Week 6

Question 1

Functions of the vertebral collumn?

Answer 1

support
movement
protection

Question 2

Function of the vertebral body? What is inbetween them?

Answer 2

weight transfer
IVDs

Question 3

Function of vertebral arch? What does it form?

Answer 3

surrounds and protects spinal cord
forms vertebral foramen

Question 4

function of pedicle?

Answer 4

attaches body to vertebral arch

Question 5

function of transverse processes?

Answer 5

muscle/ligament attachment, also ribs in thorax

Question 6

function of lamina?

Answer 6

forms spinous processes

Question 7

function of lamina?

Answer 7

forms spinous processes

Question 8

function of spinous processes?

Answer 8

muscle/ligament attachment

Question 9

function of superior/inferior articular processes?

Answer 9

form joints

Question 10

function of superior/inferior vertebral notches?

Answer 10

form intervertebral formaen for spinal nerves

Question 11

where does the spinal cord end?

Answer 11

L1/L2

Question 12

what is the cauda equina?

Answer 12

spinal nerves that extend past spinal cord ending

Question 13

Where does the c1 nerve exit?

Answer 13

above c1 vertebra

Question 14

what is the most and least mobile parts of vertebral collumn?

Answer 14

most - cervical
least - thoracic

Question 15

what are zygapophyseal joints, which type of joints are these?

Answer 15

joints between articular surfaces of vertebrae
synovial/plane

Question 16

what are symphysis joints in the spine and what type of joint are these?

Answer 16

between IVDs
secondary cartilaginous

Question 17

how many of each joint type are in the vertebrae?

Answer 17

4x zygopophyseal
2x ivd

Question 18

function of fibrocartilaginous joints of vertebral bodies?

Answer 18

• stability and flexibility
• pressure regulation
• shock absorber

Question 19

what is the annulus fibrosis and function and structure?

Answer 19

outer fibrous sheath of ivd joint
collagen layers in rings
fibrocartilage inner zone
high tensile strength

Question 20

structure and function of nucleus pulposus?

Answer 20

inner layer of ivd joint
gelatinous
80-85% water
high resilience

Question 21

what is a slipped disc? effect?

Answer 21

prolapse of ivd/hernia
tear in annulus fibrosis so nucleus pulposus can protrude
can impinge on spinal cord nerves, causes numbeness/tingling

Question 22

what are the firts 2 vertebral bodies called?

Answer 22

c1 - atlas, no body
c2 - axis, odontoid process

Question 23

which type of joint is c1-base of skull?

Answer 23

atlanto-occipital
nodding yes joint

Question 24

which type of joint is the c1-c2 joint?

Answer 24

atlanto-axial
shaking no joint

Question 25

function of ligaments usually in msk?

Answer 25

- connect bone to bone - supports joints - restrict joint movement

Question 26

function of anterior longitudinal ligament, location?

Answer 26

base of skull to anterior surface of sacrum attachef to anterior surface vertebral bodies and ivds prevents hyperextension

Question 27

function of posterior longitudinal ligament? locTION?

Answer 27

c2 to sacrum posterior vertebral bodies and ivvds lines anterior surface of vertebral canal resists hyperextension

Question 28

function of supraspinous ligaments? location?

Answer 28

c7 to sacrum connects tips of spinous processes cord like

Question 29

function and location of nuchal ligament? which type of tissue is here?

Answer 29

base of skull to c7 fibroelastic tissue supports head on neck provides attachemt for muscle e.g. trapezius

Question 30

function and location of ligamenta flava?

Answer 30

pass between laminae resist seperation of verts during flexion

Question 31

where are interspinous liagments found?

Answer 31

between spinous processes

Question 32

where are inetrtransverse ligaments found?

Answer 32

between transverse processes

Question 33

What makes a well built question?

Answer 33

- relevant to problem - allows you to find precise answer - focused - contains pico

Question 34

what does pico stand for?

Answer 34

p - people,patients or population i - intervention c - comparison, control or comparator o - outcome

Question 35

what are predatory journals?

