Revised KINE 3200 Final Set Flashcards

(230 cards)

1
Q

The _______ is moveable and immovable.

A

Vertebral column

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2
Q

There are ______ pairs of spinal nerves.

A

31

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3
Q

The ________ is the most complex part of the body other than CNS

A

Vertebral column

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4
Q

_______ are the anterior portion of the trunk.

A

Abdominal muscles

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5
Q

Many small intrinsic muscles act on ______, ______, & ______.

A

Body ; head; thorax

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6
Q

T/F: Many small intrinsic muscles are too deep to palpate.

A

True

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7
Q

How many articulating vertebrae are there?

A

24

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8
Q

Which vertebrae is moveable?

A

Articulating

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9
Q

Which vertebrae is immovable?

A

Fused

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10
Q

There are ________ articulating vertebrae.

A

24

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11
Q

There are ______ fused vertebrae.

A

9

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12
Q

How many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

Cervical: 7
Thoracic: 12
Lumbar: 5

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13
Q

How many sacrum & coccyx vertebrae are there?

A

Sacrum: 5
Coccyx: 4

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14
Q

What are the first two vertebrae in the cervical region?

A

Atlas & axis

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15
Q

T/F: Shapes allow for extensive rotary movements of head to side, as well as forward & backward movement.

A

True

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16
Q

What is the anterior bony block in the vertebrae?

A

Body

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17
Q

The _____ process projects out laterally

A

Transverse

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18
Q

The ______ process projects posteriorly.

A

Spinous

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19
Q

What enables the vertebral column to absorb blows and shocks

A

Spinal curve

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20
Q

What are the 3 normal curves within the moveable spine and which way do they curve?

A

Cervical: posteriorly
Thoracic: anteriorly
Lumbar: posteriorly

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21
Q

What is the increased curving of thoracic spine outward in the sagittal plane.?

A

Kyphosis

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22
Q

What is the increased curving of the spine inward or forward in the sagittal plane?

A

Lordosis

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23
Q

What is the lateral curving of the spine?

A

Scoliosis

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24
Q

All ribs attach posteriorly to which vertebrae?

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. All of the above

A

B.

