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MBChB1 Phase 1 > Revision deck > Flashcards

Revision deck Flashcards

1
Q

What antibiotics target small ribosomal unit? How do they work?

A

Target decoding site: prevents tRNA binding or moving through ribosome
Doxycylin, streptomycin

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2
Q

What antibiotics target large ribosome unit? Function?

A

Erythromycin
Prevents polypeptide chain elongation

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3
Q

tRNA function?

A

serves as link between amino acids and mRNA

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4
Q

3 methods of proteins getting into organelles?

A

nuclear pores: for nuclear proteins
protein translocators: cytosol to ER, mitochondria, peroxisomes
transport vesicles: ER onwards

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5
Q

How do ribosomes know how to get to ER?

A

signal peptide on protein being made

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6
Q

What is signal peptide?

A

sequence on n-terminal amino acid (end of polypeptide)

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7
Q

What happens in exocytosis in golgi apparatus?

A

protein anchored to ER membrane
vesicles from ER fuse with plasma membrane

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8
Q

What happens in endocytosis in golgi apparatus? example?

A

address label added in golgi apparatus for mannose-6-phosphate
bind to specific receptor in golgi membrane
go to endosome, matures to lysosome
hydrolase enzyme

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9
Q

What is mannose-6-phosphate?

A

lysosomal sugar chain

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10
Q

What things are degraded by protaosomal degregation?

A

short half life
key metabolic enzymes
defective proteins
proteins tagged with ubiquitin

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11
Q

What things are degraded by lysosomal degregation? how are they brought into cell?

A

long half life
membrane proteins
extracellular proteins
endocytosis

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12
Q

examples of lysosomal enzymes? what are they activated by?

A

lipases
nucleases
proteases
lysosomal acidic environment

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13
Q

What is proteasomal degradation dependent on? Where does it happen?

A

atp
cytosol in protasomes

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14
Q

What proteins are in PEST sequence?

A

proline
glutamic acid
serine
threonine

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15
Q

2 ways to segregate molecules?

A

organelles
multicomponent complexes e.g. organelles

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16
Q

where are proteins made?

A

cytosol on ribosomes

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17
Q

2 parts of ribosome?

A

60s+40s=80s

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18
Q

where is polypeptide threaded through?

A

protein channel translocon on ER membrane

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19
Q

What does electron transport chain require?

A

cytochrome c on inner membrane

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20
Q

how is apoptosis initiated?

A

release of cytochrome c from mitochondria to cytosol

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21
Q

peroxisome function? how? example?

A

degrades fatty acids by beta oxidation egg, oxidative enzymes, catalase

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22
Q

3 types of cytoskeleton?

A

microtubules
microfilaments
intermediate filaments

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23
Q

3 types of intermediate filaments?

A

keratin
vinementin (fibroblasts)
laming (nuclei)

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24
Q

intermediate filaments function?

A

structure and strength

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25
Q

function and composition of microtubules?

A

cell movement
organelle transport
mitotic spindle
a and b tubulin

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26
Q

2 yes of microtubules?

A

kinesics: cargo away from centrosome
dyne’s: cargo toward centrosome

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27
Q

axoneme function?

A

cytoskeleton of cilia and flagella
allow bending
(microtubules and dynein)

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28
Q

what are microfilaments made of and functions?

A

actin polymers
microvilli, stereo cilia, shape change, cytokenesis

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29
Q

2 cell-cell junctions and their cytoskeleton?

A

adherens - actin
desmosomes - intermediate filaments

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30
Q

2 cell-ecm junctions and their cytoskeleton?

A

focal adhesions - actin
hemidesmosomes - intermidate filaments

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31
Q

4 anchoring junctions?

A

adherens
desmosomes
hemidesmosomes
focal adhesions

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32
Q

gate and fence function (tight junctions)?

A

gate - regulates paracellular permeability
fence- forms apical and basolateral inter membrane diffusion barrier
gate is middle, fence 2 sides

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33
Q

gap junction composition?

A

hexameters and connexins

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34
Q

what specialisations do plasma cells have to produce antibodies?

A

RER, golgi apparatus

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35
Q

hepatocyte function?

A

lipid biosynthesis

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36
Q

leydig cell function?

A

steroid hormone biosynthesis

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37
Q

3 cilia functions?

A

mucus clearance
circulate csf
help ovum to uterus

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38
Q

what happens I Alzheimers?

A

tau protein dissociated from microtubules causing microtubule dissassembly

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39
Q

tay Sachs disease?