Answer 35

pay to publish not peer reviewed

Question 36

5 points of critical appraisal?

Answer 36

- relevance - validity - accuracy/reliability - correct data interpretation - significance

Question 37

Where do intrinsic muscles act in the back?

Answer 37

directly on the spine

Question 38

when do intrinsic back muscles develop?

Answer 38

embryonically

Question 39

what are intrinsic back muscles supplied by?

Answer 39

posterior rami of spinal nerves

Question 40

functions of intrinsic muscles?

Answer 40

maintain posture and control movement of vertebrae

Question 41

function of thoracolumbar fascia?

Answer 41

seperates muscles into compartments

Question 42

what does thoracolumbar fascia cover?

Answer 42

deep muscles of back

Question 43

what is attached to thoracolumbar fascia and what does it aid with?

Answer 43

lattisumus dorsi and trapezius helps with movement

Question 44

general structure of splenius muscles?

Answer 44

thick and flat

Question 45

what are the two splenius muscles?

Answer 45

splenius capitis and splenius cervicis

Question 46

where do splenius mucles originate?

Answer 46

spinous processes and nuchal ligament

Question 47

where does splenius capitus insert?

Answer 47

base of skull mastoid process

Question 48

where does splenius cervisis insert?

Answer 48

transverse processes c1-3

Question 49

actions of splenius muscles?

Answer 49

bilaterally extend neck unilaterally rotate head to one side

Question 50

list the layers of intrinsic back muscles from superficial to deep

Answer 50

splenius erector spinae transversospinalis

Question 51

function of erector spinae muscles?

Answer 51

primary extensors of back

Question 52

what is the common origin of erector spinae muscles?

Answer 52

broad tendon attached to sacrum, spinous processes of lumbar and lower thoracic vertebrae, iliac crest

Question 53

3 types of iliocostalis muscle?

Answer 53

lumborum thoracis cervicis

Question 54

what do iliocostalis muscles insert?

Answer 54

angles of ribs cervical transverse processes

Question 55

3 types of longissimus muscles?

Answer 55

thoracic, cervicis, capitis

Question 56

what do longissimus muscles insert?

Answer 56

thoracic and cervical transverse processes mastoid process

Question 57

3 types of spinalis muscle?

Answer 57

thoracic cervicis capitis

Question 58

what do spinalis muscles insert?

Answer 58

thoracic processes skull

Question 59

function of transverospinalis muscles?

Answer 59

fill groove between transverse and spinous processes

Question 60

3 types of transverospinous muscle?

Answer 60

semispinalis multifidus rotatores

Question 61

movemens of transverospinalis muscles?

Answer 61

extend and rotate the spine

Question 62

function of levatores costarum muscle? where is it found?

Answer 62

lifts ribs deep intrinsic muscles

Question 63

function of interspinales muscles?

Answer 63

connect spinous processes postural

Question 64

function of intertransversarii muscles?

Answer 64

connect transverse processes postural

Question 65

what can back pain be caused by?

Answer 65

muscle spasm strained muscles poor posture sprains - ligament injury nerve pain 0 prolaped disc synovial joints - arthritis

Question 66

how many major curves of the spine are there?

Answer 66

4

Question 67

functions of spine curvature?

Answer 67

align body weight with limbs allow upright posture

Question 68

2 primary curvatures? real name?

Answer 68

outward, kyphosis thoracic, sacrococcygeal

Question 69

2 secondary curvatures? real name?

Answer 69

cervical, lumbar inward, lordosis

Question 70

When do primary curvatures develop?

Answer 70

in the embryo

Question 71

when do cervical curvatures develop?

Answer 71

when baby lifts head after nirth

Question 72

when do lumbar curvatures develo?

Answer 72

when child starts to sit/walk

Question 73

what is a laminectomy?

Answer 73

surgery to remove part of lamina of certain vertebrae can used to treat pain or compressed nerves

Question 74

what is reflection?

Answer 74

individual analyses their professional practice to gain insight and use lessons learned to maintain good practive and make improvements

Question 75

why is reflection important?

