Revision Flashcards
1
Q
A patient moving their arm away from the midline of body is called?
A
Abduction
2
Q
A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. As a nurse, what is one of the most critical elements of patient education for this condition?
A
Advise the patient about the importance of vitamin D in their diet
3
Q
Which diagnostic study is used to visualize the inside of a joint?
A
Arthroscopy
4
Q
Which method is NOT used for fracture immobilisation?
A
Heat therapy
5
Q
What is the primary purpose of a neurovascular assessment?
A
Evaluate sensory and motor function
6
Q
Asking for blood loss falls under which neurovascular assessment step?
A
Pallor
7
Q
What is a significant risk factor for falls in older adults?
A
Osteoporosis
8
Q
Which of the following is a common injury from falls?
A
Hip fracture
9
Q
Mrs Wall was admitted with Type 2 diabetes, she reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should you take first?
A
Obtain a blood glucose level.
10
Q
Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a chronic multisystem disease related to abnormal insulin production, impaired insulin utilisation, or both. Which of the following statements is most accurately described?
A
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, and generally affects people under 30 years of age and requires treatment.
11
Q
Renal colic refers to pain that is caused by?
A
Nephrolithiasis
12
Q
Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk of developing a urinary tract infection?
A
A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter
13
Q
Which of the following, related to urinary tract infections, is correct?
A
Young, elderly and patients with chronic illnesses should receive antibiotics
14
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of body fluid compartment?
a.
Intravascular space
b.
Transvascular space
c.
Intracellular space
d.
Interstitial space
A
b.
Transvascular space
15
Q
Which of the following is a sign of an air embolism?
a.
Bradycardia
b.
Dyspnoea
c.
Hyperthermia
d.
Hypertension
A
b.
Dyspnoea
16
Q
Which of the following fluids would be used to treat hypovolemic shock?
A
Isotonic saline
17
Q
Which site is typically used for inserting a peripheral venous cannula in adults?
A
Arm veins
18
Q
What is the purpose of the safety shield in many intravenous cannulas?
A
To reduce the risk of needlestick injury
19
Q
Central venous catheters (CVCs) require confirmation of placement via which method?
A
X-ray
20
Q
What is the first step in managing a patient suspected of fluid overload?
A
Stop the infusion
21
Q
Which IV fluid complication involves the inadvertent administration of medication into surrounding tissue?
A
Infiltration
22
Q
Which of the following is a risk factor for fluid overload in patients?
A
Renal disease
23
Q
The Bristol Stool chart lists how many types of stool.
A
7
24
Q
You are required to administer a suppository to your patient which position should they be in to facilitate effective administration?
A
Lateral, left side
25
Which of the following is a common sign of imminent death?
rapid and shallow breathing
26
Common circulatory signs of imminent death include:
Mottling of the skin, particularly on the extremities
27
What skin change is often observed in patients who are close to death?
Cyanosis of the lips and extremities
28
In the context of end-of-life care, the principle of beneficence requires healthcare providers to:
Take actions that promote the patient’s well-being and comfort
29
What is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take when providing emotional support to a family immediately after the death of a loved one?
Offer the family a quiet space to grieve and be available for questions
30
If a family member is in deep grief and not ready to talk, the best approach for the nurse is to:
Stay present and offer silent support, letting the family lead the
interaction
31
After the death of a loved one, a nurse should:
Allow the family as much time as they need to be with the deceased before any procedures are done
32
When discussing death and dying with a patient's family, which of the following communication strategies is most appropriate?
being honest and empathetic while providing support
33
Which of the following is a priority in the care of a person after death?
respecting cultural and religious practices in post-mortem care
34
What is an effective strategy for managing personal reactions to death and dying in a healthcare setting?
engaging in self-reflection and seeking support if needed
35
What is the primary goal of aseptic technique?
To prevent infection by maintaining a sterile environment
36
What should be done if a sterile field is contaminated during a procedure?
Discard the contaminated items and set up a new sterile field.
37
When preparing a sterile field for a procedure, which action should be performed first?
Prepare equipment
38
Which of the following is an example of a chronic wound?
A pressure ulcer that has persisted for months
39
Which phase is the first in the healing process of an acute wound?
