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Flashcards in Rubin's/Robbin's Deck (133):
1

Chromosomal translocation involving 8q24 which harbors myc oncogene; most common childhood malignancy in Central Africa; may be induced by immunodeficiency; "starry sky" macrophage

Burkitt Lymphoma EBV caused

2

Fine needle aspirate of bone reveals numerous eosinophils; Otitis media is a common finding; scalp bone pain; Calvarial bone defects; Exopthalmous possible

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

3

Enlarged supraclavicular lymph node; common in HIV population; tumor cells express B-cell antigens and are EBV +

Large B-cell lymphoma/high-grade B-cell lymphoma ie Burkitt; bcl2 gene rearrangements often seen, as with follicular lymphoma

4

Pancytopenia; splenomegaly; peripheral blood smear reveals atypical lymphoid cells displaying tartare-resistant acid phophatase activity

Hairy cell leukemia; clonal B-cell proliferation of small to medium lymphocytes that exhibit lots of cytoplasm and hair-like protrusions on the cell membrane; bone marrow-spleen-liver; middle-aged to elderly, male:female ratio is 5:1

5

Biopsy, ie of stomach, reveals extranodal lymphocytic infiltrate invading glandular tissue; Cancer originates in mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue; H. Pylori-associated, commonly arise in the context of chronic inflammation or autoimmunity

MALT lymphoma/Marginal zone lymphoma cell proliferation of small to medium lymphocytes; appear to originate from marginal-zone B-cells

6

lymphocytic infiltrates at the dermal-epidermal junction; positive CD4+ immunohistochemical staining; scaly skin lesions/plaques

Mycosis fundoides - cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

7

enlarged lymph nodes; mild hepatosplenomegaly; small lymphocytes with plasmacytoid lymphotcytes containing Dutcher and Russell bodies; cytoplasmic accumulation of IgM; mainly affects the elderly

Waldenstrom disease - lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma; neoplastic proliferation of small lymphocytes; IgM secreting lymphocytes

8

Petechiae; Low platelets; bone marrow shows increased number of megakaryocytes; spontaneous recovery usually

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP); acute ITP in children usually arises after a viral illness;

9

High peripheral reticulocyte count

Hemolytic anemia

10

Direct erythrocyte trauma due to an abnormal vascular surface ie graft or artificial valve; reticulocytes and schistocytes in peripheral blood smear Anemia is mild to moderate

Macroangiopathic (large vessels) hemolytic anemia

11

Uncontrolled prolifertion of megakaryocytes; increased platelets; episodes of thrombosis or hemorrhage; NO fibrosis in the bone marrow

Essential thrombocythemia

12

Dohle bodies or toxic granulation in mature neutrophils on peripheral blood smear

Leukemoid reaction Benign alk phos HIGH in leukemoidrxn, LOW in CML CML would not have mature neutrophils....

13

Hx of B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia; Hepatosplenomegaly; rapid onset of fever, abdominal pain, lymphadenopathy; Aggressive and refractory to therapy; High grade, large-cell lymphoma

Richter Syndrome

14

15% of patients with myasthenia gravis have ______

thymoma 1/3 pf patients with thymoma will develop MG

15

Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) is associated with immunosuppression and what virus?

EBV

16

sign of Leser-Trelat

sudden appearance of numerous seborrheic keratosis; sign of internal malignancy ie gastric adenocarcinoma

17

frequently pigmented, elevated papules or plaques; scales easily rubbed off; microscopic: broad, anastomosing cords of mature stratified squamous epithelium with small cysrs of keratin (horn cysts)

seborrheic keratoses

18

Genetic predisposition to melanoma

CDKN2A tumor suppressor gene (p16) mutation encodes an inhibitor of CDK that normally inhibits cell proliferation

19

actinic keratoses indicative of:

precursor to squamous cell carcinoma atypia in basal keratinocytes

20

tumor derived from endothelial cells; painful, purple nodules on hands and/or feet; neoplastic cells, poorly demarcated lesion

Kaposi's sarcoma

21

Genetic (AD); mild hyperkeratosis and reduced or absent keratohyaline granules in the epidermis; scaly skin results from increased cohesiveness of the stratum corneum

