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MBChB1 Phase 1 > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the vertebral collumn?

A

support
movement
protection

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2
Q

Function of the vertebral body? What is inbetween them?

A

weight transfer
IVDs

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3
Q

Function of vertebral arch? What does it form?

A

surrounds and protects spinal cord
forms vertebral foramen

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4
Q

function of pedicle?

A

attaches body to vertebral arch

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5
Q

function of transverse processes?

A

muscle/ligament attachment, also ribs in thorax

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6
Q

function of lamina?

A

forms spinous processes

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7
Q

function of lamina?

A

forms spinous processes

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8
Q

function of spinous processes?

A

muscle/ligament attachment

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9
Q

function of superior/inferior articular processes?

A

form joints

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10
Q

function of superior/inferior vertebral notches?

A

form intervertebral formaen for spinal nerves

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11
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1/L2

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12
Q

what is the cauda equina?

A

spinal nerves that extend past spinal cord ending

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13
Q

Where does the c1 nerve exit?

A

above c1 vertebra

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14
Q

what is the most and least mobile parts of vertebral collumn?

A

most - cervical
least - thoracic

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15
Q

what are zygapophyseal joints, which type of joints are these?

A

joints between articular surfaces of vertebrae
synovial/plane

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16
Q

what are symphysis joints in the spine and what type of joint are these?

A

between IVDs
secondary cartilaginous

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17
Q

how many of each joint type are in the vertebrae?

A

4x zygopophyseal
2x ivd

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18
Q

function of fibrocartilaginous joints of vertebral bodies?

A
  • stability and flexibility
  • pressure regulation
  • shock absorber
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19
Q

what is the annulus fibrosis and function and structure?

A

outer fibrous sheath of ivd joint
collagen layers in rings
fibrocartilage inner zone
high tensile strength

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20
Q

structure and function of nucleus pulposus?

A

inner layer of ivd joint
gelatinous
80-85% water
high resilience

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21
Q

what is a slipped disc? effect?

A

prolapse of ivd/hernia
tear in annulus fibrosis so nucleus pulposus can protrude
can impinge on spinal cord nerves, causes numbeness/tingling

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22
Q

what are the firts 2 vertebral bodies called?

A

c1 - atlas, no body
c2 - axis, odontoid process

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23
Q

which type of joint is c1-base of skull?

A

atlanto-occipital
nodding yes joint

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24
Q

which type of joint is the c1-c2 joint?

A

atlanto-axial
shaking no joint

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25
Q

function of ligaments usually in msk?

A
  • connect bone to bone
  • supports joints
  • restrict joint movement
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26
Q

function of anterior longitudinal ligament, location?

A

base of skull to anterior surface of sacrum
attachef to anterior surface vertebral bodies and ivds
prevents hyperextension

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27
Q

function of posterior longitudinal ligament? locTION?

A

c2 to sacrum
posterior vertebral bodies and ivvds
lines anterior surface of vertebral canal
resists hyperextension

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28
Q

function of supraspinous ligaments? location?

A

c7 to sacrum
connects tips of spinous processes
cord like

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29
Q

function and location of nuchal ligament? which type of tissue is here?

A

base of skull to c7
fibroelastic tissue
supports head on neck
provides attachemt for muscle e.g. trapezius

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30
Q

function and location of ligamenta flava?

A

pass between laminae
resist seperation of verts during flexion

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31
Q

where are interspinous liagments found?

A

between spinous processes

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32
Q

where are inetrtransverse ligaments found?

A

between transverse processes

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33
Q

What makes a well built question?

A
  • relevant to problem
  • allows you to find precise answer
  • focused
  • contains pico
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34
Q

what does pico stand for?

A

p - people,patients or population
i - intervention
c - comparison, control or comparator
o - outcome

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35
Q

what are predatory journals?

A

pay to publish
not peer reviewed

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36
Q

5 points of critical appraisal?

A
  • relevance
  • validity
  • accuracy/reliability
  • correct data interpretation
  • significance
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37
Q

Where do intrinsic muscles act in the back?

A

directly on the spine

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38
Q

when do intrinsic back muscles develop?

A

embryonically

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39
Q

what are intrinsic back muscles supplied by?

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves

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40
Q

functions of intrinsic muscles?

A

maintain posture and control movement of vertebrae

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41
Q

function of thoracolumbar fascia?

A

seperates muscles into compartments

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42
Q

what does thoracolumbar fascia cover?