A

build up of gangliosides (lipids) in brain and spinal cord
deficiency In lysosomal enzyme

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40
Q

what are tight junctions composed of? where?

A

cluadins
epidermis

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41
Q

adherens composition? function?

A

cadherins
morphogenesis: contractility

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42
Q

desmosome composition? where?

A

desmosomal cadherins
keratins in epidermis connection

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43
Q

focal adhesion and hemidesmosome composition? focal adhesion function?

A

integrins
cell migration

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44
Q

what is membrane of gram negative bacteria?

A

lipopolysaccharide

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45
Q

order of gram staining?

A

crystal violet
grams iodine
ethanol
safranin

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46
Q

which cells take up residence in tissues?

A

dendritic cells
macrophages
mast cells

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47
Q

what activates complement? why does this happen?

A

plasmin
coagulation system activated in response to trauma

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48
Q

3 parts of complement causing inflammation? what do these activates?

A

c3a, c4a, c5a
mast cells

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49
Q

how do mast cells cause inflammation?

A

inflammatory mediators e.g. bradykinin
inflammatory lipids
cytokines

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50
Q

name inflammatory lipids?

A

prostaglandins
leukotrienes
platelet activating factor

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51
Q

name cytokines?

A

IL - 1,6,8,12 and TNF

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52
Q

Macriphage function? where do they come from?

A

phagocytose debris and kill with lysosomes, tissue repair
tissue resident or monocytes in blood

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53
Q

how do macrophages kill?

A

have phagocytic receptors binding microbes
bound material taken into phagosomes and broken down in phagolysosomes

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54
Q

How do toll like receptors work?

A

recognise PAMPs and then activate macrophages/dendiritic cells

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55
Q

what is interstitial fluid?

A

portion of plasma not re taken up by blood vessels, instead taken up by lymphatic vessels

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56
Q

where is lymph drained?

A

upper right body : right subclavian vein
upper left and lower body: left subclavian vein

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57
Q

lymph functions?

A

carries digestive proteins and fats
transports immune cells

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58
Q

lymph node function?

A

collects antigen from periphery
activates adaptive immune response

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59
Q

spleen function?

A

removes cellular waste and old blood cells
controls levels of blood cells

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60
Q

cellular and acellular microorganisms?

A

cellular: bacteria, fungi, protazoa
acellular- viruses, prions

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61
Q

how does bacteria reproduce?

A

binary fission

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62
Q

what bacteria is gram stain unreliable?

A

small, atypical life cycle, atypical structure

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63
Q

name GP cocci and rods, GN cocci and rods.

A

GP cocci:
staphyloccus aureus
streptococcus pneumonia’s
GP rods:
listeria monocytogenes
corynebacterim diphtheria
GN cocci:
nesseiria meningitidis
GN rods:
salmonella
E COLI

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64
Q

colonisation benefits?

A

inhibit infection
immune stimulation
vit K and B produced as by products

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65
Q

where are endotoxins found? example? what happens?

A

gram neg bacteria wall
lipopolysaccharide
when cell dies causes immune stimulation and sepsis

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66
Q

what are super antigens? where found? what happens?

A

exotoxins
gram positive
produced intracellular and released as mature toxins on infection
staph a, strep pyrogenes
TSS
T cell stimulation

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67
Q

what condition can zika cause?

A

microcephaly
through mosquitoes

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68
Q

how is monkeypox transmitted?

A

body fluids

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69
Q

mosquito borne diseases?

A

zika
elephantitis
malaria
yellow fever
dengue
west nile virus

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70
Q

how is:
plague
leishmanisis
lyme disease
african trypsosomaiis
caused?

A

fleas
sandflies
ticks
tsetse flies

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71
Q

what does kissing bugs cause?

A

chronic GI disease

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72
Q

water borne disease?

A

cholera
salmonella
ecoli
enterovirus

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73
Q

drug for schistosomiasis?

A

praziquantel

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74
Q

What is involved in innate immune response?

A

complement
neutrophils
macrophages

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75
Q

how does complement work? what are its activators and outcomes?

A

series of proteins in plasma, forms complex which is inserted into bacterial wall to kill them
antigen:antibody complexes, pathogen surfaces
inflammatory cell recruitment, opsonisation/killing of pathogens

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76
Q

when is innate and adaptive response?

A

innate - 4 hrs
adaptive: 96 hrs

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77
Q

how long do neutrophils live?

A

6-12hrs

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78
Q

primary and secondary neutrophil granules?

A

primary: lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, proteases/hydrolases
secondary: lysozyme, collegenase, lactoferrin

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79
Q

4 steps of innate migration?