Answer 75

- develop ways to cope with stress - make good work-life balance - manage own learning - respond well to feedback - deal with personal bias

Question 76

what are the stages of the gibbs reflective cycle>

Answer 76

description feelings evaluation analysis conclusion action plan

Question 77

why might someone might not like to reflect?

Answer 77

- fear of judgement - dont see value - professional arrogance

Question 78

Name some respiratory viruses

Answer 78

coronavirus rhinovirus influenza cold viral pneumonia

Question 79

symtpoms of common cold?

Answer 79

blocked/runny nose coughing/sneezing headache sore thriat

Question 80

bronchiolotis symtpoms, when is it common?

Answer 80

starts similar to cold but progresses to coughing/wheezing/difficulty breathing children/infants

Question 81

marker of croup virus?

Answer 81

harsh barking coughing

Question 82

which typrs of flu virus cause disease in humans?

Answer 82

a and b

Question 83

which flu strain is zoonotic?

Answer 83

a

Question 84

what is flu an infection of?

Answer 84

human respiratory tract

Question 85

how is flu spread?

Answer 85

respiratory droplets

Question 86

symptoms of flu?

Answer 86

fever chills headache muscle pain fatigue dry cough sore throar

Question 87

which type of flu has a broad host range?

Answer 87

influenza a

Question 88

what are the 2 surface proteins of flu virus?

Answer 88

ha - haemagglutinin na - neuraminidase

Question 89

3 types of human herpesvirus?

Answer 89

cold sores chicken pox shingles

Question 90

which state are human herpesviruses in?

Answer 90

latent non replicating state for lifetime of host

Question 91

what can cold sores be triggered by?

Answer 91

radiation emotional/physical stress fever spicy food

Question 92

where foes the chicken pox virus remain?

Answer 92

nerve cells

Question 93

when does shingles usually occur?

Answer 93

adults with weakened immune system

Question 94

symtpoms of mumps? what can it lead to?

Answer 94

swelling on face/jaw headache joint pain temperature meningitis

Question 95

symtpoms of measles? what can it lead to?

Answer 95

flu like symtpoms, spots and rash develops inflammation of brain

Question 96

what happens if you have rubella when pregnant?

Answer 96

congenital defects miscarriage or stillbirth

Question 97

why are mmr numbers of cases increasing?

Answer 97

antivaxers autism scandal

Question 98

how does hiv spread?

Answer 98

bodily fluids in sex mother to baby - perinatal transmission blood

Question 99

what cd4 count determines aids?

Answer 99

below 200 cells/mm cubed

Question 100

what is normal cd4 count?

Answer 100

450-1660 cells/mm cubed

Question 101

examples of opportunistic infections?

Answer 101

epstein barr virus fungal infection kaposis sarcoma

Question 102

what is shown in epstein barr virus?

Answer 102

raised white lesions of oral mucosa

Question 103

example of fungal opportunistic infections?

Answer 103

oral candidiasis pneumocystis pneumonia

Question 104

where are zika outbreaks usually?

Answer 104

south/central america caribbean africa south asia

Question 105

how is the zika virus transmitted?

Answer 105

infected mosquitoes/sex perinatal transmission

Question 106

some symtpoms of zika?

Answer 106

fever rash headache joint pain conjunctivitis mucle pain

Question 107

what happens when you have zika when pregnant?

Answer 107

microcephaly of baby - small head

Question 108

what syndrome is zika associated with?

Answer 108

guillan-barre

Question 109

what can ebola be spread between?

Answer 109

people and primates

Question 110

how does ebola transmit?

Answer 110

direct contact

Question 111

what size are human viruses?

Answer 111

20-200 nm

Question 112

what size are rbcs?

Answer 112

7 microns

Question 113

what is a virion?

Answer 113

fully assembled virus particle

Question 114

which classification can rna not be?

Answer 114

circular double stranded

Question 115

what comprises the nueclic acid genome of viruses?

Answer 115

rna or dna

Question 116

what is a capsid?