Haemostasis and inflammatory phase
40
Which of the following is a common complication associated with chronic wounds?
Development of wound-related infections and potential for systemic complications.
41
.A wound that has stalled in the inflammatory phase of healing and shows no signs of progress over several weeks is most likely
A chronic wound
42
Purulent exudate is characterised by:
Thick, yellow, green, or brown fluid
43
Serosanguineous exudate typically appears as:
Clear fluid with a pink or light red tint, often seen in healing wounds
44
The size of a wound is typically measured by:
The length, width, and depth of the wound
45
A strong, foul odour emanating from a wound is most likely an indication of:
Infection or necrosis within the wound
46
Which colour in a wound bed typically indicates the presence of necrotic tissue?
Black
47
A pressure ulcer that has full-thickness skin loss, exposing bone, tendon, or muscle, is classified as:
Stage IV
48
What are the mandatory document requirements for placement:
Police clearance, NDIS check, Immunisations, WWC certificate.
49
The bones of the skeleton mainly consist of osseous tissue arranged into osteons or trabeculae. An osteon:
a.
reduces the weight of the skeleton
b.
resists forces from all directions
c.
is the structural unit of spongy bone
d.
is the structural unit of compact bone
d.
is the structural unit of compact bone
50
The epiphyseal plate of a long bone is the site of:
a.
appositional growth
b.
interstitial growth
c.
fat storage
d.
blood cell production
b.
interstitial growth
51
Whilst dancing, Ashley tore her calcaneal tendon and a fragment of her calcaneal bone broke off her tendon. Classify this type of fracture.
a.
Comminuted fracture.
b.
Avulsion fracture.
c.
Greenstick fracture.
d.
Transverse fracture.
b.
Avulsion fracture.
52
Tendon sheaths and bursae can be structures of a synovial joint: These two structures:
a.
stabilise the articulating bones
b.
reduce friction between adjacent joint structures
c.
physically separate the articulating bones
d.
absorb forces applied to the articulating bones
b.
reduce friction between adjacent joint structures
53
A patient moving their arm towards the midline of the body is called:
a.
Flexion
b.
Extension
c.
Abduction
d.
Adduction
d.
Adduction
54
A nurse notes that the patient has difficulty standing from a sitting position without using their hands for support. This observation is most relevant to which component of the GALS assessment?
a.
Gait
b.
Arms
c.
Legs
d.
Spine
c.
Legs
55
Asking a patient to dorsiflex their foot falls under which neurovascular assessment step?
Question 7Answer
a.
Pallor
b.
Polar/poikilothermia
c.
Paraesthesia
d.
Paralysis
d.
Paralysis
56
Based on the FRAT, which of the risk factors automatically makes a patient high risk?
a.
Recent falls history
b.
History of depression
c.
Current postural hypotension
d.
Long term use of sedatives
c.
Current postural hypotension
57
Identify the hormone correctly matched to its function.
a.
Adrenaline - enhances the effects of parasympathetic activation
b.
Cortisol - helps the body resist stress
c.
Prolactin - stimulates uterine contractions
d.
Erythropoietin - increases basal metabolic rate
b.
Cortisol - helps the body resist stress
58
Blood calcium levels are regulated by:
a.
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
b.
thyroid stimulating hormone and calcitonin
c.
parathyroid hormone and thyroid hormone
d.
thyroid hormone and cortisol
a.
parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
59
The hypophyseal portal system transports__________________ from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
a.
prolactin
b.
gonadotropin releasing hormone
c.
growth hormone
d.
antidiuretic hormone
b.
gonadotropin releasing hormone
60
When blood potassium (K+) levels increase, aldosterone is secreted from the adrenal glands. An increase in blood K+ levels is an example of a/an:
a.
enzymatic stimulus
b.
hormonal stimulus
c.
humoral stimulus
d.
neural stimulus
c.
humoral stimulus
61
The goal of treatment for a person with diabetes is to normalise blood glucose. Identify which of the following statements is true.
a.
Type 1 diabetes is initially treated with a change to diet and exercise.
b.
Type 1 diabetes is always treated with insulin.
c.
Type 2 diabetes is initially treated with insulin.
d.
Type 2 diabetes is always treated with corticosteroids.
b.