A

rolling adhesion
tight binding
diapedesis
migration

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80
Q

pseudopodia function?

A

finger like projections of macrophages encapsulating apoptotic cells

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81
Q

humoral vs cell mediated response?

A

humoral: B cells make antibodies
cell mediated: T cell attack

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82
Q

what are B cell receptors?

A

antibodies

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83
Q

what does clonal selection?

A

antigen

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84
Q

what are epitopes:

A

things antibodies bind to

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85
Q

what is antibody neutralisation?

A

blocks adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa
blocks active site of toxin

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86
Q

helper T cell function?

A

produce cytokines to direct immune response
help B cells and cytotoxic t cells
direct innate responses

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87
Q

what allows thymus to identify T cells?

A

cd3 complex

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88
Q

what is MHC I involved with?

A

cd8 cells
recognise antigen presented in context of mHC I in many cells and can be induced to kill

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89
Q

what is MHC II involved with?

A

CD4 cells
recognise antigen presented in context of MHC II on APCs and help them

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90
Q

what 3 signals do T cells require to activate?

A

antigen presented in MHC
surface molecule costmulation
cytokines

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91
Q

how are B cells activated?

A

T cells recognise antigen and produces effecter molecules to mature it

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92
Q

what 2 cell tyoes do B cells form?

A

memory
antibody secreting plasma cells

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93
Q

3 things required for clotting?

A

clotting factors
ca ions
negative phospholipid surfaces

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94
Q

capsule and pilli function in bateria?

A

capsule: slimy to avoid phagocytosis
pilli: attachment to host cell

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95
Q

how do bacteria bind to host cells?

A

adhesins - pilli coated in these

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96
Q

when are eosinophils active?

A

parasitic worms
allergic reaction

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97
Q

when are basophils active?

A

allergic reaction

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98
Q

plasma composition?

A

92% water
8% proteins, immunoglobulins, electrolytes

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99
Q

plasma functions?

A

collects waste around the body and transports to kidneys
maintain body temp
fibrinogen production
electrolytes maintain blood ph

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100
Q

how long do RBCs live and where are they broken down?

A

120 days
spleen/liver

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101
Q

how is platelet plug formed?

A

endothelium disrupted exposing collagen and von willebrand factor
platelets activated and adhere
release granules to recruit more platelets

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102
Q

what happens in extrinsic pathway?

A

activated when tissue factor III exposed
III binds with Ca and VIIa to activate X
factor VII requires vit K to activate

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103
Q

what happens in intrinsic pathway?

A

activated by activate dplatelets
IXa, VIIIa, Ca form complex to active X

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104
Q

how is factor VIII activated?

A

thrombin

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105
Q

what happens in final common pathway?

A

prothrombin to thrombin (Xa and V)
fibrinogen (soft clot) to fibrin (hard clot) by cross linking

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106
Q

how are clots lysed?

A

plasminogen converted to active plasmin by tpA

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107
Q

explain order of emergency triage

A

red - immediate - cardiac arrest
orange - 10-15 mins
yellow -60 mins
green - 4 hrs
blue go home

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108
Q

describe 4 types of shock?

A

distributive: severe peripheral dilation, anaphylaxis (histamine), sepsis (cytokines), neurogenic
hypovolaemic: loss of intracellular volume, e.g. haemorrhage, burns, trauma, GI bleeding, DKA
cariogenic: pump failure, arrythmia, MI
obstructive: barriers e.g. cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism

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109
Q

cardiac output formula?

A

HR x SV

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110
Q

What is a blood shunt?

A

take blood from non vital organs to allow heart to pump

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111
Q

triad of blood loss?

A

decreased coagulation = increased lactic acid in blood
acidosis = decreased heart performance
hypothermia = decreased coagulation

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112
Q

laceration vs incision wound?

A

laceration -blunt force trauma
incision - slash/stab

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113
Q

start codon and 3 stop codons?

A

AUG
UGA, UAG,UAA

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114
Q

degeneracy meaning?

A

different amino acids can make same protein in case of mutation

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115
Q

how do amino acids join?

A

condensation

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116
Q

sickle cell aneamia cause?

A

beta globin gene mutation

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117
Q

cystic fibrosis cause? usual function of gene?

A

CFTR
mucus transport in lungs/pancreas, chloride ion channel

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118
Q

mucus composition?

A

proteoglycans

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119
Q

glycocalyx function?

A

physical barrier around cells

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120
Q

Why do lipids appear optically empty?