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25
How many pairs of ribs are there?
12
26
How many true ribs are there?
7
27
How many false ribs?
5
28
How many pairs of false attach indirectly to the sternum?
3
29
How many pairs of false ribs are floating ribs?
2
30
What 3 things compose the sternum?
Body Xiphoid process Manubrium
31
What are the 7 muscle attachments? (Mp, Tpos, Spos, S, C, Ic, Pc)
- Mastoid Process - Transverse process of spine - Spinous process of spine - Sternum - Clavicle - Iliac crest - Pubic crest
32
What is the first joint? (Aj)
Atlantooccipital joint
33
The Atlantooccipital joint is formed by ________ of skill sitting on articular fossa of the _____ vertebra.
Occipital condyles ; 1st
34
T/F: Bony configuration allows flexion, extension, slight lateral flexion.
True
35
_______ vertebra sits on _______ vertebra.
Atlas ; axis
36
Most cervical rotation occurs where?
Atlantoaxial joint
37
T/F: Atlantooccipital is the most mobile joint of any two vertebrae.
False
38
Joints C2 to S1 are considered _______ symphysis joints. (Aa)
Amphiarthrodial
39
What are the two types of intervertebral disks?
Annulus fibrosus Nucleus pulposus
40
Compressed elastic material allows ______ & ______. (C ; T)
Compression ; Torsion
41
T/F: Compressed elastic material becomes less resilient with age, injury or improper use of spine.
True
42
What is the condition where the nucleus protrudes through the annulus from substantial weakening + compression. (Hnp)
Herniated nucleus pulposus (slipped disk)
43
________ puts pressure on spinal nerve root, causing pain, tingling, numbness and/or weakness in lower extremity. (P)
Protrusion
44
Most movement occurs in which two regions?
Cervical Lumbar
45
Flexion of trunk =
Lumbar flexion
46
Flexion of head =
Cervical flexion
47
_________ rotates as a unit due to movement occurring in hip & lumbar spine
Pelvic girdle
48
Reduction is what?
Return to neutral
49
Cranial and cervical nerves innervate which muscles?
SCM & Splenius
50
What are the posterior spinal nerves?
Erector spinae group
51
Thoracic & lumbar nerves (RaTaOQl)
Rectus abominis Transverse abdominis Obliques Quadratus lumborum
52
Origin and insertion of SCM (S,C, M)
O: sternum ; clavicle I: mastoid
53
Origin and insertion of Splenius
O: cervical & thoracic vertebrae I: Cervical vertebrae, mastoid process, occipital bone
54
What are the large & powerful muscles of the vertebral column?
Erector Spinae group
55
Origin and insertion Erector Spinae Group (R,Ic,Sp)
O: ribs, iliac crest, spinous process I: ribs, spinous processes
56
What muscle is responsible for breathing during quiet rest?
Diaphragm
57
T/F: Abdominal wall muscles do not go from bone to bone.
true
58
Origin and insertion of Quadratus Lumborum muscle?
O: iliac crest I: ribs and vertebrae
59
Origin and insertion Rectus abdominis
O: pubis I: ribs and Xiphoid process
60
origin and insertion of external oblique abdominal muscle (r, i, p, ra)
O: ribs I: ilium, pubis Rectus abdominis
61
Origin and insertion of Internal Oblique Abdominal muscles (il, i, r, la)
O: inguinal ligament, ilium I: ribs, linea alba
62
Origin and insertion of TRANSVERSUS Abdominis muscle?
O: inguinal ligament, iliac crest, ribs I: pubis, linea alba
63
Cervical flexion agonists
SCM
64
Cervical Extension Agonist
Erector Spinae Splenius muscles
65
Cervical Lateral Flexion Agonists (SCM, Es, S)
SCM Erector Spinae Splenius
66
Cervical Rotation Agonists (SCM,Es,S)
SCM Erector Spinae Splenius
67
Lumbar Flexion Agonists (RaEoIo)
Rectus abdominis External obliques Internal obliques
68
Lumbar Extension Agonists (QlEs)
Quadratus lumborum Erector Spinae
69
Lumbar Lateral Flexion Agonists (EsRaEoIoQl)
Erector Spinae Rectus abdominis External oblique Internal obliques Quadratus lumborum
70
Lumbar Rotation Agonists (EsEoIoQl)
Erector Spinae External obliques Internal obliques Quadratus lumborum
71
The hip joint is reffered to as a ___________ joint.
Ball-and-socket
72
Head of _____ connects with _____ of pelvic girdle.
Gemur ; acetabulum
73
What is the longest bone in the body?
Femur
74
How is the pelvic girdle composed?
