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(3) Musculoskeletal Imaging > S3_L1 Trauma to the Pelvis and Hip > Flashcards

S3_L1 Trauma to the Pelvis and Hip Flashcards

1
Q

The most common disorder of the hip in adolescence

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

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2
Q

It is the relocation maneuver used to reduce hip dislocation

A

Ortolani

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3
Q

It is the dislocation maneuver done first to assess the instability of the hip

A

Barlow

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4
Q

Most appropriate diagnostic tool for the evaluation of avascular necrosis
A. X-ray
B. CT Scan
C. Angiography
D. MRI

A

D. MRI

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5
Q

Most frequent long-term complication of hip dislocation
A. avascular necrosis
B. sciatic nerve injury
C. femoral nerve and artery injury
D. post-traumatic arthritis

A

D. post-traumatic arthritis

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6
Q

Most common cause of proximal femur fractures
A. Trauma
B. Stress fracture
C. Fall
D. Motor vehicular accident

A

C. Fall

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7
Q

Most pelvic fractures are demonstrated on this radiograph
A. AP pelvis
B. Pelvic oblique
C. AP axial inlet
D. AP axial outlet

A

A. AP pelvis

Note: The other choices are optional imaging evaluation for fractures of the pelvis.

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8
Q

Most common treatment for slipped capital femoral epiphysis
A. Conservative treatment
B. Surgical fixation
C. Total hip arthroplasty
D. In situ pinning

A

D. In situ pinning (Accept the deformity, pin it to prevent further collapse)

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9
Q

Diagnostic study of choice for diagnosing stress fractures
A. CT Scan
B. X-ray
C. MRI
D. Radionuclide bone scans

A

C. MRI

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10
Q

Diagnostic modality of choice for evaluating labral tears
A. X-ray
B. CT Scan
C. Radionuclide bone scans
D. MR Arthrography

A

D. MR Arthrography

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11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In slipped capital femoral epiphysis, the proximal femur epiphysis displaces posteriorly, medially and inferiorly.

A

True

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12
Q

A 45 yo female patient consulted due to bilateral hip pain. On Xray you see subchondral collapse of the head involving more than 30% of the femoral head. Using the Steinberg Classification/Staging, What is the stage of the patient’s AVN.
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

A

C. Stage III

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13
Q

This hip position during a dashboard injury will result in a posterior hip dislocation and concomitant posterior wall acetabular fracture

a. Hip flexion and adduction
b. Hip flexion and abduction
c. Hip extension and adduction
d. Hip extension and abduction

A

b. Hip flexion and abduction

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14
Q

This hip position during a dashboard injury will result in a posterior hip dislocation, but with a less chance for a posterior wall acetabular fracture

a. Hip flexion and adduction
b. Hip flexion and abduction
c. Hip extension and adduction
d. Hip extension and abduction

A

a. Hip flexion and adduction

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15
Q
  1. Avulsion
  2. Pelvic ring disruptions
  3. Individual bone fractures

A. Low-energy injury
B. High-energy injury
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
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16
Q

True of high-energy injuries, except
A. X-rays: more extensive trauma survey is necessary
B. Pelvic fractures are often accompanied by life-threatening visceral injuries
C. A CT scan of the thorax-abdomen-pelvis (TAP) can be done to quickly assess injuries
D. None

A

D. None

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17
Q

True of low-energy injuries, except
A. Pelvis AP view can be used to view the walls of the acetabulum
B. Pelvis AP view is used to assess the location of injuries
C. CT Scan is used for evaluating fractures in complex areas
D. None

A

D. None

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18
Q

Modified TF
A. In the pelvic inlet view, the central ray is angled at 40 degrees cephalad.
B. In the pelvic outlet view, the
central ray is angled at 30 degrees caudal.

A

FF

A. In the pelvic inlet view, the central ray is angled at 40 degrees caudal (superior to inferior).
B. In the pelvic outlet view, the
central ray is angled at 30 degrees cephalad (inferior to superior).

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19
Q

Modified TF
A. The Hip AP view and cross-table lateral view can be used to view proximal femur fractures.
B. The anteroposterior pelvic oblique (Judet) views demonstrate the columns of the acetabulum.