Ichthyosis vulgaris

22

"Hutchinson melanotic freckle"; large pigmented macule; occurs on sun-damaged skin; fair-skinned, elderly, white people

Lentigo maligna melanoma

23

Most common form of melanoma in dark-skinned people; generally limited to palms, soles and subungual regions

Acral lentiginous melanoma

24

Persistent epidermal hyperplasia; chronic, runs in families; erythematous, scaly plaques, commonly on the dorsal extensor cutaneous surfaces; *Neutrophils* migrate into epidermis

Psoriasis

25

Tendency to form blisters at sites of minor trauma; Mutations of genes encoding cytokeratin IFs; can be minor, or widespread and life-threatening; blisters almost always noted at birth or shortly after; blister formation in *basement membrane* zone; no inflammatory cells in blisters, no antibody deposits

Epidermolysis Bullosa

26

Skin issue associated with gluten hypersensitivity

dermatitis herpetiformis

27

Blisters leave extensive denuded or crusted areas; separation of the stratum spinosum and basal layer; IgG on direct immunofluorescence; autoantibody to desmoglein-3; blister contains moderate #s of lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils and neutrophils

Pemphigus vulgaris

28

Most common malignant tumor in pale-skinned people; locally aggressive; metastases rare;

Basal cell carcinoma

29

Tumor that contains nests of deeply basophilic epithelial cells with narrow rims of cytoplasm that are attached to the epidermis and protrude into the subjacent papillary dermins

Basal cell carcinoma

30

Lesion on dorsal surfaces of hands or feet; 1 or multiple; no malignant potential; Papules bleed easily; Epithelial-lined fronds with fibrovascular cores

Verruca vulgaris - common wart; HPV-2, HPV-4, other HPVs

31

Common autoimmune blistering disease; Acantholysis (loss of intercellular connections) absent; IgG antibodies are directed against 2 basement membrane proteins, BPAG1 and BPAG2; immunofluorescent studies reveal linear deposition of C3 and IgG along epidermal BM zone

Bullous pemphigoid

32

Intensely pruritic cutaneous eruption; Wheal-like lesions with small vesicles Urticaria-like plaques and vesicles over extensor surfaces of the body; possible development of IgA antibodies to componenets of gluten

Dermatitis herpetiformis

33

Hypersensitivity reaction with lymphocytic infiltrates at the dermal-epidermal junction; results in hyperkeratosis; multiple, flat-topped, violaceous, polygonal papules

Lichen planus

34

The most important histologic feature of mycosis fungoides (a variant of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma) is:

lymphocytes in the epidermis (epidermotropism) CD4+ marker for T-lymphocytes

35

Sezary syndrome is disseminated _______

mycosis fungoides (a variant of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)

36

Patient with chronic Hep B; numerous red lesions; purpuric small papules, do not blanch with pressure; necrotizing leukocytoclastic venulitis; immune complex deposition in vascular walls

Hypersensitivity Angiitis aka Cutaneous necrotizing vasculitis (CNV) C5a attracts neutrophils --> endothelial damage and fibrin disruption; can be primary or associated with something chronic

37

Fibrosis and tightening of the skin; dysphagia; structural and functional involvement of other organs is lungs and kidneys; Raynaud's phenomenon common

Scleroderma

38

An autoimmune disease, most likely systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), can be accompanied by what cell proliferation?

monocytosis. Cytopenias also can occur in SLE because of autoantibodies against blood elements, a form of type II hypersensitivity.

39

Toxic granulations, which are coarse and dark primary granules, and Döhle bodies, which are patches of dilated endoplasmic reticulum, represent:

reactive changes of neutrophils that are most indicative of overwhelming inflammatory conditions, such as bacterial sepsis.

40

Blood monocytes become tissue macrophages that evolve into epithelioid cells and giant cells of what kind of inflammation?

Granulomatous

41

T/F: Hodgkin lymphomas have no consistent peripheral blood findings and are not likely to produce solitary lung nodules.

True Hodgkin lymphoma is not characterized by an increased WBC count.

42

Marked leukocytosis and immature myeloid cells in the peripheral blood can represent an exaggerated response to infection (leukemoid reaction), or it can be a manifestation of ________.