A

deep muscles of back

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43
Q

what is attached to thoracolumbar fascia and what does it aid with?

A

lattisumus dorsi and trapezius
helps with movement

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44
Q

general structure of splenius muscles?

A

thick and flat

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45
Q

what are the two splenius muscles?

A

splenius capitis and splenius cervicis

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46
Q

where do splenius mucles originate?

A

spinous processes and nuchal ligament

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47
Q

where does splenius capitus insert?

A

base of skull
mastoid process

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48
Q

where does splenius cervisis insert?

A

transverse processes c1-3

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49
Q

actions of splenius muscles?

A

bilaterally extend neck
unilaterally rotate head to one side

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50
Q

list the layers of intrinsic back muscles from superficial to deep

A

splenius
erector spinae
transversospinalis

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51
Q

function of erector spinae muscles?

A

primary extensors of back

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52
Q

what is the common origin of erector spinae muscles?

A

broad tendon
attached to sacrum, spinous processes of lumbar and lower thoracic vertebrae, iliac crest

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53
Q

3 types of iliocostalis muscle?

A

lumborum
thoracis
cervicis

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54
Q

what do iliocostalis muscles insert?

A

angles of ribs
cervical transverse processes

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55
Q

3 types of longissimus muscles?

A

thoracic, cervicis, capitis

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56
Q

what do longissimus muscles insert?

A

thoracic and cervical transverse processes
mastoid process

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57
Q

3 types of spinalis muscle?

A

thoracic
cervicis
capitis

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58
Q

what do spinalis muscles insert?

A

thoracic processes
skull

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59
Q

function of transverospinalis muscles?

A

fill groove between transverse and spinous processes

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60
Q

3 types of transverospinous muscle?

A

semispinalis
multifidus
rotatores

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61
Q

movemens of transverospinalis muscles?

A

extend and rotate the spine

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62
Q

function of levatores costarum muscle? where is it found?

A

lifts ribs
deep intrinsic muscles

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63
Q

function of interspinales muscles?

A

connect spinous processes
postural

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64
Q

function of intertransversarii muscles?

A

connect transverse processes
postural

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65
Q

what can back pain be caused by?

A

muscle spasm
strained muscles
poor posture
sprains - ligament injury
nerve pain 0 prolaped disc
synovial joints - arthritis

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66
Q

how many major curves of the spine are there?

A

4

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67
Q

functions of spine curvature?

A

align body weight with limbs
allow upright posture

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68
Q

2 primary curvatures? real name?

A

outward, kyphosis
thoracic, sacrococcygeal

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69
Q

2 secondary curvatures? real name?

A

cervical, lumbar
inward, lordosis

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70
Q

When do primary curvatures develop?

A

in the embryo

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71
Q

when do cervical curvatures develop?

A

when baby lifts head after nirth

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72
Q

when do lumbar curvatures develo?

A

when child starts to sit/walk

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73
Q

what is a laminectomy?

A

surgery to remove part of lamina of certain vertebrae
can used to treat pain or compressed nerves

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74
Q

what is reflection?

A

individual analyses their professional practice to gain insight and use lessons learned to maintain good practive and make improvements

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75
Q

why is reflection important?

A
  • develop ways to cope with stress
  • make good work-life balance
  • manage own learning
  • respond well to feedback
  • deal with personal bias
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76
Q

what are the stages of the gibbs reflective cycle>

A

description
feelings
evaluation
analysis
conclusion
action plan

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77
Q

why might someone might not like to reflect?

A
  • fear of judgement
  • dont see value
  • professional arrogance
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78
Q

Name some respiratory viruses

A

coronavirus
rhinovirus
influenza
cold
viral pneumonia

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79
Q

symtpoms of common cold?

A

blocked/runny nose
coughing/sneezing
headache
sore thriat

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80
Q

bronchiolotis symtpoms, when is it common?

A

starts similar to cold but progresses to coughing/wheezing/difficulty breathing
children/infants

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81
Q

marker of croup virus?

A

harsh barking coughing

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82
Q

which typrs of flu virus cause disease in humans?

A

a and b

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83
Q

which flu strain is zoonotic?

A

a

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84
Q

what is flu an infection of?

A

human respiratory tract

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85
Q

how is flu spread?

A

respiratory droplets

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86
Q

symptoms of flu?

A

fever
chills
headache
muscle pain
fatigue
dry cough
sore throar

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87
Q

which type of flu has a broad host range?