R & L pelvic bone join posteriorly by sacrum
75
What is the extension of the spinal column?
Sacrum
76
What 3 things is the pelvic bone composed of?
Ilium: 2/5 Ischium: 2/5 Pubis: 1/5
77
What seven bony landmarks makeup the pelvic girdle?
ASIS AIIS Iliac crest Pubis Sacrum Coccyx Ischium tuberosity
78
What are the 4 bony landmarks of the femur?
Head Greater trochanter Lesser trochanter Linea aspera
79
Body movements typically involve ______ and _______.
Hip joint ; pelvic girdle
80
What joint is found anteriorly of the pelvic girdle?
Pubis symphysis
81
What joint(s) is found posteriorly of the pelvic girdle?
Sacroiliac joints
82
What is the 2nd most mobile joint?
Acetabulofemoral
83
Femoral head inserts into ________.
Acetabulum
84
Iliofemoral (Y) ligament does what? (Ph)
Prevents hyperextension
85
Pubofemoral ligament does what? (Lea)
Limits extension & abduction
86
Ischiofemoral ligament does what? (Lir)
Limits internal rotation
87
Abnormal or excessive forward rotation of a structure.
Anteversion
88
Abnormal or excessive backward rotation of a structure
Retroversion
89
The pelvic girlde moves within ______ planes for a total of ______ movements
3 ; 6
90
Anterior pelvic rotation =
Clockwise movement of pelvis
91
Posterior pelvic rotation
Left pelvis moves inferiorly
92
Left lateral pelvic rotation =
Iliac crest tilts forward
93
Right lateral pelvic rotation =
Right pelvis moves inferiorly
94
Left transverse pelvic rotation =
Counterclockwise movement of pelvis
95
Right transverse pelvic rotation =
Iliac crest tilts backward
96
Movement of femur straight anteriorly toward pelvis
Hip flexion
97
Movement of the femur straight posteriorly away from pelvis
Hip extension
98
Movement of femur laterally to side away from midline
Hip abduction
99
Movement of femur medially toward midline
HIp adduction
100
Rotary movement of femur laterally around longitudinal axis away from midline
Hip external rotation
101
Rotary movement of femur medially around longitudinal axis toward midline
HIp internal rotation
102
Movement in femur in a diagonal plane way from midline of body
Hip diagonal abduction
103
Movement of femur in a diagonal plane toward midline of body
Hip diagonal adduction
104
Movement of femur in a horizontal or transverse plane away from pelvis
Hip horizontal abduction
105
Movement of femur in a horizontal or transverse plane toward pelviis
Hip horizontal adduction
106
Hip and pelvic girdle muscles are innervated from ________ and _______ plexi
Lumbar ; sacral
107
T/F: At the hips, there are 7 two-joint muscles that have one action at hip and another at knee
True
108
Muscle motions depend on what 2 things?
Direction of movement Position of body
109
What divides the thigh into 3 compartments?
intermuscular septa
110
Origin & insertion of the iliopsoas muscle
O: ilium, vertebrae I: femur
111
Origin and insertion of Rectus femoris
O: ilium I: patella
112
Origin & insertion of Sartorius muscle
O: ilium I: tibia
113
What is the longest muscle in the body?
Sartorius
114
Origin & insertion of the pectineus muscle
O: pubis I: femur
115
Origin & insertion of the adductor muscles
O: pubis I: femur
116
Origin and insertion of Gracilis muscle
O: pubis I: tibia
117
Origin and insertion of Semitendinosus muscle
O: ischium I: tibia
118
Origin and insertion of Semimembranosus muscle.
O: ischium I: tibia
119
Origin and insertion of Biceps femoris muscle
O: ischium, femur I: tibia, fibula
120
Origin and insertion Gluteus Maximus muscle
O: ilium, sacrum, coccyx I: femur
121
Origin and insertion of Gluteus medius muscle
O: ilium I: femur
122
Origin and insertion of gluteus minimus muscle
O: ilium I: femur
123
Origin and insertion of Tensor Fasciae latae muscle
O: ilium I: tibia
124
Hip Flexion Agonists (IRfPSTfl)
- Iliopsoas - Rectus femoris - Pectineus - Sartorius - Tensor fasciae latae
125
Hip Extension Agonists (GmBfSS)
- Gluteus Maximus - Biceps femoris - Semitendinosus - Semimembranosus
126
Hip Abduction Agonissts (GmGmGmTfl)
- Gluteus Maximus - Gluteus Medius - Gluteus Minimus - Tensor fasciae latae
127
Hip Adduction Agonists (AbAlAmG)