A

TT

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20
Q

The following are etiologies of femoroacetabular impingement with labral pathology, except
A. Past medical history of slipped capital femoral epiphysis
B. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
C. Avascular necrosis
D. Acetabular Retroversion
E. None

A

E. None

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21
Q
  1. Overcoverage of femoral head by the acetabulum
  2. Coxa profunda
  3. Femoral head-neck junction is offset
  4. Acetabular protrusion
  5. Acetabular retroversion

A. Cam impingement
B. Pincer impingement
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. A (unable to fully clear the acetabular rim)
  4. B
  5. B
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22
Q

The following are etiologies of developmental dysplasia of the hip, except
A. Mechanical cause: in-utero position
B. Hormonal
C. Environmental
D. Genetic

A

C. Environmental

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23
Q

The following are clinical presentations of developmental dysplasia of the hip, except
A. Uneven thigh skin folds
B. Loss of motion
C. (+) Ortolani & Barlow
D. Uneven leg lengths
E. None

A

E. None

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24
Q

The following are clinical presentations of femoroacetabular impingement with labral pathology, except
A. (+) Snapping or clicking hip
B. Hip extension contractures
C. Painful provocation test
D. Loss of motion
E. None

A

B. Hip extension contractures

Correct answer: hip flexion contractures

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25
Q

Position of the hip in the painful provocation test to confirm for femoroacetabular impingement
A. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation
B. Flexion, adduction, internal rotation
C. Flexion, abduction, external rotation
D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation

A

B. Flexion, adduction, internal rotation

If the hip was passively positioned in this way and pain was elicited, (+) impingement

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26
Q

The following are etiologies/risk factors of slipped capital femoral epiphysis, except
A. Weakening of physeal plate at the head-neck junction
B. Extreme shear and weight bearing forces
C. Imbalance of growth and sex hormones
D. Obesity and trauma
E. Horizontally oriented physeal plate

A

E. Horizontally oriented physeal plate

Correct answer: vertically oriented physeal plate

As load is placed on the (vertically-oriented) femoral head, the risk for displacement increases

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27
Q

True of the radiologic findings in slipped capital femoral epiphysis, except
A. Blurring or widening of physis on AP view
B. Displacement is best demonstrated on lateral frog leg
C. Decreased height of epiphysis relative to ipsilateral hip
D. None

A

C. Decreased height of epiphysis relative to ipsilateral hip

Correct answer: Decreased height of epiphysis relative to contralateral hip

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28
Q

Modified TF
A. Osteochondritis Dissecans pertains to the infarction of the entire epiphysis of a growing child, leading to avascular necrosis.
B. Epiphyseal Ischemic Necrosis is described as a localized segmental infarction.

A

FF

A. Epiphyseal ischemic necrosis pertains to the infarction of the entire epiphysis of a growing child, leading to avascular necrosis.
B. Osteochondritis dissecans is described as a localized segmental infarction.

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29
Q

True of the clinical presentation of RA of the hip, except
A. Morning joint stiffness
B. Bilateral and symmetrical swelling of the joints
C. Pain and functional disability
D. Rheumatoid nodules
E. Rheumatoid factor test may be normal

A

E. Rheumatoid factor test may be normal

Correct answer: Positive rheumatoid factor test

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30
Q

True of the clinical presentation of avascular necrosis of the proximal femur, except
A. Nonspecific dull pain in the joint, thigh, or leg
B. Loss of motion in adulthood
C. Painful limp
D. None

A

D. None

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31
Q

True of the clinical presentation of degenerative joint disease of the hip, except
A. Loss of joint Motion
B. Difficulty in ambulation due to loss of joint congruity and increased pain upon weight-bearing
C. Progressive pain
D. (+) C Sign
E. None

A

E. None

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32
Q

The following are complications of pelvic fractures, except
A. 10-20 mortality rate
B. Infection
C. Thrombo-embolism
D. Malunion
E. Post-traumatic arthritis

A

A. 10-20 mortality rate

Correct answer: 5-15 mortality rate

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33
Q

The following are complications of acetabular fractures, except
A. Infection
B. Sciatic nerve injury
C. Heterotrophic Ossification
D. Malunion
E. None

A

E. None

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34
Q

The following are complications of acetabular fractures, except
A. Post-traumatic arthritis
B. Femoral or superior gluteal nerve injury
C. Avascular Necrosis
D. None

A

D. None

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35
Q

The following are complications of hip dislocation, except
A. Post-traumatic arthritis
B. Avascular necrosis
C. Sciatic nerve injury
D. Femoral nerve and artery injury
E. None

A

E. None

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36
Q

In hip dislocation, avascular necrosis may arise due to the ff, except
A. Dislocation is an acute injury
B. Prolonged period of dislocation prior to reduction
C. Repeated attempts at reduction
D. Instability
E. None

A

D. Instability

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37
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In cases of hip dislocation, the prognosis is good if there were no associated fractures at the hip.

A

True

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38
Q

Modified TF
A. Sciatic nerve injury may be caused by a posterior hip dislocation.
B. Femoral nerve and artery injury may result from an anterior hip dislocation (traction injury).