Type 1 diabetes is always treated with insulin.
62
A 45-year-old patient with a family history of type 2 diabetes, who is overweight and lives a sedentary lifestyle, asks the nurse what they can do to prevent developing the disease. The best advice for the nurse to give would be:
a.
There is nothing you can do, genetics determine if you will develop type 2 diabetes
b.
You should start insulin therapy now to prevent diabetes
c.
Since you're over 40, it's inevitable that you will develop diabetes
d.
Adopt a healthier lifestyle with regular exercise and a balanced diet to manage weight and improve insulin sensitivity
d.
Adopt a healthier lifestyle with regular exercise and a balanced diet to manage weight and improve insulin sensitivity
63
Mrs Wall was admitted with Type 2 diabetes, she reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should you take first?
a.
Encourage oral fluids.
b.
Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push.
c.
Administer 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly.
d.
Obtain a blood glucose level.
d.
Obtain a blood glucose level.
64
Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a chronic multisystem disease related to abnormal insulin production, impaired insulin utilisation, or both. Which of the following statements is most accurately described?
a.
Type 2 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, and generally affects people under 30 years of age and requires treatment with insulin
b.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, and generally affects people under 30 years of age and requires treatment with insulin
c.
Gestational diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, and generally affects people under 30 years of age and requires treatment with insulin
d.
Type 1 diabetes can affect persons in any age group, exhibits a slow and progressive intolerance to glucose and is initially treated with diet and exercise
b.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, and generally affects people under 30 years of age and requires treatment with insulin
65
The driving force causing glomerular filtration in the nephron is the
a.
osmotic pressure of the urine
b.
glomerular osmotic pressure of the blood
c.
glomerular hydrostatic pressure of the blood
d.
interstitial pressure of the tubules
c.
glomerular hydrostatic pressure of the blood
66
The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does NOT contain ________________.
a.
large plasma proteins
b.
potassium
c.
sodium
d.
glucose
a.
large plasma proteins
67
The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin_______________.
a.
by an increase in blood pressure
b.
when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
c.
when the pH of urine decreases
d.
by a decrease in blood pressure
d.
by a decrease in blood pressure
68
Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?
a.
antidiuretic hormone
b.
erythropoietin
c.
aldosterone
d.
renin
c.
aldosterone
69
Pyelonephritis refers to which of the following?
a.
Infection of the renal pelvis and parenchyma
b.
Infection of the ureters
c.
Infection of the urethra
d.
Infection of the lower urinary tract
a.
Infection of the renal pelvis and parenchyma
70
Functional incontinence would be caused by which of the following?
a.
Urinary tract infections
b.
Heavy door to the bathroom
c.
Inability to delay voiding
d.
Increased pressure on the urinary bladder
b.
Heavy door to the bathroom
71
Which of the following is the most common causative agent for a urinary tract infection?
a.
Escherichia coli
b.
Candida albicans
c.
Serrati
d.
Pseudomonas
a.
Escherichia coli
72
Nephrolithiasis refers to which of the following?
a.
Calculi within the bladder
b.
Calculi within the ureters
c.
Calculi within the kidneys
d.
Calculi within the urethra
c.
Calculi within the kidneys
73
Which of the following statements correctly describes a humoral immune response?
a.
Activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells which secrete antigen-specific antibodies.
b.
Helper T cells activate cytotoxic T cells which secrete antigen-specific antibodies.
c.
Activated cytotoxic T cells differentiate into B cells which secrete pyrogens.
d.
B cells activate helper T cells which secrete interferon.
a.
Activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells which secrete antigen-specific antibodies.
74
When a person becomes dehydrated,
a.
the volume of extracellular fluid increases, as does its concentration of sodium.
b.
the volume of extracellular fluid increases, while its concentration of sodium decreases.
c.
the volume of extracellular fluid decreases, as does its concentration of sodium.
d.
the volume of extracellular fluid decreases while its concentration of sodium increases.
d.
the volume of extracellular fluid decreases while its concentration of sodium increases.
75
When performing chest compressions during basic life support, the nurse or midwife should compress:
Question 3Select one:
a.
1/3 depth of the chest
b.
2/3 depth of the chest
c.
As deep and hard as possible
d.
Lightly and without too much pressure
a.