Answer 116

structure that protects genome contains protein facilitates entry ti host

Question 117

what is the capsid made from?

Answer 117

capsomeres - several different polypeptides

Question 118

which 2 shapes can capsids be?

Answer 118

icosahedral helical

Question 119

what is a nucleocapsid?

Answer 119

nucleic acid + capsid

Question 120

what is a naked virus?

Answer 120

no envelope

Question 121

where are enveloped viruses derived from?

Answer 121

host cell membrane plasma memrbane, nucelar membrane

Question 122

what are envelopes of viruses composed of?

Answer 122

lipid bilayer virus proteins and glycoproteins inserted

Question 123

label this

Answer 123

Question 124

which membrane is hep b derived from?

Answer 124

golgi apparatus/endoplasmic reticulum

Question 125

which membrane is herpes derived from?

Answer 125

nuclear

Question 126

what are viral envelopes damaged by?

Answer 126

detergent/alcohol

Question 127

functions of glycoprotein spikes in virus?

Answer 127

attachment to host cell receptor for entry

Question 128

where are host cell responses directed to viruses?

Answer 128

glycoprotein spikes

Question 129

function of genome in viruses?

Answer 129

contains heriditary info code for synthesis of capsid and enzymes for replicating genome

Question 130

functions of virus capsid?

Answer 130

rigidity of virion protects genome

Question 131

function of virus matrix protein?

Answer 131

binds nucleocapsid core to viral envelope

Question 132

function of virus transport channels?

Answer 132

alter permeability of envelope

Question 133

example of single stranded dna virus?

Answer 133

parvovirus

Question 134

example of ds viruses?

Answer 134

epstein barr hep b

Question 135

example of ss positive sense rna viruses?

Answer 135

coronavirus norovirus rubella zika

Question 136

what does it mean that viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens?

Answer 136

they depend on living organisms for growth and reproduction and proliferaation

Question 137

what exactly do viruses depend on for replication?

Answer 137

biochemical machinery of host cell

Question 138

how do viruses replicate?

Answer 138

assembly of individual components

Question 139

what is viral tropism?

Answer 139

ability of virus to infect particular cell, tissue or host

Question 140

what is host range of viruses determined by?

Answer 140

specific host attachment sites and cellular factors

Question 141

which ways can viruses infect?

Answer 141

oral transmission - food/drink, saliva - hep b direct skin contact - ebola droplet transmission - covid direct innoculation - injection, trauma, insect bites - zika sexually - hiv transplacental - zika

Question 142

receptor and target of epstein barr virus?

Answer 142

target - b cells rec - compliment receptor 2

Question 143

receptor and target of hiv?

Answer 143

t - tcells/monocytes r - cd4

Question 144

receptor and target of flu?

Answer 144

t - resp epithelium r - sialic acid residues

Question 145

receptor and target of rhinovirus?

Answer 145

t - nasal epithelium r - icam-1

Question 146

2 mathods of viral entry?

Answer 146

macropinocytosis membrane fusion

Question 147

explain macropinocytosis?

Answer 147

virus attaches to host cell membrane engulfment virus in vesicle vesicle, envelope, capsid break down (uncoating) free dna

Question 148

explain viral membrane fusion?

Answer 148

virus attaches to membrane irreverisbly fuses with membrane nucleuocapside enters free rna

Question 149

6 stages of viral infection?

Answer 149

- attachment - penetration - uncoating - synthesis - assembly - release

Question 150

some outcomes of viral infection?

Answer 150

- virus release, host cell destruction e.g. polio - exit by budding e.g. flu - exist in host cell cytoplasm e.g. herpes - incorporated with genome e.g. hep b - oncogenic, stimulate uncontrolled cell growth

Question 151

which type of mutations are common in viruses?

Answer 151

deletion/insertion

Question 152

how can viruses vary genomic structure?

Answer 152

recombination

Question 153

what is gene assortment?

Answer 153

viruses exchange genetic material

Question 154

why do viruses do gene assortment?

Answer 154

escape immune surveillance

Question 155

what is antigenic drift? whch viruses do this?