A

dissolved in processing

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121
Q

how is Lyme disease contracted?

A

tick bites

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122
Q

what structure is staphylococcus aureus?

A

blue cocci in clusters

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123
Q

what cell is in pus?

A

neutrophils

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124
Q

IL-8 function?

A

attracts neutrophils

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125
Q

T helper 1 function?

A

macrophage activaton

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126
Q

which cells are MHC II?

A

dendritic cells
macrophages
B cells

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127
Q

which cells are MHC I?

A

nucleated cells

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128
Q

what happens to B cells in spleen?

A

activation and expansion

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129
Q

which is the first antibody produced in response to infection?

A

IgM

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130
Q

2 soluble components?

A

complement
antiboies

131
Q

alteplase function?

A

converts plasminogen to plasmin

132
Q

tranexamic acid function?

A

binds to plasminogen to decrease fibrinolysis
prevents excessive blood loss

133
Q

which bones are
short bones
flat bones
irregular bones
sesamoid bones

A

short: wrist and ankle
flat: ribs, skull, sternum, scapula
irregular: vertebrae, sacrum, facial bones
sesamoid - patella

134
Q

axial vs appendicular skeleton?

A

axial - body
appendicular - limbs

135
Q

how many bones in viscerocranium and neurocranium?

A

viscero (face bones) 14
neuro 8

136
Q

3 parts of pelvic girdle?

A

ilium
iscium
pubis

137
Q

how many carpals, metacarpals, phalanges?

A

8,5,14 per limb

138
Q

how many tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges?

A

7,5,14 per limb

139
Q

what is implantation?

A

connection between embryo and maternal endometrium

140
Q

what does trophoblast differentiate into?

A

cut-trophoblast, synctiotrophoblast (invasive, produces HCG)

141
Q

where can ectopic pregnancy occur?

A

uterine tube
surface of ovary
peritoneal cavity
gi wall

142
Q

amnion, yolk sac, chorion, allantois function?

A

amino - hypoblast, amniotic cavity, til brith
yolk sac - epiblast, nutrient transfer week 2-3, blood cell/gut formation, goes by week 20
chorion - double layer membrane, from trophoblasts, chorionic cavity, disappears when amnion expands, fetal component of placenta
allantois: outgrowth of yolk sac, umbilical arteries and fetal bladder,

143
Q

what are germ cell teratomas formed from?

A

germ cells failed to develop into oocyte/sperm

144
Q

3 CKIs? how do they work?

A

p21
p16
p27
block CDK activity by making inactive complex or acting as competitive ligand

145
Q

what is maturation promoting factor?

A

CDK1/cyclin b

146
Q

microtubule associated protein function?

A

spindle formation

147
Q

what happens in restriction point?

A

RB binds to E2F which usually transcribes genes for S phase
when growth factor detected, was produces cyclin D and activated CDK4/6
kinase phosphorylates rb

148
Q

3 tumor suppressors?

A

RB - cell cycle entry
p53 - DNA damage
BRCA1 - dna repair

149
Q

what happens when p53 detects damage in G1/G2 checkpoints?

A

p53 produces p21 to prevent production of CDKs

150
Q

cyclins/CDKs in:
G1
G1/S
S
M

A

g1: cyclin D, cdk4/6
g1/s: cyclin E, cdk2
s: cyclin a, cdk1/2
m: cyclin b, cdk1

151
Q

thrombopoeitin function?

A

produces platelets

152
Q

colony stimulating factor function?

A

myeloid lineage in haematopoeisis

153
Q

name some protooncogenes?

A

EGFR, HER2, ABL, BRAF, RAS, cyclin d, myc

154
Q

ras, braf, egfr, erb2 function?

A

ras: g protein transfusing signals from cell surface receptors
braf: kinase transducing signals
egfr: transmembrane receptor
erb b2: transmembrane receptor, breast cancer

155
Q

where is bcr-abl found?

A

chronic myeloidleukaemia

156
Q

bcl2 function?

A

inhibits apoptosis

157
Q

mmp-8 and upa function?

A

mmp-8: breaks down collage in BM
upa: activates plasmin which is a protease

158
Q

cyclopean is a failure of?

A

SHH signalling in development

159
Q

herceptin/tranzutamab target?

A

HER2 (brest cancer)

160
Q

salbutamol target?

A

b2 receptor

161
Q

Gleevec/imatinib target?

A

bcr-abl in chronic myeloid leukaemia

162
Q

where are steroid hormones derived from?