A

influenza a

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88
Q

what are the 2 surface proteins of flu virus?

A

ha - haemagglutinin
na - neuraminidase

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89
Q

3 types of human herpesvirus?

A

cold sores
chicken pox
shingles

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90
Q

which state are human herpesviruses in?

A

latent non replicating state for lifetime of host

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91
Q

what can cold sores be triggered by?

A

radiation
emotional/physical stress
fever
spicy food

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92
Q

where foes the chicken pox virus remain?

A

nerve cells

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93
Q

when does shingles usually occur?

A

adults with weakened immune system

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94
Q

symtpoms of mumps? what can it lead to?

A

swelling on face/jaw
headache
joint pain
temperature
meningitis

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95
Q

symtpoms of measles? what can it lead to?

A

flu like symtpoms, spots and rash develops
inflammation of brain

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96
Q

what happens if you have rubella when pregnant?

A

congenital defects
miscarriage or stillbirth

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97
Q

why are mmr numbers of cases increasing?

A

antivaxers
autism scandal

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98
Q

how does hiv spread?

A

bodily fluids in sex
mother to baby - perinatal transmission
blood

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99
Q

what cd4 count determines aids?

A

below 200 cells/mm cubed

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100
Q

what is normal cd4 count?

A

450-1660 cells/mm cubed

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101
Q

examples of opportunistic infections?

A

epstein barr virus
fungal infection
kaposis sarcoma

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102
Q

what is shown in epstein barr virus?

A

raised white lesions of oral mucosa

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103
Q

example of fungal opportunistic infections?

A

oral candidiasis
pneumocystis pneumonia

104
Q

where are zika outbreaks usually?

A

south/central america
caribbean
africa
south asia

105
Q

how is the zika virus transmitted?

A

infected mosquitoes/sex
perinatal transmission

106
Q

some symtpoms of zika?

A

fever
rash
headache
joint pain
conjunctivitis
mucle pain

107
Q

what happens when you have zika when pregnant?

A

microcephaly of baby - small head

108
Q

what syndrome is zika associated with?

A

guillan-barre

109
Q

what can ebola be spread between?

A

people and primates

110
Q

how does ebola transmit?

A

direct contact

111
Q

what size are human viruses?

A

20-200 nm

112
Q

what size are rbcs?

A

7 microns

113
Q

what is a virion?

A

fully assembled virus particle

114
Q

which classification can rna not be?

A

circular double stranded

115
Q

what comprises the nueclic acid genome of viruses?

A

rna or dna

116
Q

what is a capsid?

A

structure that protects genome
contains protein
facilitates entry ti host

117
Q

what is the capsid made from?

A

capsomeres - several different polypeptides

118
Q

which 2 shapes can capsids be?

A

icosahedral
helical

119
Q

what is a nucleocapsid?

A

nucleic acid + capsid

120
Q

what is a naked virus?

A

no envelope

121
Q

where are enveloped viruses derived from?

A

host cell membrane
plasma memrbane, nucelar membrane

122
Q

what are envelopes of viruses composed of?

A

lipid bilayer
virus proteins and glycoproteins inserted

123
Q

label this

A
124
Q

which membrane is hep b derived from?

A

golgi apparatus/endoplasmic reticulum

125
Q

which membrane is herpes derived from?

A

nuclear

126
Q

what are viral envelopes damaged by?

A

detergent/alcohol

127
Q

functions of glycoprotein spikes in virus?

A

attachment to host cell receptor for entry

128
Q

where are host cell responses directed to viruses?

A

glycoprotein spikes

129
Q

function of genome in viruses?

A

contains heriditary info
code for synthesis of capsid and enzymes for replicating genome

130
Q

functions of virus capsid?

A

rigidity of virion
protects genome

131
Q

function of virus matrix protein?

A

binds nucleocapsid core to viral envelope

132
Q

function of virus transport channels?

A

alter permeability of envelope

133
Q

example of single stranded dna virus?

A

parvovirus

134
Q

example of ds viruses?

A

epstein barr
hep b

135
Q

example of ss positive sense rna viruses?

A

coronavirus
norovirus
rubella
zika

136
Q

what does it mean that viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens?

A

they depend on living organisms for growth and reproduction and proliferaation

137
Q

what exactly do viruses depend on for replication?

A

biochemical machinery of host cell

138
Q

how do viruses replicate?

A

assembly of individual components

139
Q

what is viral tropism?