Answer 155

small antigenic changes flu, rhinovirus, hiv

Question 156

what is antigenic shift? what does this give ruse to? where is this common?

Answer 156

exchange of genetic material between 2 pathogens epidemics/pandemics flu a

Question 157

what is sterilising immunity?

Answer 157

clearing an infection completely and recovering

Question 158

what is non-sterilising immunity?

Answer 158

good immune response but infection isn't cleared entirely chronic infection

Question 159

what is immune failure?

Answer 159

infection fails to be cleared and death occurs

Question 160

how does mycobacterium tuberculosis cause diagnosis problems?

Answer 160

very slow growing

Question 161

where exactly does mycobacterium tuberculosis usually affect?

Answer 161

apices of lungs higher partial pressure of oxygen

Question 162

which cells are seen in mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 162

giant cells t lymphocytes macrophages cases necrosis

Question 163

what is causes necrosis?

Answer 163

form of cell death where cells resemble milk/cheese

Question 164

how can tb be reactivated?

Answer 164

immunosuppression smoking hiv

Question 165

how does tuberculosis spread through coughing?

Answer 165

cavities open into the bronchi mtb spread by coughing

Question 166

which immune cells are involved in mtb?

Answer 166

- cell mediated immunity - macrophages - T cells - cytokines

Question 167

how can mycobacterium tuberculosis survive in macrophages?

Answer 167

alters phagosome so it is coated with host cell protein called coronin inhibits phagosome fusing with lysosome it is resistant to phagosomal acidification it can pump out protons to resist lysosomal enzymes

Question 168

which interleukins do macrophages infected with mtb primarily produce? what does this stimulate the T cell to produce?

Answer 168

IL-12 IL-18 produces T cell to produce interferon gamma which enhances phagocytosis

Question 169

what is disseminated disease in mtb caused by? effect of this?

Answer 169

lack of interferon gamma lack of interferon gamma receptor causes susceptibility to tb infection

Question 170

what is the Mantoux reaction?

Answer 170

shows if someone has previously been exposed to tb, useful for if someone is visiting country endemic with MTB

Question 171

what does a t spot test measure?

Answer 171

if T cells are producing interferon gamma and how much

Question 172

which glycoprotein binds to cd4 in hiv?

Answer 172

gp120

Question 173

how does hiv effect the host?

Answer 173

gp120 binds to host cell reverse transcriptase converts rna to dna in hiv cell hiv integrates the dna into the host genome new viral particles are produced from the host that infect other cells

Question 174

which cells help prevent mass spread of hiv?

Answer 174

cd8 cells

Question 175

what do cd8 levels determine in hiv

Answer 175

viral set point lower viral set point = higher chance of survival more cd8 = lower viral set point

Question 176

how is dengue transmitted?

Answer 176

through infected mosquito bites

Question 177

dengue symptoms? how long?

Answer 177

fever, rash, headache, chills 3-7 days

Question 178

what severe damage can be caused by dengue?

Answer 178

severe plasma leakage = shock severe bleeding liver and heart damage impaired consciousness

Question 179

what are signs of denge haemorrhage?

Answer 179

bruising/blistering/bloody eyes

Question 180

which antibodies increase in dengue?

Answer 180

igg igm

Question 181

what can happen if you get infected a second time with a different strain of dengue?

Answer 181

antibody doesn't destroy dengue virus it is opnosised many cytokines produced disease caused

Question 182

how do natural killer cells kill?

Answer 182

release lytic granules to kill virus infected cells

Question 183

which phase of immune response involves pamps?

Answer 183

innate

Question 184

which receptors are involved in immune response?

Answer 184

germline coded

Question 185

examples of type I hypersensitivity?

Answer 185

hayfever food/pet allergies latex

Question 186

what causes type I hypersensitivity?

Answer 186

ige mast cells

Question 187

how do macrophages cause allergies?

Answer 187

release of histamine/chemotactic causes local irritation

Question 188

what are secondary mediators of mast cells?