1/3 depth of the chest
76
What is the name given to the process that produces ATP?
Question 4Answer
a.
Glycogenolysis
b.
Cellular respiration
c.
Glycogenesis
d.
Lipolysis
b.
Cellular respiration
77
The term hypotonic hydration refers to;
a.
a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water.
b.
a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment.
c.
the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor.
d.
the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion.
a.
a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water.
78
The hormone ADH
a.
causes the kidneys to produce large volumes of urine
b.
stimulates water conservation at the kidneys
c.
stimulates the kidneys to retain sodium ions
d.
is secreted by the anterior pituitary in response to changes in blood osmolarity
b.
stimulates water conservation at the kidneys
79
You find a non-responsive patient in your ward. You hit the emergency buzzer and conduct a primary survey. The patient is non-responsive and not breathing. What is your next action?
a.
Go find the defibrillator and connect it to the patient
b.
Provide 2 ventilations followed by 30 compressions
c.
Check for a carotid or femoral pulse to assess circulation
d.
Commence compressions at 100 cycles/minute
d.
Commence compressions at 100 cycles/minute
80
Which of the following vascular access devices is suitable for long-term intermittent therapy?
a.
Central venous catheter
b.
Peripheral venous cannula
c.
Implanted port
d.
Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
c.
Implanted port
81
Normal bowel (colon) function includes:
a.
Absorption, manufacture of certain vitamins, formation of faeces, expulsion of faeces
b.
Absorption, formation of faeces, storage of faeces, manufacture of certain vitamins
c.
Absorption, formation of faeces, formation of gas, expulsion of faeces
d.
Manufacture of certain vitamins, formation of vomit, absorption, expulsion of faeces
a.
Absorption, manufacture of certain vitamins, formation of faeces, expulsion of faeces
82
Complement refers to a group of proteins that:
a.
form a membrane attack complex (MAC) to induce cell lysis
b.
increase body temperature
c.
trigger hypersensitivity reactions
d.
activate helper T cells
a.
form a membrane attack complex (MAC) to induce cell lysis
83
Which respiratory pattern is commonly observed in patients nearing death?
a.
Kussmaul breathing
b.
Hyperventilation
c.
Eupnoea
d.
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
d.
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
84
Natural Killer cells:
a.
directly increase body temperature
b.
destroy cancer cells and virus-infected cells
c.
phagocytose foreign materials
d.
differentiate into helper T cells
b.
destroy cancer cells and virus-infected cells
85
Which of the following digestive processes occur in the large intestine?
a.
Defaecation, chemical digestion, propulsion.
b.
Chemical digestion, mechanical breakdown, propulsion.
c.
Propulsion, mechanical breakdown, defaecation.
d.
Propulsion. absorption, defaecation.
d.
Propulsion. absorption, defaecation.
86
The Bristol Stool chart lists how many types of stool?
a.
6
b.
7
c.
8
d.
10
b.
7
87
Respiratory acidosis can occur when;
a.
a person consumes excessive amounts of acid.
b.
a person’s breathing is shallow due to obstruction.
c.
a runner has completed a very long marathon.
d.
the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions.
b.
a person’s breathing is shallow due to obstruction.
88
The ethical principle of non-maleficence in end-of-life care emphasises:
a.
Taking actions that promote the patient’s well-being and comfort
b.
Avoiding harm to the patient, even if it means withholding aggressive treatments
c.
Ensuring the patient is fully informed about their condition and treatment options before making decisions
d.
Ignoring the patient’s advance directives if they conflict with standard care
b.
Avoiding harm to the patient, even if it means withholding aggressive treatments
89
The function of the hepatic portal vein is to ________.
a.
collect absorbed nutrients from the small intestine and deliver to the liver for processing or storage.
b.
supply oxygenated blood to the liver.
c.
distribute hormones throughout the body.
d.
carry bile produced in the liver to the gall bladder.
a.
collect absorbed nutrients from the small intestine and deliver to the liver for processing or storage.
90
You are required to administer a suppository to your patient which position should they be in to facilitate effective administration
a.
Semi fowlers, right side
b.
Semi fowlers, left side
c.
Lateral, left side
d.
Lateral, right side
c.
Lateral, left side