- Adductor brevis - Adductor longus - Adductor magnus - Tensor fasciae latae
128
Hip Internal Rotation (GmGmTfl)
- Gluteus minimus - Gluteus medius - Tensor fasciae latae
129
Hip External Rotation (GmSder)
- Gluteus Maximus - Six deep external rotators
130
What is the largest diarthrodial joint in the body?
Knee joint
131
Which bone bears most of the body weight?
Tibia
132
T/F: The fibula has articulation with femur and patella
False
133
What are the 3 bones of the knee joint?
Patella Femur Tibia
134
The patella improves angle of pull, resulting in greater ______
MA (mechanical advantage
135
What are the key bony landmarks of the knee joint? (TtMfcLfc)
Tibial tuberosity Medial & lateral femoral condyles
136
The tibiofemoral joint is also known as the _______. (Kjp)
Knee joint proper
137
Femoral condyles articulate on _______
Tibial condyles
138
The patella and femur articulate to form the ________.
Patellofemoral joint
139
Menisci form what between bones?
Cushion
140
Which bone are the menisci attached to?
Tibia
141
T/F: Menisci enhance stability and have a thick outside border that tears down to thin inside border
True
142
Which menisci is the largest?
Medial
143
Which menisci receives lateral femoral condyle?
Lateral
144
What supplies the knee joint with synovial fluid and is referred to as the “capsule of the knee”?
Synovial cavity
145
What is the posterior to patellar tendon?
Infrapatellar fat pad
146
How many bursae are there in and around the knee?
Greater than 10
147
What absorbs shock or reduces friction?
Bursae
148
What ligaments cross within knee between tibia and femur?
ACL & PCL
149
Which ligament stabilizes femur?
ACL
150
Which ligament stabilizes the tibia?
PCL
151
What is one of the most common serious injuries to knee and most common in females?
ACL Injuries
152
What ligament in the knee joint is commonly injured in contact sports?
MCL
153
Which ligament provides medial stability by preventing knee from being abducted
MCL
154
Bending backward, as in knee hyperextension
Recurvatum
155
Outward angulation of the distal segment of a bone or joint, as in knock-knees
Valgus
156
Inward angulation of the distal segment of a bone or joint, as in bowlegs
Varus
157
Knee extension in anatomical position is at what degrees?
0*
158
Bending or decreasing angle between femur & leg, characterized by heel moving heel moving toward buttocks
Flexion
159
Straightening or increasing angle between femur & leg
Extension
160
Rotary movement of leg laterally away from midline
External rotation
161
Rotary movement of leg medially toward midline
Internal rotation
162
Where does the central line of pull occur?
ASIS to patella
163
Line of pull of patella occurs where?
Patella to tibial tuberosity
164
Which gender typically have greater Q angles due to wider pelvis
Females
165
Origin and insertion of Rectus Femoris Muscle
O: ilium I: patella
166
Origin and insertion of Vastus Lateralis Muscle
O: femur I: patella
167
Origin and insertion of Vastus Intermedius Muscle
O: femur I: patella
168
Origin and insertion of Vastus Medialis Muscle?
O: femur I: patella
169
Origin and insertion of Semimembranosus Muscle
O: ischium I: tibia
170
Origin and insertion of Semitendinosus Muscle
O: ischium I: tibia
171
Origin and insertion of Biceps Femoris Muscle
O: ischium, femur I: tibia, fibula
172
Origin and insertion of Popliteus Muscle
O: femur I: tibia
173
Knee Extension Agonists (RfVlViVm)
- Rectus femoris - Vastus lateralis - Vastus intermedius - Vastus medialis
174
Knee Flexion Agonists (BfSS)
- Biceps femoris - Semitendinosus - Semimembranosus
175
Knee Internal Rotation Agonists (SSP)
- Semitendinosus - Semimembranosus - Popliteus
176
Knee External Rotation Agonists (Bf)
Biceps Femoris
177
How many bones are in the ankle and foot joint?
26
178
How many large muscles are in the ankle and foot joint?
19
179
There are more than _____ ligaments in the ankle and foot joint.
100
180
What are the two main functions of the ankle and foot joint? (SP)
- Support - Propulsion
181
The swing phase consist of ____% of walking & _____% of Running.
40 ; 60
182
