Sample Exam - Questions v1.3

Question 1

Which one of the following answers describes a test condition?
a) An attribute of a component or system specified or implied by requirements documentation.
b) An aspect of the test basis that is relevant to achieve specific test objectives.
c) The degree to which a software product provides functions which meet stated and implied
needs when the software is used under specified conditions.
d) The percentage of all single condition outcomes that independently affect a decision
outcome that have been exercised by a test suite.

Answer 1

b) Is correct: From glossary

Question 2

Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?
a) The test should start as late as possible so that development had enough time to create a
good product.
b) To find as many failures as possible so that defects can be identified and corrected.
c) To prove that all possible defects are identified.
d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

Answer 2

b) Is correct: This is one objective of testing (syllabus chapter
1. 1.1).

Question 3

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes
prevention activities.
b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging finds, analyzes, and removes
the causes of failures in the software.
c) Testing removes defects; debugging identifies the causes of failures.
d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures.

Answer 3

b) Is correct: Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused
by defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects,
which are the source of failures, not the root cause of the
defects (syllabus 1.1.2)

Question 4

Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure discovered
during testing or in production?
a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
b) The wrong version of a compiled source code file was included in the build.
c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

Answer 4

a) Is correct: A crash is clearly noticeable by the user (syllabus
chapter 1.2.3).

Question 5

Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has a
wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than
others. Over several months Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did not
create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing the
tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe?
a) Testing depends on the environment.
b) Exhaustive testing is not possible.
c) Repeating of tests will not find new defects.
d) Defects cluster together.
Select ONE option.

Answer 5

c.) Is correct: Syllabus 1.3: principle #5 says “If the same tests
are repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no
longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing
tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may
need to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same
test cases will not bring new findings

Question 6

In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough.
b) It contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety of ways.
c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed.
d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases.

Answer 6

b) Is correct: Syllabus 1.2.2. Testing contributes to the
achievement of quality in a variety of ways, e.g. such as
reducing the risk of inadequate software quality (syllabus
chapter 1.1.1).

Question 7

Which of the following activities is part of the main activity “test analysis” in the test process?

a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools.
b) Creating test suites from test scripts.
c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.
d) Evaluating the test basis for testability.

Answer 7

d) Is correct: This activity is performed during the test analysis
activity (syllabus chapter 1.4.2, test analysis).

Question 8

Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).
1. Test suite.
2. Test case.
3. Test script.
4. Test charter.
A. A group of test scripts with a sequence of instructions.
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test.
C. Contains expected results.
D. An instruction of test goals and possible test ideas on how to test.
a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D.
b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C.
c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B.
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

Answer 8

a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D.

Question 9

How can white-box testing be applied during acceptance testing?
a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems.
b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed.
c) To check if all work process flows have been covered.
d) To cover all web page navigations.
Select ONE option.

Answer 9

c) Is correct: syllabus chapter 2.3.5: For acceptance testing, tests
are designed to cover all supported financial data file
structures and value ranges for bank-to-bank transfers

Question 10

Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?
a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and
classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between
components and interactions between different parts of the system.
b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications,
design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually
derived from requirement specifications or use cases.
c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing
focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is
the responsibility of the users of the system.

Answer 10

b) Is correct: Syllabus 2.2.1: Examples of work products that can
be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed
design, code, data model, component specifications. Syllabus
2.2.3: Examples of work products for system testing include
system and software requirement specifications (functional and
non-functional) use cases.

Question 11

Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully
implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction has
no side effects.
b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of
confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new environment.
c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose of
confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed.
d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while the
purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed.

Answer 11

c) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 2.3.4.

Question 12

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?
a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each
phase a piece of the system is added.
b) A phase in the development process should begins when the previous phase is complete.
c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been
completed.
d) Testing is added to development as an increment.

Answer 12

a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 2.1.1: incremental development
involves establishing requirements, designing, building, and
testing a system in pieces.

Question 13

Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software.
b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform.
c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved.
d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”.

Answer 13

a) Is correct: This is maintainability testing, not maintenance
testing.

Question 14

Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Tester.
b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Developer.
c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Designer.
d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Scribe.

Answer 14

d) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 3.2.2

Question 15

Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?

a) Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review.
b) Answer any questions the participants may have.
c) Verification of input criteria for the review..
d) Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria.