A

ability of virus to infect particular cell, tissue or host

140
Q

what is host range of viruses determined by?

A

specific host attachment sites and cellular factors

141
Q

which ways can viruses infect?

A

oral transmission - food/drink, saliva - hep b
direct skin contact - ebola
droplet transmission - covid
direct innoculation - injection, trauma, insect bites - zika
sexually - hiv
transplacental - zika

142
Q

receptor and target of epstein barr virus?

A

target - b cells
rec - compliment receptor 2

143
Q

receptor and target of hiv?

A

t - tcells/monocytes
r - cd4

144
Q

receptor and target of flu?

A

t - resp epithelium
r - sialic acid residues

145
Q

receptor and target of rhinovirus?

A

t - nasal epithelium
r - icam-1

146
Q

2 mathods of viral entry?

A

macropinocytosis
membrane fusion

147
Q

explain macropinocytosis?

A

virus attaches to host cell membrane
engulfment
virus in vesicle
vesicle, envelope, capsid break down (uncoating)
free dna

148
Q

explain viral membrane fusion?

A

virus attaches to membrane irreverisbly
fuses with membrane
nucleuocapside enters
free rna

149
Q

6 stages of viral infection?

A
  • attachment
  • penetration
  • uncoating
  • synthesis
  • assembly
  • release
150
Q

some outcomes of viral infection?

A
  • virus release, host cell destruction e.g. polio
  • exit by budding e.g. flu
  • exist in host cell cytoplasm e.g. herpes
  • incorporated with genome e.g. hep b
  • oncogenic, stimulate uncontrolled cell growth
151
Q

which type of mutations are common in viruses?

A

deletion/insertion

152
Q

how can viruses vary genomic structure?

A

recombination

153
Q

what is gene assortment?

A

viruses exchange genetic material

154
Q

why do viruses do gene assortment?

A

escape immune surveillance

155
Q

what is antigenic drift? whch viruses do this?

A

small antigenic changes
flu, rhinovirus, hiv

156
Q

what is antigenic shift? what does this give ruse to? where is this common?

A

exchange of genetic material between 2 pathogens
epidemics/pandemics
flu a

157
Q

what is sterilising immunity?

A

clearing an infection completely and recovering

158
Q

what is non-sterilising immunity?

A

good immune response but infection isn’t cleared entirely
chronic infection

159
Q

what is immune failure?

A

infection fails to be cleared and death occurs

160
Q

how does mycobacterium tuberculosis cause diagnosis problems?

A

very slow growing

161
Q

where exactly does mycobacterium tuberculosis usually affect?

A

apices of lungs
higher partial pressure of oxygen

162
Q

which cells are seen in mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

giant cells
t lymphocytes
macrophages
cases necrosis

163
Q

what is causes necrosis?

A

form of cell death where cells resemble milk/cheese

164
Q

how can tb be reactivated?

A

immunosuppression
smoking
hiv

165
Q

how does tuberculosis spread through coughing?

A

cavities open into the bronchi
mtb spread by coughing

166
Q

which immune cells are involved in mtb?

A
  • cell mediated immunity
  • macrophages
  • T cells
  • cytokines
167
Q

how can mycobacterium tuberculosis survive in macrophages?

A

alters phagosome so it is coated with host cell protein called coronin
inhibits phagosome fusing with lysosome

it is resistant to phagosomal acidification
it can pump out protons to resist lysosomal enzymes

168
Q

which interleukins do macrophages infected with mtb primarily produce? what does this stimulate the T cell to produce?

A

IL-12
IL-18
produces T cell to produce interferon gamma which enhances phagocytosis

169
Q

what is disseminated disease in mtb caused by? effect of this?

A

lack of interferon gamma
lack of interferon gamma receptor
causes susceptibility to tb infection

170
Q

what is the Mantoux reaction?

A

shows if someone has previously been exposed to tb, useful for if someone is visiting country endemic with MTB

171
Q

what does a t spot test measure?

A

if T cells are producing interferon gamma and how much

172
Q

which glycoprotein binds to cd4 in hiv?

A

gp120

173
Q

how does hiv effect the host?

A

gp120 binds to host cell
reverse transcriptase converts rna to dna in hiv cell
hiv integrates the dna into the host genome
new viral particles are produced from the host that infect other cells

174
Q

which cells help prevent mass spread of hiv?