A

cholestrol

163
Q

where are eiconaoids derived from?

A

lipids e.g. prostaglandins

164
Q

how do steroid hormones work?

A

bind to intracellular receptors
hormone receptor complex acts as transcription factor
complex binds to dna and alters gene expression

165
Q

which cyclin is regulated by mitogens? what are mitogens?

A

B
growth facto inducing proliferation

166
Q

which cell cycle stage dependent on mitogens?

A

G1

167
Q

Which molecule is a tetramer?

A

p53

168
Q

which molecule binds to enzyme linked cell surface receptor?

A

EGF

169
Q

5 parts of ecm?

A

collagen
elastin
proteoglycan
hyluoran
glycoproteins

170
Q

fibrillin function?

A

assembles elastin

171
Q

when is van giesen stain used?

A

connective tissue

172
Q

IgG structure and functions?

A

pentamer
in blood plasma
most common
can cross placental barroer

173
Q

IgA structure and function?

A

dimer
present in secretions

174
Q

IgM function?

A

first line of defense

175
Q

IgE function?

A

parasitic infections
activates mast cells and basophils

176
Q

IgD function?

A

B cell maturation and actvation

177
Q

haemophilia a cause?

A

VIII deficiency

178
Q

haemophilia b cause?

A

IX deficiency - intrinsic

179
Q

warfarin effect on coagulation?

A

effects vitamin k dependent clotting factors in extrinsic pathway = pt
anticoagulant drug

180
Q

heparin effect on coagulation? usual function?

A

inhibits extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
anticoagulant

181
Q

what is bronchiolitis?

A

cold progressing to coughing/wheezig/difficulty breathing

182
Q

croup symtpom?

A

barking cough

183
Q

influenza a surface proteins?

A

neuraminidase
haemagluttinin

184
Q

normal cd4 count?

A

450-1660 cd4 cells/cm3

185
Q

m protein function?

A

binds nucleocapsid to envelope

186
Q

what enhances phagocytosis in TB eradication?

A

TNF alpha and interferon gamma enhance phagocytosis in macrophages
activated macrophages produce IL-12 AND 18 which produce INTERFERON GAMMA
macrophages prevent spread of tb but don’t eradicate it

187
Q

how is disseminated disease caused?

A

lack of interferon gamma and its receptor
makes you more susceptible to getting TB

188
Q

what is caseous necrosis?

A

form of cell death where cells resemble cheese

189
Q

which hiv receptor binds to receptors of cd4 and ccr5?

A

GP120

190
Q

granules in mast cell?

A

histamine, prostaglandin

191
Q

primary vs secondary mast cell response? how are they activated?

A

IgE binds
primary: degranulation, histamine/proteases causes local irritation
secondary: arachidonic acid produces prostaglandin and luekatrienes to cause allergic response

192
Q

which type of hypersensitivity is T cell mediated?

A

4

193
Q

what 3 things are produced in islet of langerhans?

A

a - glucagon
b - insulin
d - somatostatin

194
Q

what happens in diabetic islet?

A

T cell destroy beta cells so insulin isn’t produced

195
Q

what molecule recognises silica acid in. respiratory epithelia?

A

haemagluittinin - attaches virus to host cells

196
Q

neuraminidase function?

A

releases vriions fom cells

197
Q

HIC coreceptor on T cells?

A

CCR5

198
Q

how does measles infect?

A

respiratory system

199
Q

primary vs secondary immunodeficiency?

A

primary - congenital
secondary - acquired

200
Q

x linked scid cause?

A

mutated IL-2Ry chain
T and NK cells affected bUT B cells normal

201
Q

IL-2R function?

A

scaffolding for receptors for cytokines

202
Q

ada scid?

A

t,b,nk cells depleted

203
Q

cause of hyper igm syndrome? what is seen in lymph nodes?

A

CD40L on t cells
no germinal centres: b cells not actiavted

204
Q

foxn1 deficiency cause? what happens?

A

defective thymus
B cells normal but no T cells
alopecia

205
Q

brutons aggamaglobulinaemia cause?

A

mutation in brutons tyrosine gene
no b cell develoment

206
Q

chronic granulomata disease cause?

A

no superoxide burst due to mutated napdh enzymes
granulomas form

207
Q

what happens in familial meditteranian fever?

A

inflammasome regulators mutated so too much IL-1 produced

208
Q

Where is plasminogen synthesised?

A

liver

209
Q

dengue vs influenza?

A

dengue has no respiratory symtpoms

210
Q

What is Activated Plasmin?