Answer 15

c) Is correct: According to syllabus chapter 3.2.1: The checking
of entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review

Question 16

Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a formal
process based on rules and checklists?
a) Informal Review.
b) Technical Review.
c) Inspection.
d) Walkthrough.

Answer 16

c) Is correct: As per syllabus 3.2.3: inspection is a formal process
based on rules and checklists.

Question 17

Which TWO of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?
a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects.
b) Static testing makes dynamic testing less challenging.
c) Static testing allows early validation of user requirements.
d) Static testing makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle.
e) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic testing
finds the defects better.
Select TWO options.

Answer 17

a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 3.1.2: defects found early are often
much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the
lifecycle.

c) Static testing allows early validation of user requirements.

Question 18

You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house
document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution between
the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by everyone.
You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It includes the
following points:
i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Is the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Is the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?
In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use the
checklist above:
“After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software
architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the system
specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the scope of the
review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and concludes the review
with an official review done-comment.”
Which of the following statements about your review is correct?
a) Point ii) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear which condition must be
fulfilled in order to invite to the review.
b) You notice that in addition to the tester and the verifier, the validator must also be invited.
Since this item is not part of your checklist, you do not create a corresponding comment.
c) Point iii) of the checklist has been violated as it is not clear what marks the review as
completed.
d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the
checklist for the invitation to the review.

Answer 18

a) Is not correct: It is described that the software architect must
have completed the system specification.
b) Is not correct: In syllabus chapter 3.2.4 ‘checklist-based’, last
sentence it is documented that you should also look for defects
outside the checklist.
c) Is not correct: It is described: every reviewer did his review
done comment.
d) Is correct: It is described that a checklist is available, but who
provides the checklist?

Question 19

What is checklist-based testing?
a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester’s knowledge of past faults,
or general knowledge of failures.
b) Procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification,
either functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its
internal structure.
c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to
be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product has
to be verified.
d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on
their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

Answer 19

c) Is correct: Defined in glossary V.3.2

Question 20

Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) A technique based on analysis of the architecture.
b) A technique checking that the test object is working according to the technical design.
c) A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures.
d) A technique based on formal requirements.

Answer 20

d) Is correct: Syllabus 4.1.2: Black-box test techniques are based
on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g. formal
requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user
stories).

Question 21

The following statement refers to decision coverage:
“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its
execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision
coverage.”
Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and
therefore 50% decision coverage.
b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement to
be either true or false.
c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in this
case.
d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending on
the tested software.

Answer 21

b) Is correct: Since any test case will cause the outcome of the
“if” statement to be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we
achieved 50% decision coverage (syllabus chapter 4.3).

Question 22

Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?
a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed.
b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been
executed.
c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have been
executed by test cases that are passed.
d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not.

Answer 22

b) Is correct: Syllabus 4.3.1: statement testing exercises the
executable statements in the code. Statement coverage is
measured as the number of statements executed by the tests
divided by the total number of executable statements in the
test object, normally expressed as a percentage.

Question 23

Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is
true?
a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage.
b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage.
c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage.
d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%.

Answer 23

a) Is correct: The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision
coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage (syllabus
chapter 4.3.3 third paragraph).

Question 24

For which of the following situations is explorative testing suitable?
a) When time pressure requires speeding up the execution of tests already specified.
b) When the system is developed incrementally and no test charter is available.
c) When testers are available who have sufficient knowledge of similar applications and
technologies.
d) When an advanced knowledge of the system already exists and evidence is to be provided
that it should be tested intensively.

Answer 24

c) Is correct: Exploratory tests should be performed by
experienced testers with knowledge of similar applications and
technologies (syllabus chapter 4.4 and 1.4.2).

Question 25

An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:  less than or equal to 2 years,  more than 2 years but less than 5 years,  5 to 10 years inclusively or longer than 10 years. What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the bonus? a) 3. b) 5. c) 2. d) 4.

Answer 25

d) Is correct: The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in the question; i.e. at least one test case must be created for each equivalence partition 1. Equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2. 2. Equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5. 3. Equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10. 4. Equivalence partition: 10 < employment time.

Question 26

A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics: If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen. If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned. If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined. If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended. The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value. Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value analysis, where only the boundary values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are relevant? a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60. b) 50, 55, 60. c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62. d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61.

Answer 26

The following partitions can be identified: 1. <= 50, boundary value 50 2. 51 – 55 boundary values 51, 55 3. 56 – 60 boundary values 56, 60 4. >=61 boundary value 61 Boundary value according to glossary V.3.2: A minimum or maximum value of an ordered equivalence partition Thus: d) Is correct: includes all necessary boundary values (syllabus chapter 4.2.2).