T/F: The tibia and fibula are apart of the ankle and foot joint.
True
183
How many tarsal, metatarsals, and phalanges are there?
Tarsal: 7 Metatarsals: 5 Phalanges: 5
184
What are the tarsal bones? (CTNCMcIcLc)
- Calcaneus - Talus - Navicular - Cuboid - Medial cuneiform - Intermediate cuneiform - Lateral cuneiform
185
Each toe has 3 phalanxes except for which toe?
1st
186
What are the 7 bony landmarks of the ankle and foot joint? (Dmt,Dmf,Tp,Fdl,Fhl,T,Bom)
- Distal malleoli tibia - Distal malleoli fibula - Tibialis posterior - Flexor digitorum - Flexor hallucis longus - Tarsals - Base of metatarsals
187
What joint is joined at both proximal and distal joints
Tibiofibular joints
188
What is the anatomical name of the ankle joint?
Talocrural joint
189
What joints are classified as gliding or Arthrodial and have a combined movement of 20*-30* of inversion and 5*-15* of eversion? (ST)
Subtalar & Transverse
190
What are the joints between the 7 bones of the foot?
Intertarsal joints
191
What is maintained by ligaments in the foot and ankle?
Foot arches
192
What arch helps with shock absorption?
Medial longitudinal arch
193
Which arch aids in balance?
Lateral longitudinal arch
194
What arch adapts foot to the ground?
Transverse arch
195
What injury of the ankle and foot joint is the most common?
Ankle sprain
196
What is injury is a common painful condition involving inflammation of plantar fascia?
Plantar fasciitis
197
Movement of top of ankle & foot toward anterior tibia
Dorsiflexion
198
Movement of ankle & foot away from anterior tibia
Plantar flexion
199
Turning ankle and foot outward
Eversion
200
Turning ankle & foot inward
Inversion
201
Movement of toes toward plantar surface of foot
Toe flexion
202
Movement of toes away from plantar surface of foot
Toe extension
203
Combination of ankle & Dorsiflexion, Subtalar eversion & forefoot abduction
Pronation
204
Combination of ankle plantar flexion, Subtalar inversion & forefoot adduction
Supination
205
The ankle and foot joints are innervated by the ______ nerve.
Sciatic
206
The lower leg has how many compartments?
4
207
What muscle(s) is/are located in the Anterior compartment?
Dorsiflexors
208
What muscle(s) is/are located in the Lateral compartment?
Evertors
209
What muscle(s) is/are located in the Superficial posterior compartment?
Plantar flexors
210
What muscle(s) is/are located in the Deep posterior compartment?
Plantar flexor & invertors
211
What is the common term describing painful leg condition often associated with running activities?
Shin splints
212
Origin and insertion of Gastrocnemius muscle (F;C)
O: femur I: calcaneus
213
Origin and insertion of Plantaris muscle (F;C)
O: femur I: calcaneus
214
Origin and insertion of Soleus muscle (Ft;A)
O: fibula and tibia I: Achilles’ tendon
215
Origin and insertion of Fibularis Longus Muscle (F;Uof)
O: fibula I: undersurface of foot
216
Origin and insertion of Fibularis Brevis Muscle (F;5m)
O: fibula I: 5th metatarsal
217
Origin and insertion of Fibularis Tertius Muscle
O: fibula I: 5th metatarsal
218
Origin and insertion of Extensor Digitorum Longus
O: tibia and fibula I: 4 lesser toes
219
Origin and insertion of Extensor Hallucis longus muscle
O: fibula I: great toe
220
Origin and insertion of Tibialis Anterior Muscle
O: tibia I: 1st metatarsal
221
Origin and insertion of Tibialis Posterior
O: interosseus membrane of tibia and fibula I: inferior surface of mid-foot
222
Origin and insertion of Flexor Digitorum Longus
O: tibia I: 4 lesser toes
223
Origin and insertion of Flexor Hallucis Longus
O: fibula I: great toe
224
Ankle Dorsiflexion Agonists (TaEdlFt)
- Tibialis Anterior - Extensor digitorum - Fibularis tertius
225
Ankle Plantar Flexion Agonists (GSP)
- Gastrocnemius - Soleus - Plantaris
226
Inversion Agonists (TaTp)
Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior
227
Eversion Agonists (FlFbFtEdl)
- Fibularis longus - Fibularis brevis - Fibularis tertius - Externsor digitorum longus
228
Toe Flexion Agonists (FhlFdl)
Flexor hallucis longus Flexor digitorum longus
229
Toe Extension Agonists (EhlEdl)
Extensor hallucis longus Extensor digitorum longus
230