A

cd8 cells

175
Q

what do cd8 levels determine in hiv

A

viral set point
lower viral set point = higher chance of survival
more cd8 = lower viral set point

176
Q

how is dengue transmitted?

A

through infected mosquito bites

177
Q

dengue symptoms? how long?

A

fever, rash, headache, chills
3-7 days

178
Q

what severe damage can be caused by dengue?

A

severe plasma leakage = shock
severe bleeding
liver and heart damage
impaired consciousness

179
Q

what are signs of denge haemorrhage?

A

bruising/blistering/bloody eyes

180
Q

which antibodies increase in dengue?

A

igg
igm

181
Q

what can happen if you get infected a second time with a different strain of dengue?

A

antibody doesn’t destroy dengue virus
it is opnosised
many cytokines produced
disease caused

182
Q

how do natural killer cells kill?

A

release lytic granules to kill virus infected cells

183
Q

which phase of immune response involves pamps?

A

innate

184
Q

which receptors are involved in immune response?

A

germline coded

185
Q

examples of type I hypersensitivity?

A

hayfever
food/pet allergies
latex

186
Q

what causes type I hypersensitivity?

A

ige
mast cells

187
Q

how do macrophages cause allergies?

A

release of histamine/chemotactic causes local irritation

188
Q

what are secondary mediators of mast cells?

A

prostaglandin or leukatrine

189
Q

which hypersensitivity is antibody mediated and what is T cell mediated?

A

antibody - 1,2,3
T cell - 4

190
Q

what is involved in type ii hypersensitivity?

A

igm, igg antibodies on cell surface

191
Q

what is involved in type iii hypersensitivity?

A

igm/igg in basement membrane

192
Q

what is involved in type iv hypersensitivity?

A

cd4 and cd8 cells

193
Q

what happens in organ specific autoimmune disease?

A

damage to organ structure and function
self directed antigens of given organ

194
Q

what happens in non organ specific autoimmune disease?

A

widespread self antigens
damages bloodvessels/cell nuclei

195
Q

what causes autoimmunity?

A

genetic factors
infection/environmental exposure

196
Q

examples of organ specific autoimmune disease?

A

type 1 diabetes
multiple sclerosis
vilitigx
graves disease
goodpastures

197
Q

examples of systemic autoimmune disease?

A

rheumatoid arthritis
scleroderma
lupus

198
Q

function of islets of langerhans?

A

secretes hormones

199
Q

what do alpha, beta and delta secrete in islets of langerhans?

A

alpha - glucagon
beta - insulin
delta - somatostatin

200
Q

what happens to beta cells in a diabetic islet?

A

recognised by T cell which kills them
insulin can’t be made

201
Q

what are thyroid hormones regulated by?

A

thyroid stimulating hormones

202
Q

what is graves disease?

A

non regulated auto activating antibodies bind to tsh receptor
overstimulates production of thyroid hormones
negative feedback wont switch off tsh production
causes weight loss/sweating

203
Q

what is transplant rejection?

A

t cells activated against donor transplantation antigens

204
Q

where is stimulated in transplant rejection?

A

peripheral lymphoid tissues

205
Q

which immune cells are activated in transplant rejection?

A

cd4 and cd8 t cells
macrophages, b cells, nk cells

206
Q

what is hyperacute rejection?

A

pre formed antidonor antiodies bind to graft endothelium after tranplantation

207
Q

what is acute cellular rejection?

A

t cells destroy graft parenchyma and vessels
via cytotoxicity and inflammatory reactions

208
Q

what is acute humoral rejetcion?

A

antibodies damage graft vasculature

209
Q

what is chronic rejection?

A

t cell reaction and secretion of cytokines causes proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells, parenchymal fibrosis

210
Q

environmental causes of asthma?

A

allergens
smoking
diet
pollutants

211
Q

host causes of asthma?

A

gender
obesity
predisposing genes

212
Q

what happens to the airway in asthma?

A

inflamed lower airway
thickened basement membrane
increased goblet cell activity
smooth muscle hypertrophy
airway occlusion by mucosal plyg

213
Q

risk factors of covid?

A

copd
obesity
diabetes
chronic kidney disease
old age

214
Q

what increases covid problems in those with risk factors?

A

cytokine storm

215
Q

what is primary immodeficiency disease?

A

congenital
inherited
deficiency causes disease

216
Q

what is secondary immunodeficiency disease?