A

TT

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39
Q

Acetabular fractures

  1. Affects iliopubic area
  2. Transverse fracture
  3. Occurs in the ilioischial area
  4. Complex, T-shaped configuration, has a vertical component

A. Anterior column fracture
B. Posterior column fracture
C. Both

A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
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40
Q

Modified TF
A. In anterior hip dislocations, the dislocated head is larger in the pelvic AP view.
B. In posterior hip dislocations, the dislocated head is smaller in the pelvic AP view.

A

TT

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41
Q

The following describes the etiology of RA of the hip, except
A. Occurs in women more than men
B. Occurs in older adults
C. Progressive, systemic, autoimmune inflammatory disease primarily affecting synovial joints
D. None

A

B. Occurs in older adults

Correct answer: young adults

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42
Q

True of the radiologic findings in RA of the hip, except
A. Axial migration of the femoral head
B. Synovial cysts located within nearby bone
C. Sclerotic subchondral bone
D. Periarticular swelling and joint effusion
E. None

A

C. Sclerotic subchondral bone

NOTE: A distinct difference between DJD and RA is that RA has a minimal or absent reparative processes = NO SCLEROTIC SUBCHONDRAL BONE AND OSTEOPHYTE FORMATION in RA. If seen, it may be a concomitant RA on top of an OA.

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43
Q

True of the radiologic findings in RA of the hip, except
A. Acetabular protrusion
B. Articular erosions located peripherally or centrally on the joint
C. Symmetrical and concentric joint space narrowing
D. Osteoporosis of periarticular areas
E. None

A

E. None

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44
Q

True of the radiologic findings in DJD of the hip, except
A. Joint space narrowing
B. Sclerotic subchondral bone
C. Osteophyte formation at the joint margins
D. Cyst formation
E. None

A

E. None

45
Q

True of the radiologic findings in DJD of the hip, except
A. Migration of the femoral head
B. Egger’s cyst
C. Pseudocyst formation
D. None

A

D. None

46
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Advanced degenerative changes

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

G. Stage VI

47
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Sclerosis and/or cyst formation in femoral head

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

C. Stage II

48
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Subchondral collapse (crescent sign) without flattening

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

D. Stage III

49
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Normal x-ray film, normal bone scan and MRI

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

A. Stage 0

50
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Normal x-ray film, abnormal bone scan, or MRI

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

B. Stage I

51
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Flattening of head without joint narrowing or acetabular involvement

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

E. Stage IV

52
Q

Radiologic Staging of Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head

Criteria: Flattening of head with joint narrowing and/or acetabular involvement

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
F. Stage V
G. Stage VI

A

F. Stage V

53
Q

True of the possible radiologic findings in avascular necrosis of the proximal femur, except
A. Sclerosis and cyst formation
B. Radiolucent crescent image, (+) Crescent sign
C. Normal result in initial stages
D. Femoral head collapse in advanced stages
E. None

A

E. None

54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Sclerosis and cyst formation in AVN represent initial necrosis and the femoral head’s attempts at healing.

A

True

NOTE: The joint space is preserved at this stage.

55
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The radionuclide bone scan identifies an increased uptake at the site of the lesion in avascular necrosis of the proximal femur.

A

True

56
Q

Modified TF
A. Non-operative treatment in AVN includes prolonged avoidance of WB, traction, bracing, casting, and exercise.
B. Conservative treatment is more successful in younger patients and the prognosis is better in this age group.

A

TT

57
Q

Surgical treatment for AVN

  1. For severe cases
  2. Multiple drilling into femoral head
  3. Derotate pathologic areas so WB falls into normal part of head
  4. Put bone graft to support the hole via cortical compression

A. Core Decompression
B. Grafting
C. Osteotomy
D. Resection
E. Arthroplasty

A
  1. D
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
58
Q

Modified TF
A. Conservative is usually not successful in treating SCFE.
B. Treatment can be in situ pinning or surgical fixation to prevent further inferior slippage and stabilize the physis.

A

TT

59
Q

Modified TF
A. SCFE is the posteromedioinfeior displacement of proximal femoral epiphysis (femoral head).
B. It is occurs in childhood to adolescence, more commonly in boys as their increased activity increases their risk.

A

TT

60
Q

The following are treatment procedures for unstable pelvic fractures, except
A. Internal fixation
B. External fixation
C. Skeletal fixation
D. A combination of these
E. None

A

E. None

61
Q

The following are treatment procedures for stable pelvic fractures, except
A. Bed rest
B. Analgesics
C. ROME
D. Progressive mobility and ambulation with adaptive devices to limit WB on the affected side
E. None

A

E. None

62
Q

Modified TF
A. For stable pelvic fractures, return to full function may require 6 to 12 weeks of treatment.
B. For stable fractures, excessive callus formation at the site of avulsion may result in prolonged symptoms.