A

a crude solution of plasminogen activated by urokinase.

211
Q

Glycocalyx function?

A

-layer of carbohydrate covering cells
- cell recognition
- prominent in gut

212
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A

ligaments

213
Q

what connects muscle to bone?

A

tendons

214
Q

what term means bones fused together?

A

synostosis

215
Q

what is syndesmosis?

A

bones joined by connective tissue e.g. ligaments

216
Q

what happens when ACH binds to ACHR?

A

sodium ions move in
potassium moves out

217
Q

what type of virus is influenza?

A

myxovirus

218
Q

titin function?

A

aligns thick filament in each sarcomere

219
Q

which pathway has 2 neutrons?

A

visceral efferent

220
Q

what is corpus callous?

A

links cerebral hemispheres but fibres cross over so each half of brain controls other half of body

221
Q

conus medullaris vs cauda equina?

A

conus medullaris: lower end of spinal cord at L1/2
cauda equina: nerve rootslets from L2-5 , CSF can be extracted here

222
Q

where are bipolar, unipolar, multipolar neutrons found?

A

bipolar - interneuron
unipolar- sensory
multipolar - motor/inter/pyramidal

223
Q

which glial cells are dysfunctional in multiple sclerosis?

A

oligodendrocyte

224
Q

which glial cells are dysfunctional in guillan barre syndrome?

A

schwann cells

225
Q

what garde of tumor is glioblastoma?

A

IV

226
Q

GREY VS WHITE MATTER?

A

grey: more cell bodies, dendrites, axon termini, astrocytes, blood vessels
white: axons, oligodendrocytes, blood vessels

227
Q

cerebrum composition?

A

cerebral cortex, white matter, basal nuclei

228
Q

diencephalon composition?

A

thalamus/hypothalamus

229
Q

what cranial nerves arise from brainstem?

A

III - XII

230
Q

What matter is cerebral cortex?

A

grey

231
Q

brocas area?

A

speech impaired, can comprehend

232
Q

Wernicke area?

A

speech good but no meaning, comprehension imapired
wankers spew crap

233
Q

limbic system? functions?

A

amygdala: emotions
hippocampus: learning/memory

234
Q

basal ganglia function?

A

control movement

235
Q

thalamus function?

A

relay centre between spinal cord and cerebral cortex

236
Q

c1-5 spinla nerve function?

A

breathing

237
Q

l3-s1 spinal nevre function?

A

knee and foot movement

238
Q

where do sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves come from?

A

sym: T1-12
para: cranial nerves and S2-4

238
Q

where do sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves come from?

A

sym: T1-12
para: cranial nerves and S2-4

239
Q

SPINOTHALAMIc tract vs corticospinal tract?

A

spinothalamic - ascending, temperature, pain, sensory
corticospinal - descending, motor, voluntary movement

240
Q

epidural vs subdural space?

A

epidural: potenial, meningeal arteries supplying dura rupture space fills w blood
subdural: bridging veins connecting to venous sinuses rupture

241
Q

difference between meninges at spinal cord?

A

dura is one layer
epidural space contains fat and venous plexus

242
Q

where to do lumbar puncture?

A

L4-5

243
Q

2 parts of blood brain barrier?

A

capillaries in nervous tissue, astrocytes cover vessel
ependymocytes have tight junctions, ventricles and spinal canal

244
Q

where is blood brain barrier less?

A

area postrema in medulla for vomiting
pituitary gland (secretions)

245
Q

function of each part of cerebrum?

A

parietal: sensory integration, language
frontal: executive functions, long term memory, speech, personality
temporal: auditory cortex
occipital: vision

246
Q

function of:
astrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes
schwann cells

A

nutrient supply
phagocytotic role
css production and circulation
Nueornal supportand myelin formation in CNS
myelin supply in PNS

247
Q

which body system has slower nerve impulses?

A

endocrine

248
Q

what happens during an ection potential?

A

sodium channels open and they flow into cell, depolarisation 40mv
potassium chanells open and flow out of cell, repolarisation
hyperpolarisation when too many potassium leave
restored by sodium potassium pump

249
Q

mecanically gated channel stimuli?

A

tension in membrane

250
Q

how is action potential generated?

A

summation of dendrite inputs
excitatory and inhibitory pre synaptic potentials
membrane potential must reach thereshold voltage e.g. -55mv

251
Q

spacial vs temporal summation?

A

spacial: from different dendrites
temporal - repeated inputs from same dendrite

252
Q

what is action potential frequency coded by?