CML Normal maturation of myeloid cells in the marrow rules out CML.

43

Lymph nodes draining from a cancer often show a reactive pattern, with dilated sinusoids that have endothelial hypertrophy and are filled with histiocytes (i.e., macrophages). Sinus histiocytosis represents:

an immunologic response to cancer antigens. Thus not all enlarged nodes are caused by metastatic disease in cancer patients.

44

CD3 is a:

T-cell marker

45

CD19 is a:

B-cell marker

46

CD68 is a:

macrophage (histiocyte) marker

47

__________ is a form of self-limited infectious lymphadenitis that most often is seen in children, typically “downstream” of lymphatic drainage from the site of an injury on a distal extremity.

cat-scratch disease from Bartonella henselae infection *stellate necrosis*

48

microthrombocytopenia; propensity to develop non-Hodgkin's lymphoma; X-linked; many types of white blood cells, which are part of the immune system, to be abnormal or nonfunctional, leading to an increased risk of several immune and inflammatory disorders; eczema

Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

49

"popcorn" cell

Reed-Sternberg cell aka lacunar histiocyte "crippled" B cell bc of mutations in Ig gene malignant B-cell; bi-nucleated does not stain with CD-20, CD45- NO immunoglobulin on its surface CD15+ CD30+

50

A chest CT scan shows a 10-cm mass in the anterior mediastinum; biopsy shows effacement by lymphoid cells with lobulated nuclei having delicate, finely stippled, nuclear chromatin; scant cytoplasm, many mitotic figures are seen; cells express deoxynucleotidyl transferase negative (TdT−), CD2, and CD7 antigens; point mutation in the NOTCH1 gene; seen in children

lymphoblastic lymphoma mediastinal location typical; chemotherapy is curative in most cases

51

The NOTCH1 gene encodes a transmembrane receptor required for:

T-cell development, and more than half of pre–T-cell tumors have activating point mutations.

52

TdT is a marker of:

pre–T cells and pre–B cells

53

Clonal rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes; CD19+, CD5+, and deoxynucleotidyl transferase negative (TdT−); blood smear shows monotonous population of small, round, mature-looking lymphocytes; elderly patient

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), a clonal B-cell neoplasm in which immunoglobulin genes are rearranged, and T-cell receptor genes are in germline configuration. There is typically a tissue component of small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL).

54

The t(8;14) translocation is typical of:

Burkitt lymphoma MYC gene***

55

The t(14;18) translocation is a feature of:

follicular lymphomas, which are distinctive B-cell tumors that involve the nodes and produce a follicular pattern.

56

The CD30 antigen is a marker for:

activated T and B cells

57

bone pain and tenderness; most common malignancy seen in children; anemia; thrombocytopenia; presence of blasts in the peripheral blood and bone marrow that *have* nucleoli; petechial hemorrhages possible;

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

58

What are the poor prognostic markers for ALL?

Poor prognostic markers for acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma are: T-cell phenotype; patient age younger than 2 years; WBC count >100,000; presence of t(9;22) MLL gene mutations; presentation in adolescence and adulthood

59

__________ is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma among adults in Europe and North America.

Follicular lymphoma The neoplastic B cells mimic a population of follicular center cells and produce a nodular or follicular pattern. Nodal involvement is often generalized, but extranodal involvement is uncommon.

60

The t(14;18) translocation, which is characteristic of _______, causes overexpression of the BCL2 gene by juxtaposing it with the IgH locus; the cells are resistant to apoptosis.

Follicular lymphoma follicular lymphomas are indolent tumors that continue to accumulate cells for 7 to 9 years. IgH and bcl2 genes

61

t(11;14) translocation, in which the cyclin D1 gene (BCL1) is overexpressed, is seen in:

Mantle cell lymphoma B-cell lymphoma, more aggressive than follicular lymphoma

62

increased numbers of circulating small, round, mature lymphocytes with scant cytoplasm in the peripheral blood smear; cells express the CD5 marker and the pan B-cell markers CD19 and CD20; Most patients have a disease course of 4 to 6 years before death; symptoms appear as the leukemic cells begin to fill the marrow (thrombocytopenia)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

63

Same small lymphocytes as CLL, but appearing in tissue and not blood; widespread lymphadenopathy; liver and spleen enlargement; lymphocytosis

Small lymphocytic lymphoma

64

BCL6 rearrangements or mutations in 30% of cases; staining pattern indicates a B-cell proliferation (CD19+, CD10+); T-cell (CD3) and monocytic (CD15) markers are negative; enlargement of the Waldeyer ring of oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue; **no hepatosplenomegaly

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

65

T/F: Diffuse large-cell lymphoma of B cells often involve extranodal sites.