A

TT

63
Q

Modified TF
A. For DDH, a soft positioning harness (Pavlik harness) may be used in treating newborns.
B. Closed reduction under anesthesia and hip spica cast to maintain reduction may be done in children > 6 months old.

A

TT

64
Q

Modified TF
A. The Pistol Grip Deformity is seen in a cam-type impingement.
B. The Figure Eight or Cross-over Sign represents an anterior rim that overly covers the femoral head.

A

TT

65
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The osseous bump at the head neck junction is a characteristic finding of a pincer lesion.

A

False, it is a characteristic finding of a cam lesion.

66
Q

Modified TF: DJD treatment
A. In hemiarthroplasty, only the degenerative femoral head is replaced.
B. In total hip arthroplasty, both the degenerative femoral head and acetabulum are replaced.

A

TT

67
Q

True of DDH, except
A. Common among girls
B. More common in the right hip
C. Has a familial tendency
D. Risk factors are first borne children and breech position
E. None

A

B. More common in the right hip

Correct answer: left hip

68
Q

True of acetabular fractures, except
A. Impaction of the femoral head into the acetabular cup
B. Fracture configuration depends on position of the hip on injury
C. A neutral hip with impact on greater trochanter results in a transverse fracture
D. A flexed hip with impact through the femur results in a posterior wall acetabular fracture
E. None

A

E. None

69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: It is difficult to evaluate acetabular fractures on routine AP X-rays.

A

True

70
Q

Most common type of hip dislocation
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior

A

D. Posterior

71
Q

Hip dislocation is a type of high-energy trauma that may occur with these associated injuries, except
A. Patellar fractures
B. Femoral head fractures
C. Femoral neck fractures
D. Acetabular fractures

A

C. Femoral neck fractures

72
Q

Modified TF
A. Intertrochanteric fracture is a type of extracapsular fracture located in the region between the greater and lesser trochanters.
B. This fracture comprises 50% of all proximal femur fractures.

A

TT

73
Q

Modified TF
A. Subtrochanteric fracture is a type of extracapsular fracture.
B. It is located at the level of the lesser trochanter up to 5 cm below.

A

TT

74
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Intracapsular fractures are vulnerable to post-traumatic vascular complications because of the injury potential of blood vessels in close proximity.

A

True

75
Q

horizontal line drawn through the junctions of the iliac, ischial, and pubic bones at the center of the acetabulum (triradiate cartilage)

A. Hilgenreiner’s line
B. Perkin’s line
C. Shenton’s line
D. Acetabular index

A

A. Hilgenreiner’s line

76
Q

perpendicular line drawn through the outer border of the acetabulum
A. Hilgenreiner’s line
B. Perkin’s line
C. Shenton’s line
D. Acetabular index

A

B. Perkin’s line

77
Q

The acetabular index is normally less than ___ degrees

A

30

More than 30 degrees = acetabular hypoplasia / shallow acetabulum, meaning (+) DDH

78
Q

Line along the inferior border of the femoral neck and inferior border of the superior pubic ramus. Proximal displacement of the femoral head in congenital hip dislocation results in interruption of this line.
A. Hilgenreiner’s line
B. Perkin’s line
C. Shenton’s line
D. Acetabular index

A

C. Shenton’s line

79
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The femoral head is found in the inferomedial quadrant and it is not seen at birth.

A

True

80
Q

Measure of acetabular depth from inner portion of acetabulum to outer rim of acetabulum
A. Hilgenreiner’s line
B. Perkin’s line
C. Shenton’s line
D. Acetabular index

A

D. Acetabular index

81
Q

The following are intracapsular fractures, except
A. Femoral head
B. Subcapital
C. Femoral shaft
D. Femoral neck (transcervical or basicervical)
E. None

A

C. Femoral shaft

82
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: On imaging for DDH, the deformity of the femoral head and acetabulum are well visualized on MRI and ultrasound even prior to ossification.

A

True

83
Q

In intracapsular fractures, complications such as avascular necrosis, delayed union, and nonunion may occur due to compromise in the:
A. Circumflex femoral arteries, retinacular artery
B. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Superior gluteal artery
D. Internal iliac artery

A

A. Circumflex femoral arteries, retinacular artery

84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In extracapsular fractures, complications are associated with fixation failure.