A

frequency not magnitude

253
Q

name:
amino acid neurotransmitters
catecholamine
acetycholine
peptides

A

glutamate (CNS excitatory) gaba (inhibitory)
dopamine, serotnin
neuromuscular junction
subtance p, endorphins

254
Q

what happens when gaba binds? what kind of receptor is it? how is it turned off?

A

chloride ion channel opens
chloride ions flow into cell, theyre negative
hyperpolarisation occurs, hard to reach action potential
reuptaken into cell or degraded by enzymes

255
Q

when is gaba used clinically?

A

anaesthetic, ethanol, Benzes as inhibiting action potential has sedative action

256
Q

effect of ach binding to neuromuscular junction? how is it turned off?

A

nachr is sodium ion channel receptor
sodium enters and depolarises muscle cell memrbane
causes muscle contraction
acetycholinesterase

257
Q

myasthenia graves cause?

A

autoimmune antibodies attach ach at neuromuscular junction
less muscle contraction = weakness of face muscles
ache inhibitors used

258
Q

transcription factors function? which molecule acts on these?

A

affect rate of transcription positively or negatively
master regulators control how much protein is made
steroid hormones

259
Q

what acts as a bridge between DNA and RNA polymerase II?

A

general/basal transcription factors bind to TATA box

260
Q

promoter function?

A

transcription factors bind and affect how much protein is expressed

261
Q

what happens if mutation in:
tata box of beta globin gene
ccr5 promoter
factor IX promoter
LDLR promoter

A

thalassaemia
HIV progresses to aids quicker
haemophilia B
familial hypercholestrolaemia

262
Q

enhancer/silencer functions?

A

make ir more/less likely for promoter to be activated

263
Q

oct1 function?

A

represses TSH production in all cells except thyrotrophs in pituatry

264
Q

nucleosome function?

A

keep DNA closed to transcription factors

265
Q

locus control region function?

A

opens DNA of all genes

266
Q

sympathetic output origin? exception?

A

thoracolumbar origin
cervical ganglia

267
Q

pre and post ganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitters? exception?

A

pre - acetycholine
post - noradrenaline
sweat glands and deep muslce vessels = acetycholine in post

268
Q

functions of alpha 1 and 2 receptors?

A

1: arteriole constriction, increased blood pressure
2: coronary and venous vasoconstriction, lowers BP

269
Q

functions of beta 1 and 2 receptors?

A

1 - increased heart rate and contractility
2- smooth muscle relaxation e.g. pupils, uterus, bladder

270
Q

parasympathetic origin? neurotransmitters?

A

craniosacral outflow
acetycholine pre and post

271
Q

what is in craniosacral outflow?

A

cranial 3,7,9,10
Sacral 2,3,4

272
Q

m2 and m3 functions?

A

m2 - decreased heart rate and contraction
m3 - salivary glands, gut, bladder, eye. Returns to normal

273
Q

effect of m2 antagonist?

A

increases heart rate

274
Q

where are muscarinc receptors in brain?

A

m1,4,5

275
Q

function of n1 and n2 receptors?

A

motor neurons
autonomic nervous system

276
Q

what happens in brain stem death?

A

parylysis/unconsiousness, loss of cranial nerve function

277
Q

c diff effect on body?

A

lives in gut and releases toxins

278
Q

why is cell wall common antibiotic target?

A

humans don’t have peptidoglycan cell wall

279
Q

which antibiotics target cell wall?

A

beta lactam e.g. peniclin, ceohalosporins
vancomycin

280
Q

when is vancomycin used?

A

gram pos bacteria, cannot penetrate gram negwall
used for penicillin resistant bcateria e.g. MRSA
targets cell wall

281
Q

which antibiotics are used on ribosomes?

A

doxyxyxlin, carithromycin
intracellular pathogens

282
Q

what is ciprofloxacin used for?

A

DNA damage

283
Q

what does trimethroprim used for and what’s its target?

A

cell metabolism
non severe UTI

283
Q

aorta branches?

A

brachiocephali - carotid and subclavian
left carotid - head and neck
left subclavian - left lib

284
Q

ductus venosus function? what does this become at birth?

A

allows bypass of fetal liver
ligamentum venosum

285
Q

foramen ovale function? what does it become at birth?

A

allows blood to flow from right to left atrium
fossa ovalis

286
Q

umbilical arteries function?

A

takes deoxygenated blood to placenta

287
Q

where is external pacemaker usually positioned?

A

right atrial appendage

288
Q

what arteries do left and right coronary arteries give rise to?