True aggressive but responsive to chemotherapy;

66

Multiple myeloma produces mass lesions of plasma cells that lead to bone lysis and pain; radiograph shows typical punched-out lytic lesions, produced by expanding masses of what kind of cells?

Plasma cells

67

The Ig genes in myeloma cells always show evidence of somatic hypermutation. Patients with myeloma often have infections with ____________ because of decreased production of IgG, required for opsonization.

encapsulated bacteria

68

visual disturbances; dizziness; headache; Raynaud phenomena; bone marrow is infiltrated with plasmacytoid lymphocytes that have stored immunoglobulins in their cytoplasm (Russell bodies)

Hyperviscosity syndrome associated with lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (Waldenström macroglobulinemia). In this disorder, neoplastic B cells differentiate to IgM-producing cells; there is a monoclonal IgM spike in the serum. These IgM molecules aggregate and produce hyperviscosity, and some of them agglutinate at low temperatures and produce cold agglutinin disease.

69

Light chains in urine (Bence Jones proteins) are a feature of:

Multiple myeloma

70

Hypercalcemia occurs with myeloma because:

myeloma cells produce MIP1-α that up-regulates RANKL production and increased osteoclastic activity; punched-out lytic bone lesions are typical of multiple myeloma.

71

The most common sites for ___________ are the thyroid (in Hashimoto thyroiditis), the salivary glands (in Sjögren syndrome), or the stomach (in Helicobacter pylori infection).

MALT - marginal zone - lymphoma

72

Name the disease associated with the presence of hairy projections from neoplastic leukocytes in the peripheral blood smear and coexpression of B-cell (CD19, CD20) and monocyte (CD11c) markers.

Hairy cell leukemia B-cell leukemia

73

Auer rods are seen in myeloblasts in:

AML

74

A monoclonal IgM spike is a feature of:

lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (Waldenström macroglobulinemia)

75

large cells, some of which contain horseshoe-shaped nuclei and voluminous cytoplasm; tumor cells cluster around venules and infiltrate sinuses; most often in children and young adults; characteristic gene rearrangement on chromosome 2p23 that results in production of anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) with tyrosine kinase activity

anaplastic large-cell lymphoma

76

CD10 is what kind of cell marker?

B-cell

77

CD56 is a marker for

NK cells

78

HIV is best associated with what neoplasms?

HIV is best known to be associated with non-Hodgkin lymphomas and with Kaposi sarcoma

79

What is the action of Reed-Sternberg cells, for example in Hodgkin lymphoma?

Reed-Sternberg cells elaborate cytokines that promote an accompanying reactive cellular proliferation that forms the bulk of a neoplastic mass. Reed Sternberg cells are of B-cell origin, and in many cases, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection can be demonstrated in these cells.

80

Subtype of Hodgkin Lymphoma; Seen in young adults, mainly women; thick bands of fibrosis; mediastinal involvement common

Nodular sclerosis

81

In all forms of HL except ____________ type, the Reed-Sternberg cells and variants stain with CD15.

lymphocyte predominance type

82

The lymphocyte depletion variant of Hodgkin lymphoma has what features?

an abundance of Reed-Sternberg cells and a paucity of lymphocytes.

83

JAK2 mutations are found in what cancers?

polycythemia vera and other myeloproliferative diseases

84

Atypical lymphocytes are characteristic in the peripheral blood of individuals with:

infectious mononucleosis

85

see lacunar cells, think....