A

acquired as a result of other diseases/conditions e.g. hiv, malnutrition

217
Q

example of primary immunodeficiency

A

alergy
autoimmunity
cancer

218
Q

how do b cell deficiency present?

A

less antibodies due to reduced follicles in lymphoid organs, causes bacterial infection

219
Q

how do t cell deficiencies present?

A

viral infections

220
Q

how do innate immune deficiencies present?

A

bacterial infectiosn

221
Q

how can you quikcly identify mutations in a genome?

A

genomic sequencing

222
Q

examples of combined immunodeficienceis?

A

gamma chain deficiency
ada scid
cd40l deficiency

223
Q

what is x linked scid caused by?

A

mutations in IL-2 receptor gamma chain
(cytokine receptors)
t cells and nk cells fail
b cells normal but no help for antibody response

224
Q

what is the IL-2 receptor?

A

scaffolding molcule building receptors for all cytokines

225
Q

what happens in ada-scid? treatment?

A

depletes t,b, nk cells
bone marrow stem cells

226
Q

therapy for ada-scid?

A

strimvelis
patients bone marrow cells altered so virus depleting cells cant reproduce
patient given chemotherapy
altered cells transplanted into conditioned patient
altered cells expand

227
Q

what is hyper igm syndrome? which molcule is affected?

A

high igm low of others
susceptible to infection
CD40L on t cells

228
Q

what does loss of CD40L result in?

A

lack of b cell activation by antigen and helper t cells

229
Q

what is lost on lymph nodes in hyper igm syndrome?

A

germinal centres

230
Q

what is Foxn1 syndrome?

A

foxn1 produces thymus and most epithelium cells
alopecia as epithelium innefective
innefective thymus means to t cells

231
Q

what happens when there are b cell defects?

A

lack of antibody:
recurrent sepsis
bacterial infections in airways
chronic gastroenteritis

232
Q

what is the most common cause of primary immunodeficiency?

A

antibody deficiency

233
Q

what is brutons agammaglobulinaemia?

A

mutation in brutons tyrosine kinase gene

234
Q

what is brutons agammaglobulinaemia?

A

mutation in brutons tyrosine kinase gene
prevents b cell development
few follicles in lymph nodes
low serum antibody levels

235
Q

what is chornic garnulomatous disease?

A

no superoxide burst
defects in nadph enzymes that generate the superoxide radicals involved in bacterial killing
multiple granulomas form as a result of defective elimination of bacteria

236
Q

what is familial mediterranean fever?

A

inflammasome converts pro-il-1 to il-1 usually
inflammasome regulators are mutated
inflammasome activated, increased IL-1

237
Q

what can help familial mediterannean fever?

A

anti-il-1 antibody

238
Q

how does removal of spkeen cause immunodeficiency?

A

decreased phagocytosis

239
Q

how does cancer metastasis to bone marrow cause immunodeficiency?

A

reduced leukocyte development

240
Q

how does chemotherapy cause immunodeficiency?

A

decreased bone marrow precursors for leukocytes

241
Q

how does malnutrition cause immunodeficiency?

A

inhibits lymphocyte maturation/function

242
Q

which type of drug are patients with inflammatory disease treated with?

A

specific immunosupressants

243
Q

which tissue does influenza usually infect?

A

lung

244
Q

function of haemagluttinin?

A

attaches viruses to host cells

245
Q

function of neuraminidase?

A

helps release virions from cells

246
Q

which molecule acts as a co receptor for hiv infection on t cells?

A

CCR5

247
Q

which 3 outcomes can a mutation have for virus?

A
  • none
  • favourable effect
  • unfavourable effect
248
Q

which 4 viruses primarily infect through the respiratory system?

A

flu
coronavirus
rhinovirus
measles

249
Q

which viruses infect through skin?

A

human papilloma virus

250
Q

which viruses infect through gi tract?

A

hep a
norovirus

251
Q

which viruses infect through genitourinary tract?

A

hiv
hpv

252
Q

how does the innate immune response respond to viral infection?

A

recognises pamps by pattern recognition receptor
release proinflammatory cytokines and interferons

253
Q

interferon function?

A

protein thsat inhibits virus replication

254
Q

how does humoral adaptive response reacts to viruses?

A

th2 cells help b cells make antibodies

255
Q

how does cell mediated adaptive response reacts to viruses?

A

cytotoxic t cells kill infected cells
nk cells

256
Q

which molecule can cause bronchospasm and swelling?

A

histamine

MBChB1 Phase 1 (12 decks)

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