A

r - marginal artery
left - circumflex, Interventricular

289
Q

name cardiac veins?

A

great cardiac vein
anterior cardiac vein
small cardiac vein
middle cardiac evin
coronary sinus

290
Q

which lung has horizontal fissure?

A

right

291
Q

which pressure becomes more negative in respiration?

A

pleural

292
Q

how is information from RARs sent to brain? how does efferent info reach diaphragm ?

A

vagus nrve
phrenic nerve

293
Q

what is a respiratory unit?

A

gas exchanging unit
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

294
Q

where does co2 and o2 move in terms of alveoli?

A

co2 enters from capillary and o2 leaves to capillary

295
Q

what is the respiratory tree?

A

conducting and respiratory airways

296
Q

1st and 2nd heart sound?

A

1 av valves closing
2 pulmonary and aortic valves closing

297
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

amount ejected per beat

298
Q

what determines HR and why? what can act as secondary pacemaker?

A

sinoatrial node- fastest intrinsic rate
AV node

299
Q

what is excitation contraction coupling?

A

purkinje fibres interdigitate with myocytes to spread impulses across ventricles

300
Q

describe
P wave
QRS wave
T wave
P-R interval
ST interval

A

atrial depolarisation
ventricular depolarisation
ventricular repolarisation
delay through av node - gives atria time to eject more blood to ventricle
plateau phase of ap - sodium entering and potassium leaving, allows refractory period

301
Q

which ions enter and leave in sa node? what happens if k+ permeability increases? what if Ca permability increase

A

calcium in, potassium out
bpm decrease and HR slows due to ACh
shorter time to thereshold and HR increases due to noradrenaline

302
Q

where does r and l vagus terminate?

A

r - sa node
l -av node

303
Q

vascular smooth muscle function?

A

determine vessel radius
secrete ecm for elasticity

304
Q

what is mean arterial pressure? formula?

A

average pressure pushing blood round body
diastolic - 1/3 systolic-diastolic

305
Q

explain the movements of the eyeball

A

superior rectus: eyeball elevation
inferior rectus: eyeball depression
lateral rectus: eyeball abducts
medial rectus: eyeball adducts
superior oblique: eyeball depression and abduction
inferior oblique: eyeball elevaes and abducts

306
Q

what nerve innervates nearly all eye movements? exceptions?

A

oculomotor
trochlear: superior oblique
abducens: lateral rectus

307
Q

which muscle keeps eyelid open

A

levator palpebrae superioris

308
Q

which cranial nerve tase signals from cochlea to brain?

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

309
Q

function of:
foramen caecum
vallate papillae
filliform papillae
fungiform papillae

A

where thyroid developed in early life
boundary between front and back of tongue
rough surface for food maniulation
taste buds

310
Q

hypogastric, pudenal and pelvic sphlancnic nerve functions?

A

h - detrusor, inhibits contraction
h - internal urethral spincter, contraction
p - external urethral contraction
pelvic sphlancnic - detrusor contraction

311
Q

psoas major function?

A

hip flexion

312
Q

name the different ligaments in ovary?
Round ligament
Broad ligament
Suspensory ligament
Ovarian ligament
Rectouterine pouch

A

Round ligament maintains anteflexion of the uterus.
Broad ligament: mesentery
Suspensory ligament: blood supply of ovaries
Ovarian ligament: connects ovary and lateral aspect of uterus
Rectouterine pouch: double fold of peritoneum where fluid can collect

313
Q

which joint is interpharangeal joints? plane? pivot?

A

hinge
acromioclavicular
atlantoaxial

314
Q

what does hertz measure? what is sound pressure? what is difference between sound pressure against normal hearing? what is loudness?

A

pitch
frequency ofvibrations
db spl
db hl
strength of vibrations

315
Q

what does first vs second branchial arch form in ears?

A

1 - malleus and incus
2 stapes

316
Q

2 protective muscles in ears?

A

stapedius reflex
tensor tympani

317
Q

describe muscle excitation

A
318
Q

tonus vs tetany?

A

tightness vs sustained contaraction

319
Q

tetanus order?

A

twitch
wave summation
imcomplete tetanus
complete tetanus

320
Q

parts of muscle sarcomere
z line
a band
i band
h band

A

z - boundary of sarcomere
a - myosin and actin
I band - reduce in size, only actin
h - disappear, only myosin

321
Q

summarise muscle contraction

A

nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction
ach released and binds with receptors on muscle membrane to allow sodium to enter
soium entry generate actin potential

MBChB1 Phase 1 (12 decks)

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