Hodgkin Lymphoma seen with Reed-Sternberg cells

86

t(15;17) translocation seen in:

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) it results in the fusion of the retinoic acid receptor gene on chromosome 17 with the promyelocytic leukemia gene on chromosome 15. The fusion gene results in elaboration of an abnormal retinoic acid receptor that blocks myeloid differentiation. Therapy with retinoic acid (vitamin A) can alleviate the block and induce remission in many patients.

87

the presence of peroxidase-positive blasts (myeloblasts) filling the marrow indicates what disease?

AML

88

Myelodysplasia is characterized by:

a cellular marrow in which there are maturation defects in multiple lineages; presence of ringed sideroblasts, megaloblasts, abnormal megakaryocytes, and myeloblasts in the marrow. Because these abnormal hematopoietic cells fail to mature normally, they are not released into the peripheral blood, leading to pancytopenia and susceptibility to infections. Myelodysplasias are clonal stem cell disorders that develop either de novo or after chemotherapy with alkylating agents

89

What disorders are in the differential when a high platelet count is given?

chronic myelogenous leukemia; myelofibrosis; polycythemia vera; essential thrombobyctosis (non-neoplastic)

90

What is the likely diagnosis? high blood pressure; NO hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy; high platelet count; occult blood in stool; high Hgb and Hct; afebrile

polycythemia vera (PCV), a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by an increased RBC mass, with hematocrit concentrations typically exceeding 60%. Although the increased RBC mass is responsible for most of the symptoms and signs, these patients also have thrombocytosis and granulocytosis. This occurs because, similar to other myeloproliferative disorders, PCV results from transformation of a multipotent stem cell.

91

The neoplastic erythroid progenitor cells require extremely small amounts of erythropoietin for survival and proliferation; the levels of erythropoietin are virtually undetectable in ________. When combined with abnormal platelet function, this condition predisposes the patient to bleeding. Abnormal platelet function also can predispose to thrombosis.

Polycythemia Vera

92

What are teardrop RBC's?

Teardrop RBCs are misshapen RBCs that are seen when marrow undergoes fibrosis, as in myelofibrosis. Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia is a myeloproliferative disorder that is also a stem cell disorder in which neoplastic megakaryocytes secrete fibrogenic factors leading to marrow fibrosis.

93

What is the likely diagnosis? skin eruptions; frequent recent ear infections; bone lesions with "Birbeck" granules in histiocytes; seen in children; exophthalmous sometimes seen, leading to diabetes insipidus from pressure on pituitary stalk

Langherhans cell histiocytosis

94

An elevated D-dimer level suggests:

a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

95

Haptoglobin is:

a serum protein that binds to free hemoglobin. Ordinarily, circulating hemoglobin is contained within RBCs, but hemolysis can release free hemoglobin. The haptoglobin is used up as the amount of free hemoglobin increases.

96

Iron deficiency does not occur in hemolytic anemias because:

the iron that is released from hemolyzed cells is reused

97

Inheritance of three abnormal α-globin chains leads to:

hemoglobin H disease, with tetramers of β chains; survival to adulthood is possible

98

Mutations involving NADPH oxidase lead to immunodeficiency in what disease?

chronic granulomatous disease

99

What is the MOA of hydroxyurea that makes it effective for treatment of sickle cell disease?

hydroxyurea therapy can increase the concentration of hemoglobin F in RBCs, which interferes with the polymerization of hemoglobin S. However, the therapeutic response to hydroxyurea often precedes the increase in hemoglobin F levels. Hydroxyurea also has an anti-inflammatory effect, increases the mean RBC volume, and can be oxidized by heme groups to produce nitric oxide that promotes vasodilation.

100

Complement lysis is enhanced in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, which results from mutations in the _____ gene.

PIGA Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is a disorder that results from an acquired stem cell membrane defect produced by a PIGA gene mutation that prevents the membrane expression of certain proteins that require a glycolipid anchor. These include proteins that protect cells from lysis by spontaneously activated complement. As a result, RBCs, granulocytes, and platelets are exquisitely sensitive to the lytic activity of complement. The RBC lysis is intravascular, so patients can have hemoglobinuria (dark urine). Defects in platelet function are believed to be responsible for venous thrombosis. Recurrent infections can be caused by impaired leukocyte functions. Patients with PNH may develop acute leukemia or aplastic anemia as complications.