Question 27

A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on the following display resolution: 1. 640x480. 2. 1280x720. 3. 1600x1200. 4. 1920x1080. Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test technique to test this requirement? a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test case). b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and 1920x1080 (2 test cases). c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement (4 test cases). d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the requirement (1 test case).

Answer 27

``` c) Is correct: This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values. Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when using equivalence partitioning test technique. ```

Question 28

Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester? a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines. b) The test manager plans and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies the tests and decides on the test automation framework. c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object. d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

Answer 28

b) Is correct: See Syllabus 5.1.2 (test manager 2. + 4. + 8.dot; tester 5.+ 6.dot)

Question 29

Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution? a) Percentage of executed test cases. b) Average number of testers involved in the test execution. c) Coverage of requirements by source code. d) Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed .

Answer 29

a) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 5.3.1: test case execution (e.g. number of test cases run/not run, and test cases passed/failed).

Question 30

Which TWO of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning? a) Budget limitations. b) Test objectives. c) Test log. d) Failure rate. e) Use cases.

Answer 30

a) Is correct: According to syllabus chapter 5.2.1 budgeting (7.dot) and making decisions about what to test (4.dot) are documented in the test plan. This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted. b) Is correct: See syllabus 5.2.1.

Question 31

Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing? a) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, schedule and status about fixing errors and remaining risks. b) Reliability measures, test coverage, degree of tester’s independence and product completeness. c) Reliability measures, test coverage, test cost, availability of test environment, time to market and product completeness. d) Time to market, remaining defects, tester qualification, availability of testable use cases, test coverage and test cost.

Answer 31

a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.3 (all 5 dots).

Question 32

Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report? a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing. b) Deviations from the test approach. c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria. d) Evaluation of the quality of the test item.

Answer 32

a) Is correct: This information has been defined earlier in the test project.

Question 33

The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves. The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan: 1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test. 2. The control algorithms on the server are tested during implementation using continuous integration. 3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing. 4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts. What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the test plan? a) methodical, analytical, reactive and regression-averse. b) analytical, model-based, consultative and reactive. c) model-based, methodical, analytical and consultative. d) regression-averse, consultative, reactive and methodical.

Answer 33

The mapping of points 1 to 4 to approaches according to syllabus chapter 5.2. is only correct for option b). The mappings can be justified as follows: 1. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 7. dot, last sentence: Exploratory testing is a common technique employed in reactive strategies, whereby the explorative testing is assigned to the experience-based testing category 2. The control algorithms is ‘modelled’ on the server, therefore it’s tested with a model-based strategy (see syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 2. dot). 3. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 1. dot, second sentence: “Risk-based testing is an example of an analytical approach, where tests are designed and prioritized based on the level of risk”. 4. See syllabus chapter 5.2.2, 5. dot: “This type of test strategy is driven primarily by the advice, guidance, or instructions of stakeholders, business domain experts, or technology experts, who may be outside the test team or outside the organization itself. b) Is correct

Question 34

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation? a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project. b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers. c) Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team. d) Average of calculations collected from business experts.

Answer 34

a) Is correct: See syllabus chapter 5.2.6: the metrics-based approach: estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values

Question 35

You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:  Coffee size (small, medium, large),  Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units),  Milk (yes or no),  Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla). Now you are writing a defect report with the following information: Title: Low coffee temperature. Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C ) Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C). Degree of risk: Medium Priority: Normal What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report? a) The actual test result. b) Data identifying the tested coffee machine. c) Status of the defect. d) Ideas for improving the test case

Answer 35

b) Is correct: When testing different versions of software, identifying information is necessary (syllabus chapter 5.6, paragraph: “A defect report….” 4. dot).

Question 36

Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools? a) It is easy to create regression tests. b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets. c) It is easy to design tests for security testing. d) It is easy to run regression tests.

Answer 36

d) Is correct: Syllabus chapter 6.1.2: Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g. running regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and checking against coding standards), thus saving time.

Question 37

Which test tool (A-D) is characterized by the classification (1-4) below? 1. Tool support for management of testing and testware. 2. Tool support for static testing. 3. Tool support for test execution and logging. 4. Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis. A. Coverage tools. B. Configuration management tools. C. Review tools. D. Monitoring tools. a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C. b) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A. c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B. d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D

Answer 37

d) Is correct