Rheumatology 1 Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

chronic autoimmune disorder that typically involves inflammation of the synovium of typical joints progressing to articular cartilage destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the pathogenesis factors of RA?

A
  • CTLA-4
  • HLA DR1
  • PTPN-22
  • Environmental factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the PTPN-22 mutation?

A

gain-of-function mutation in a tyrosine phosphatase that is hypothesized to result in the abnormal thymic selection of autoreactive T and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are some environmental factors for RA?

A
  • smoking
  • some infections play a role in the development of RA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what releases inflammatory mediators that stimulate other inflammatory cells leading to tissue injury?

A

CD4+ T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the key inflammatory cytokines involved in RA?

A
  • INF-y
  • IL-17
  • TNF-a and IL-1
  • RANKL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are RANKL

A

it is expressed on activated T cells (especially Th17 cells) stimulates bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a significant antibody that recognizes self-antigen in RA?

A

anti-CCP (anti-citrullinated peptide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in RA, IgM and IgA auto-antibodies that bind IgG Fc Region, collectively referred to as ?

A

rheumatoid factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is citrulline made?

A

within a protein arginine amino acids can be converted to citrulline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is associated with anti-citrulline antibody?

A

HLA-DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What triggers the induction of costimulators on antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

A

A microbe activates APCs by engaging pattern recognition receptors (PRRs), leading to expression of costimulatory molecules like B7.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In autoimmune reactions, What happens when APCs present self-antigens along with costimulatory signals?

A

Instead of inducing tolerance, costimulatory molecules override tolerance and activate self-reactive T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the outcome of T-cell activation by self-antigens with costimulation?

A

Activated T cells attack self-tissues, resulting in autoimmune reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is molecular mimicry in the context of autoimmunity?

A

It’s when a microbial antigen structurally resembles a self-antigen, causing the immune system to target both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does molecular mimicry lead to autoimmunity?

A

T cells activated by microbial antigens also recognize similar self-antigens, leading to self-tissue attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What role do PRRs play in molecular mimicry?

A

PRRs triggered by infection cause APCs to express costimulatory molecules, enabling T-cell activation instead of anergy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which autoimmune disorders are associated with molecular mimicry?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and rheumatic fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What activates macrophages in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

A

Cytokines from Th17 and Th1 cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the result of macrophage activation in RA?

A

Secretion of pro-inflammatory and pro-repair cytokines, contributing to pannus formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in RA, what is the most common joints affected?

A

the small joints of the hands and feet (MCPs and PIPs joints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the second most common joints affected in RA?

A

wrist, ankles, elbows, knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a characteristic morphologic feature within the joint for RA?

A

formation of a pannus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a pannus?

A

mass of edematous synovium, inflammatory cells, granulation tissue, and fibroblast growth causing articular cartilage erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what happens when pannus migrate over the cartilage surface + recruitment of leukocytes into synovial space?
loss of cartilage and joint function
26
Over time, after articular cartilage destruction, pannus forms a "bridge" between apposing bones forming a ?
fibrous ankylosis
27
what is ankylosis?
a "bridge" across a joint that limits range of motion
28
is RA symmetrical or asymmetrical distribution?
symmetrical distribution
29
In general, RA is suggested when many small joints and a few large typical joints are affected in a
symmetrical fashion
30
in RA, Inflammatory joint pain often exhibits
"gelling" or morning stiffness
31
what is "gelling" or morning stiffness
Severe stiffness and pain of the joint after it has been inactive for prolonged periods of time (ie. sleep)
32
"inflammatory" morning stiffness typically lasts ?
greater than one hour
33
for RA, Inflammation in tendons, ligaments, and even adjacent skeletal muscle results in characteristic wrist signs:
- radial deviation of the wrist - ulnar deviation of the fingers - flexion-hyperextension abnormalities of the fingers (swan neck, boutonniere)
34
swan neck deformity is due to what?
the intrinsic hand muscle contracture
35
in swan neck deformity, the PIPs are ? and DIPs are ?
hyperextended flexed
36
boutonniere is due to ?
ruptures of the central slip of the extensor tendons
37
in boutonniere deformity, the PIPs are ? and DIPs are ?
flexed hyperextended
38
what is the radiographic hallmark of RA?
juxta-articular osteopenia and bone erosions
39
what does juxta-articular osteopenia mean?
The bones near the joints look thinner or weaker than normal
40
what does bone erosions mean?
Parts of the bone near the joint appear damaged or "eaten away."
41
what is the most common skin lesion in RA?
rheumatoid nodules
42
rheumatoid nodules arise in regions subject to ?
pressure
43
what are the laboratory contributions that indicate RA?
- positive rheumatoid factor - positive anti-citrulline antibodies - elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
44
what is juvenile idiopathic arthritis
arthritis occur prior to age 16 years and persist for at least 6 weeks, no clear explanation why
45
what are the types of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
- systemic arthritis - oligoarthritis - rheumatoid-factor positive arthritis - enthesitis-related arthropathy
46
what is oligoarthritis?
arthritis affecting four or fewer joints during the first 6 months of disease in the absence of psoriasis and an HLA-B27 genotype defines the oligoarthritis variant
47
what is Rheumatoid-factor positive poly arthritis?
Similar to adult RA, usually found in teenage girls
48
what is Enthesitis-related arthropathy
Primarily found in younger males HLA-B27 positive, tends to affect joints of lower limbs and insertions of tendons
49
what characterizes OA?
Characterized by articular cartilage degeneration resulting in structural and functional synovial joint failure
50
OA can be ? or ?
primary or secondary
51
what is primary OA?
insidious onset without apparent initiating cause; considered an aging phenomenon
52
what is secondary OA?
occurs in younger populations secondary to joint deformity, prior injury, or underlying systemic disease that places joints at risk
53
what is the most common joint disease?
OA
54
Late OA is characterized by ?
chondrocyte loss and severe matrix degradation
55
OA is typically less ? than RA with a predilection for ?
symmetrical larger joints
56
what is Heberden's nodes?
osteophyte formations at the DIPs
57
Bouchard's nodes are found at the ?
PIPs
58
what are the types of infectious arthritis?
- suppurative - mycobacterial - lyme - viral
59
what is suppurative infectious arthritis?
Bacterial infection entering joints from distant sites via hematogenous spread
60
what are the risk factors of suppurative infectious arthritis?
Individuals with deficiencies in complement factors C5 - C9 - Inability to form membrane attack complex (MAC) Immunodeficiencies, joint trauma, chronic arthritis, & IV drug use
61
for mycobacterial infectious arthritis, chronic progressive monoarticular infections caused by ?
M. tuberculosis
62
lyme infectious arthritis is caused by ?
spirochete, Borrelia burgdorferi
63
if lyme infectious arthritis is left untrated, up to 80% of patients will develop a ? lasting weeks to months
migratory arthritis