101

The direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test detects:

antibody bound to RBCs

102

The indirect antiglobulin (Coombs) test detects:

antibody in the plasma

103

__________ are the most frequent drugs implicated in drug-induced hemolytic anemias.

Cephalosporins

104

Anticardiolipin antibody often leads to a false-positive serologic test result for:

syphilis (Treponema pallidum infection) Antiphospholipid syndrome

105

Name the likely diagnosis: recurrent miscarriages; arterial and venous thromboses; anticardiolipin antobody +

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

106

A deficiency of ADAMTS13, from an acquired antibody to this metalloproteinase or a genetic mutation in the encoding gene, can lead to accumulation of large von Willebrand multimers that promote platelet microaggregate formation, resulting in what disorder?

TTP that is marked by a pentad of: microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fever, neurologic changes, thrombocytopenia, renal failure.

107

Acanthosis nigricans is an uncommon condition with hyperpigmented areas in skin folds; it may occur in association with:

endocrinopathies neoplasms

108

The most important gene in familial cases of _________ is that of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2 (CDKN2A), which encodes several tumor suppressors including p16/INK4A.

dysplastic nevus syndrome

109

pruritic, purple, polygonal papules indicate what disease?

lichen planus

110

Tinea versicolor is a common condition caused by a superficial fungal infection of:

Malassezia furfur The lesions can be lighter or darker than the surrounding skin.

111

Biopsy shows spindle-shaped cells and extravastated red cells. This indicates what neoplasm?

HHV8 - Kaposi's sarcoma nodules can occur anywhere, not just skin

112

Acantholysis means:

loss of intercellular connections

113

The most important histologic feature of Mycosis Fungoides (CTCL) is:

the presence of lymphocytes in the epidermis aka epidermotropism

114

macrocytosis with hypersegmentation of neutrophils

pernicious anemia deficiency of B12 or folic acid

115

generally, megaloblastic anemias are caused by:

impaired DNA synthesis ie folic acid deficiency

116

Patients with sickle cell disease that undergo autosplenectomy are then at risk for what kind of sequelae?

Pneumonia, infections with encapsulated bacteria is strep pneumo; renal papillary necrosis due to low pH and low O2

117

Anemia of chronic disease is often mild to moderate, with what size RBCs?

Microcytic "poor utilization of iron stores" low serum iron LOW iron binding capacity

118

Associate acanthocytosis or "spur cells" (RBCs look like suns with multiple projections coming out of them) with:

chronic liver disease; free cholesterol is deposited in the RBC membrane

119

ring sideroblasts, elderly patient think:

myelodysplastic syndrome clonal stem cell defect

120

Fatty bone marrow, think:

aplastic anemia fatigue, severe pancytopenia, NO reticulocyte response to the anemia

121

Schilling test tests:

B12 normal - no B12 deficiency

122

Auer rods, think

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)

123

translocation in PML/RAR (retinoic acid receptor)

APL 15;17

124

"smudge cells" think

CLL chronic lymphocytic leukemia

125

the most common subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma is:

nodular sclerosis

126

Lethal complication of multiple myeloma:

renal failure

127

Marrow fibrosis accompanied by megakaryocytosis and granulopoesis:

chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis 15% of cases transform to AML

128

version of Lagherhans Cell Histiocytosis seen in children 2-5; classic triad of: diabetes insipidus, proptosis, defects in membranous bones

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease typically multifocal and indolent otitis media is a common finding painful lytic bone lesions common

129

Acute, disseminated variant of Langherhans cell histiocytosis seen in children

Letterer-Siwe disease otitis media is a common finding painful lytic bone lesions common

130

Most lymphomas in patients who have AIDS are:

high grade B-cell lymphomas large grade B-cell lymhomas is Burkitts bcl2 gene usually EBV+

131

ITP can be seen in what autoimmune disorder?

SLE antibody-mediated platelet destruction

132

PAS + hyaline microthrombi in arterioles and capillaries, principally in the heart, brain and kidneys. This indicates what disorder?

TTP thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

133

Classic examples of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia:

DIC TTP both feature generalized thrombosis of capillary vessels