTRAST
38
How is an ectopic pregnancy Dx?
US Pelvis
39
What is ovarian torsion?
twisted ovarian artery
40
How is ovarian torsion Dx?
US pelvis
41
What sx might a person with a brain bleed c/o?
sudden onset headache
42
What study would Dx a brain bleed?
CT head or LP
43
What sx would a person with an Ischemic CVA c/o?
FNDs
44
How is an ischemic CVA Dx?
clinically
45
What is a common cause of sz in children?
fever
46
What are 3 symptoms of meningitis?
fever, headache, neck stiffness
47
What are 4 causes of AMS?
infection, intoxication, hypoglycemia, neurological
48
How is AMS different than FND?
AMS is generalized, affecting the whole brain, FNDs affect specific functions
49
What are the risk factors for a DVT?
PHx, recent surgery, LE casts, BCP, pregnancy, smoking
50
what are common signs of a DVT?
calf pain, cords, Homan's sign
51
What is an aortic dissection?
separation of muscle wall from membrane of artery
52
What are 3 symptoms of cellulitis?
red, swollen, tender, warm skin
53
What are the ONLY three symptoms of a true allergic reaction?
itching, swelling, rash
54
How can DKA be Dx?
ABG/VBG showing low pH
55
Name 5 (of 8) elements of the HPI:
1. onset 2. timing 3. location 4. quality 5. severity 6. modifying factors 7. associated sx 8. context
56
Name 8 of the 14 body systems listed in the ROS:
1. constitutional 2. integumentary 3. CV 4. MS 5. GI 6. GU 7. Endocrine 8. Lymph 9. ENT 10. Eyes 11. Neuro 12. Respiratory 13. Psychiatric 14. Immunologic
57
Can the symptoms in the HPI ever contradict the symptoms in the ROS?
no
58
What do you need to remember to document in the HPI and ROS for any pt that is unconscious or incapable of providing information?
"Complete HPI/ROS is not possible due to patient's status"
59
Name one (of five) detail that is important to document if the patient has been evaluated in the past for a similar complaint:
1. what symptoms prompted the prior evaluation. 2. How long agoe did the prior evaluation occur? 3. Who did they see (Name/specialty) 4. What treatment did they receive? 5. What diagnosis was given?
60
What is the formula for writing an HPI? (7 steps)
1. age/sex 2. complaint/onset 3. quality, location, timing 4. modifying factors 5. assoc sx 6. pertinent negs 7. other important context
61
What does MOI stand for in a Trauma HPI?
Mechanism of Injury
62
Name 3 PSHx that indicate the pt has a history of CAD
angioplasty, cardiac stent, CABG
63
What are the risk factors of a CVA?
HTN, HLD, DM, smoking, FHx CVA, HxTIA/CVA, Afib
64
Describe the G/P/A
Gravida: # times pt has been pregnant Para: # live births Abort: # miscarriages or elective abortions
65
If a pt has pale conjunctiva what does that indicate?
anemia
66
What is scleral icterus and what does it indicate?
Yellow sclera, liver failure
67
Name an instrument a physician may use to closely investigate the eyes.
Opthalmoscope
68
In which body system would you document "TM erythema and bulging."?
ears
69
What is the medical term for nostril?
naris singular, nares plural
70
What would dry mucous membranes indicate?
dehydration
71
Why is midline bony tenderness "worse" than paraspinal tenderness?
Midline body tenderness indicates spine damage, while paraspinal tenderness could mean kidney stones
72
If you saw RRR written in the cardiac exam, what do you think that might mean?
regular rate and rhythm
73
If the physician checks the pulse on the right wrist and says "The pulses are fine", what would you document?
right radial pulse is 2+
74
Name 2 peritoneal signs in the abdominal exam:
voluntary/involuntary guarding, rebound tenderness, rigidity
75
What abdominal sign is indicative of Cholecystitis?
Murphy's sign
76
If the doctor takes 1 finger and presses in a specific spot in the RLQ what is the name of the finding they are investigating?
McBurney's point tenderness, looking for appendicitis
77
Which of these is not a peritoneal sign? Guarding, Rebound, Tenderness, Rigidity?
Tenderness
78
What phrase do you have to document in the GU for every female pelvic exam performed by a male physician?
"female chaperone present"
79
What is bony tenderness a sign of?
injury/trauma
80
What is CVA tenderness?
costovertebral tenderness, could be a sign of kidney stone or kidney damage, pyelonephritis
81
What is fluctuance a sign of?
presence of pus, bacterial infection
82
What section of the neurological exam would you document "normal finger-nose-finger test" and "normal heel-to-shin"?
cerebellum exam
83
What does DTR stand for?
deep tendon reflex
84
What part of the body do the cranial nerves control?
the face
85
In the psychiatric exam, what do SI and HI stand for?
Suicidal Ideation, Homicidal Ideation
86
Is the Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) associated with Trauma pts or Medical pts?
trauma
87
Would you document RUE strength 3/5 under the neurological or extremities section of the exam?
extremities
88
What does TTP mean?
tender to palpation
89
A mother states that her child has been extremely tired and drowsy recently; based on that can you document "lethargic" in the child's PE?
no
90
What is the medical term for hives?
urticaria
91
What is the medical term for swollen lymph nodes?
lymphadenopathy
92
What lab order contains the "H&H"?
CBC
93
What is the difference between the BMP and the CMP?
The CMP includes the BMP and adds the LFTs
94
What part of the CBC does the "differential" further characterize?
the WBC
95
What does Creatinine measure?
Kidney function
96
Which cardiac enzyme is more specific to heart damage? Troponin or CK-MB?
Troponin
97
What does a negative D-dimer mean?
no PE
98
What does a postive D-Dimer mean?
possible PE, order a VQ scan or CTA chest to r/o
99
What does an elevated BNP diagnose?
CHF
100
Name some parts of the cardiac order set
CBC, BMP, CK, CK-MB, Troponin, EKG, CXR
101
What do Coag tests determine?
the viscosity of blood
102
What does lipase diagnose?
pancreatitis
103
What do both CRP and ESR test for?
inflammation
104
What is the difference between a urine dip and a urine micro?
urine micro is more accurate, quantitative analysis
105
What are the efficiency labs?
D-dimer, troponin, creatinine
106
Do emergency physicians interpret XRs or CTs?
XRs
107
What is the difference between a CTA and a CT
the A is for angiogram
108
Name some orthopedic procedures that may be performed by the EP
arthrocentesis, joint reduction, splint application
109
Name some procedures that qualify the pt for critical care:
chest tube, CPAP/BiPAP,
110
What does LAD stand for as an EKG abbreviation?
Left axis deviation
111
Name two diagnoses that would qualify a pt for critical care time
sepsis, PTX,