A

True

85
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: On physical examination, there is more external rotation of the hip in intracapsular fractures due to the pull of the hip muscles.

A

False, correct answer is more external rotation of the hip in extracapsular fractures

86
Q

Unstable pelvic fractures

  1. All 4 ischiopubic rami are involved
  2. Involves both ischiopubic rami on one side and contralateral SI joint

A. Vertical shear or Malgaigne fracture
B. Straddle fracture
C. Bucket handle fracture
D. Dislocation

A
  1. B
  2. C
87
Q

Unstable pelvic fractures

  1. Can involve one or both SI joints and the symphysis pubis
  2. Unilateral fractures of the superior and inferior pubic rami and disruption of the ipsilateral sacroiliac joint

A. Vertical shear or Malgaigne fracture
B. Straddle fracture
C. Bucket handle fracture
D. Dislocation

A
  1. D
  2. A
88
Q

The following are stable pelvic fractures, except
A. Iliac wing fractures
B. Sacral fractures
C. Ischiopubic ramus fractures
D. Avulsion fractures of the ASIS, AIIS, or ischial tuberosity
E. None

A

E. None

89
Q

In femoroacetabular impingement, pelvic and hip x-rays are used to check for alteration in proximal femur anatomy by assessing the following, except
A. Head-to-neck angle
B. Neck-to-shaft angle
C. Acetabular inclination
D. None

A

D. None

90
Q

Modified TF
A. The pelvic AP view and CT scan are used in evaluating hip dislocation.
B. CT scan is taken after closed reduction to check for femoral head fractures, joint congruency, and intra-articular fragments.

A

True

91
Q

Modified TF
A. In stable fractures, there are no disruptions of any articulation.
B. This type of fracture is frequently associated with internal hemorrhage, especially in the retroperitoneal area.

A

TF

B. Unstable fractures are frequently associated with internal hemorrhage, especially in the retroperitoneal area.

92
Q

Modified TF
A. Unstable fractures involve disruptions of 2 or more sites on the pelvis.
B. Ischiopubic ramus fractures, a type of stable fracture, account for almost half of all pelvic fractures.

A

TT

93
Q

Modified TF
A. One of the surgical treatments for DJD of the hip is wedge osteotomy, where the joint biomechanics is altered to promote weight bearing on the unaffected surface of the femur.
B. Femoral head and neck resection are other surgical options.

A

TT

94
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In treating hip dislocation, open reduction is done when closed reduction fails or when excision or internal fixation is required for associated femoral or acetabular fractures.

A

True

95
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: ORIF or prosthetic replacement is the surgical treatment specifically done for extracapsular fractures.

A

True

96
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: CT scan, MRI, or radionuclide bone scans may supplement the routine radiographs for subtle or impacted fractures of the proximal femur.

A

True

97
Q

It is the majority of the causes for pelvic fractures

A

MVA

98
Q

It is the continuous osseous cage formed by the paired coxal bones and the sacrum

A

Pelvic ring

99
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Stability determines treatment, prognosis and rehabilitation in pelvic fractures.

A

True

100
Q

Proximal femur fractures may occur in these cases, except
A. Falls
B. Female with osteoporosis
C. MVA (trauma) in children and young adults
D. Stress fractures in distance runners, military recruits and ballet dancers (young adults)
E. None

A

E. None

101
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Stress fractures of the proximal femur occur due to vertical loading stresses.

A

False, correct answer is stress fractures of the proximal femur occur due to cylindrical loading stresses.

102
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In DDH, the head of the femur is not visualized on x-rays as it has not ossified yet, so x-rays are done for older children with DDH.

A

True

103
Q

Modified TF: Judet views

A. The internal oblique position demonstrates the iliopubic column and posterior rim of the acetabulum.
B. The external oblique position demonstrates the ilioischial column and anterior rim of the acetabulum.

A

TT

104
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: On the MRI, stress fractures are represented by a hypointense fracture line from cyclic loading.

A

True

105
Q

The following are appropriate views for evaluating proximal femur fractures, except
A. AP view
B. Lateral view
C. Mediolateral frog-leg view
D. Axiolateral groin-lateral view
E. None

A

E. None

106
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Two cancellous screws are used in the surgical treatment of impacted nondisplaced fracture or displaced fracture in young adults.

A

False, correct answer is three cancellous screws

107
Q

Surgical treatment for proximal femur fractures depends on the following, except
A. Amount of displacement
B. Stability of fracture site
C. Age
D. Health and prior functional status
E. None

A

E. None

108
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Total or Partial Hip Replacement can be used to treat femoral neck fractures in the elderly population.

A

True

(3) Musculoskeletal Imaging (25 decks)

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