Answer 188

prostaglandin or leukatrine

Question 189

which hypersensitivity is antibody mediated and what is T cell mediated?

Answer 189

antibody - 1,2,3 T cell - 4

Question 190

what is involved in type ii hypersensitivity?

Answer 190

igm, igg antibodies on cell surface

Question 191

what is involved in type iii hypersensitivity?

Answer 191

igm/igg in basement membrane

Question 192

what is involved in type iv hypersensitivity?

Answer 192

cd4 and cd8 cells

Question 193

what happens in organ specific autoimmune disease?

Answer 193

damage to organ structure and function self directed antigens of given organ

Question 194

what happens in non organ specific autoimmune disease?

Answer 194

widespread self antigens damages bloodvessels/cell nuclei

Question 195

what causes autoimmunity?

Answer 195

genetic factors infection/environmental exposure

Question 196

examples of organ specific autoimmune disease?

Answer 196

type 1 diabetes multiple sclerosis vilitigx graves disease goodpastures

Question 197

examples of systemic autoimmune disease?

Answer 197

rheumatoid arthritis scleroderma lupus

Question 198

function of islets of langerhans?

Answer 198

secretes hormones

Question 199

what do alpha, beta and delta secrete in islets of langerhans?

Answer 199

alpha - glucagon beta - insulin delta - somatostatin

Question 200

what happens to beta cells in a diabetic islet?

Answer 200

recognised by T cell which kills them insulin can't be made

Question 201

what are thyroid hormones regulated by?

Answer 201

thyroid stimulating hormones

Question 202

what is graves disease?

Answer 202

non regulated auto activating antibodies bind to tsh receptor overstimulates production of thyroid hormones negative feedback wont switch off tsh production causes weight loss/sweating

Question 203

what is transplant rejection?

Answer 203

t cells activated against donor transplantation antigens

Question 204

where is stimulated in transplant rejection?

Answer 204

peripheral lymphoid tissues

Question 205

which immune cells are activated in transplant rejection?

Answer 205

cd4 and cd8 t cells macrophages, b cells, nk cells

Question 206

what is hyperacute rejection?

Answer 206

pre formed antidonor antiodies bind to graft endothelium after tranplantation

Question 207

what is acute cellular rejection?

Answer 207

t cells destroy graft parenchyma and vessels via cytotoxicity and inflammatory reactions

Question 208

what is acute humoral rejetcion?

Answer 208

antibodies damage graft vasculature

Question 209

what is chronic rejection?

Answer 209

t cell reaction and secretion of cytokines causes proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells, parenchymal fibrosis

Question 210

environmental causes of asthma?

Answer 210

allergens smoking diet pollutants

Question 211

host causes of asthma?

Answer 211

gender obesity predisposing genes

Question 212

what happens to the airway in asthma?

Answer 212

inflamed lower airway thickened basement membrane increased goblet cell activity smooth muscle hypertrophy airway occlusion by mucosal plyg

Question 213

risk factors of covid?

Answer 213

copd obesity diabetes chronic kidney disease old age

Question 214

what increases covid problems in those with risk factors?

Answer 214

cytokine storm

Question 215

what is primary immodeficiency disease?

Answer 215

congenital inherited deficiency causes disease

Question 216

what is secondary immunodeficiency disease?

Answer 216

acquired as a result of other diseases/conditions e.g. hiv, malnutrition

Question 217

example of primary immunodeficiency

Answer 217

alergy autoimmunity cancer

Question 218

how do b cell deficiency present?

Answer 218

less antibodies due to reduced follicles in lymphoid organs, causes bacterial infection

Question 219

how do t cell deficiencies present?

Answer 219

viral infections

Question 220

how do innate immune deficiencies present?

Answer 220

bacterial infectiosn

Question 221

how can you quikcly identify mutations in a genome?

Answer 221

genomic sequencing

Question 222

examples of combined immunodeficienceis?

Answer 222

gamma chain deficiency ada scid cd40l deficiency

Question 223

what is x linked scid caused by?

Answer 223

mutations in IL-2 receptor gamma chain (cytokine receptors) t cells and nk cells fail b cells normal but no help for antibody response

Question 224

what is the IL-2 receptor?

Answer 224

scaffolding molcule building receptors for all cytokines

Question 225

what happens in ada-scid? treatment?

Answer 225

depletes t,b, nk cells bone marrow stem cells

Question 226

therapy for ada-scid?

Answer 226

strimvelis patients bone marrow cells altered so virus depleting cells cant reproduce patient given chemotherapy altered cells transplanted into conditioned patient altered cells expand

Question 227

what is hyper igm syndrome? which molcule is affected?

Answer 227

high igm low of others susceptible to infection CD40L on t cells

Question 228

what does loss of CD40L result in?

Answer 228

lack of b cell activation by antigen and helper t cells

Question 229

what is lost on lymph nodes in hyper igm syndrome?

Answer 229

germinal centres

Question 230

what is Foxn1 syndrome?

Answer 230

foxn1 produces thymus and most epithelium cells alopecia as epithelium innefective innefective thymus means to t cells

Question 231

what happens when there are b cell defects?

Answer 231

lack of antibody: recurrent sepsis bacterial infections in airways chronic gastroenteritis

Question 232

what is the most common cause of primary immunodeficiency?

Answer 232

antibody deficiency

Question 233

what is brutons agammaglobulinaemia?

Answer 233

mutation in brutons tyrosine kinase gene

Question 234

what is brutons agammaglobulinaemia?

Answer 234

mutation in brutons tyrosine kinase gene prevents b cell development few follicles in lymph nodes low serum antibody levels

Question 235

what is chornic garnulomatous disease?

Answer 235

no superoxide burst defects in nadph enzymes that generate the superoxide radicals involved in bacterial killing multiple granulomas form as a result of defective elimination of bacteria

Question 236

what is familial mediterranean fever?

Answer 236

inflammasome converts pro-il-1 to il-1 usually inflammasome regulators are mutated inflammasome activated, increased IL-1

Question 237

what can help familial mediterannean fever?

Answer 237

anti-il-1 antibody

Question 238

how does removal of spkeen cause immunodeficiency?

Answer 238

decreased phagocytosis

Question 239

how does cancer metastasis to bone marrow cause immunodeficiency?

Answer 239

reduced leukocyte development

Question 240

how does chemotherapy cause immunodeficiency?

Answer 240

decreased bone marrow precursors for leukocytes

Question 241

how does malnutrition cause immunodeficiency?

Answer 241

inhibits lymphocyte maturation/function

Question 242

which type of drug are patients with inflammatory disease treated with?

Answer 242

specific immunosupressants

Question 243

which tissue does influenza usually infect?

Answer 243

lung

Question 244

function of haemagluttinin?

Answer 244

attaches viruses to host cells

Question 245

function of neuraminidase?

Answer 245

helps release virions from cells

Question 246

which molecule acts as a co receptor for hiv infection on t cells?

Answer 246

CCR5

Question 247

which 3 outcomes can a mutation have for virus?

Answer 247

- none - favourable effect - unfavourable effect

Question 248

which 4 viruses primarily infect through the respiratory system?

Answer 248

flu coronavirus rhinovirus measles

Question 249

which viruses infect through skin?

Answer 249

human papilloma virus

Question 250

which viruses infect through gi tract?

Answer 250

hep a norovirus

Question 251

which viruses infect through genitourinary tract?

Answer 251

hiv hpv

Question 252

how does the innate immune response respond to viral infection?

Answer 252

recognises pamps by pattern recognition receptor release proinflammatory cytokines and interferons

Question 253

interferon function?

Answer 253

protein thsat inhibits virus replication

Question 254

how does humoral adaptive response reacts to viruses?

Answer 254

th2 cells help b cells make antibodies

Question 255

how does cell mediated adaptive response reacts to viruses?

Answer 255

cytotoxic t cells kill infected cells nk cells

Question 256

which molecule can cause bronchospasm and swelling?

Answer 256

histamine