Sample example b v1.1

Question 1

Which of the following provides the BEST description of a test case?
a) A document specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test. Also known as test
script or manual test script.
b) A set of input values and expected results, with execution preconditions and execution
postconditions, developed for a particular test condition.
c) An attribute of a system specified by requirements documentation (for example reliability,
usability or design constraints) that is executed in a test.
d) An item or event of a system that could be verified by one or more test conditions, e.g., a
function, transaction, feature, quality attribute, or structural element.

Answer 1

b) Correct: Based on definition from Glossary.

Question 2

Which of the following is a major objective of testing?
a) To prevent defects.
b) To validate the project plan works as required.
c) To gain confidence in the development team.
d) To make release decisions for the system under test.
Select ONE option.

Answer 2

a) Correct: One of the major objectives of testing from the

syllabus (1.1.1).

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation.
b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system.
c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased.
d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds in km/h.

Answer 3

c) Correct: This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a
cruise control system should not be affected by the radio.

Question 4

Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?
a) Because he was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, the author of the requirements
wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour.
b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so
missed a major defect.
c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location
problems during daylight saving times.
d) Because she had never worked on wearable devices before, the designer of the user interface
misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight.

Answer 4

c) Correct: The incorrect configuration data represents faulty
software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause
failures.

Question 5

As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where
initial testing found more defects than average.
Which of the following testing principles is being applied?
a) Beware of the pesticide paradox.
b) Testing is context dependent.
c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy.
d) Defects cluster together.

Answer 5

d) Correct: If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the
system containing more defects than average), then testing
effort should be focused on these areas.

Question 6

Given the following test activities and tasks:
A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion
1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause
Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?
a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Answer 6

A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test
cases

Question 7

Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test
basis and test artifacts?
a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements.
b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements.
c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects.
d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation
testing.

Answer 7

b) Correct: If all test cases are linked with requirements, then
whenever a new test case (with traceability) is added, it is
possible to see if any previously-uncovered requirements are
covered by the new test case.

Question 8

Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a
developer’s?
a) Experience on which to base their efforts.
b) Ability to see what might go wrong.
c) Good communication with team members.
d) Attention to detail.

Answer 8

b) Correct: Developers are often more interested in designing
and building solutions than in contemplating what might be
wrong with those solutions.

Question 9

Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and
test activities in the software development lifecycle:
1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity.
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available.
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development.
activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?
a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4
b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 2
c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3
d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Answer 9

4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the
   software development lifecycle. TRUE - as described in the
   syllabus (2.1.1).

Question 10

Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:
 based on interface specifications;
 focused on finding failures in communication;
 the test approach uses both functional and structural test types.
Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?
a) Component integration testing.
b) Acceptance testing.
c) System testing.
d) Component testing.

Answer 10

Considering the scenario and the syllabus (2.2):
1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis
for component integration testing includes interface
specifications (along with communication protocol
specification), while these are not included for any of the
other test levels
2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ -
failures in the communication between tested components
is included as a typical failure for component integration
testing, but failures in communication is not included for
any of the other test levels
3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test
types’ - functional and structural test types are both
included as possible approaches for component integration
testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other
test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly
mentioned in the syllabus for system testing
Thus, option A is correct.

Question 11

Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?
a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels,
while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing.
b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to
component testing.
c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level.
d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while Whitebox testing
is restricted to component and integration testing.

Answer 11

c) Correct: It is possible to perform any of the test types

(functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level.

Question 12

Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression
testing?
a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly,
while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the
system have not adversely affected other parts.
b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed,
while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been
adversely affected by the fix.
c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have
not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all
previously run tests still provide the same results as before.
d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made
successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to
ensure that they now work correctly.

Answer 12

b) Correct: The descriptions of both confirmation and
regression testing match the intent of those in the
syllabus

Question 13

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance
Testing?
a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile.
b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system.
c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user.
d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Answer 13

a) Correct: Impact analysis may be used to identify those
areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so
the extent of the impact (e.g. necessary regression
testing) can be used when deciding if the change is
worthwhile, as per syllabus (2.4.2).

Question 14

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?
a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time
required for development and testing have increased.
b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the
ease of removing defects later in the lifecycle.
c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and
communication between testers and developers has improved.
d) Since we started using static analysis, we -find coding defects that might have not been found
by performing only dynamic testing.

Answer 14

d) Correct: This is a benefit of static analysis, as per

syllabus (3.1.2).

Question 15

Which of the following sequences BEST shows the main activities of the work product review process?
a) Initiate review – Reviewer selection – Individual review – Issue communication and analysis –
Rework
b) Planning & preparation – Overview meeting – Individual review – Fix– Report
c) Preparation – Issue Detection – Issue communication and analysis – Rework – Report
d) Plan – Initiate review – Individual review – Issue communication and analysis – Fix defects &
report
Select ONE option.

Answer 15

d) Correct: This is the order of the activities as provided in
the syllabus (3.2.1).

Question 16

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews
b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings
c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

Answer 16

a) Correct: As stated in the syllabus (3.2.2).

Question 17

The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:
 There is a role of a scribe
 The purpose is to detect potential defects
 The review meeting is led by the author
 Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
 A review report is produced
Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?
a) Informal Review
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Inspection

Answer 17

Considering the attributes and the syllabus (3.2.3):
 There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs,
technical reviews and inspections; thus, the reviews
being performed cannot be informal reviews.
 The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose
of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of
review.
 The review meeting is led by the author – this is not
allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for
technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and
allowed for informal reviews
 Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all
types of reviews can include individual review (even
informal reviews)
 A review report is produced - all types of reviews can
produce a review report, although it would be less likely
for an informal review.
Thus, option B is correct.

Question 18

You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the
requirements specification for a library system:
Librarians can:
1. Register new borrowers.
2. Return books from borrowers.
3. Accept fines from borrowers.
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title.
5. Remove books from the system.
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds.
Borrowers can:
7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time.
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved.
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks.
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds.
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks.
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan).
All users (librarians and borrowers):
13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title.
14. Can browse the system catalogue.
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds.
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use.
You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for
inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e. conflicts between requirements).
Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?
a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12
b) 6-15, 9-11
c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11
d) 6-15, 7-12

Answer 18

Considering the potential inconsistencies:
 6-10 – If librarians should get system responses within 5
seconds, it is NOT inconsistent for borrowers to get
system responses within 3 seconds.
 6-15 - If librarians should get system responses within 5
seconds, it is inconsistent for all users to get system
responses within 3 seconds.
 7-12 – If borrowers can borrow a maximum of 3 books at
one time it is NOT inconsistent for them to also reserve
books (if they are on-loan).
 9-11 – If a borrower can be fined for failing to return a
book within 3 weeks it is inconsistent for them to also be
allowed to borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4
weeks – as the length of valid loans are different.
Thus, of the potential inconsistencies, 6-15 and 9-11 are valid
inconsistencies, and so option B is correct.

Question 19

Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?
a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used
to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases.
b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on
their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.
c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test
analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing.
d) Testing based on the tester’s experience, knowledge and intuition.

Answer 19

b) Correct: Glossary definition.

Question 20

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?
1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object.
2. The processing within the test object is checked.
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution.
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked.
5. User stories are used as the test basis.
Black - Black-box test techniques
White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques
a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2 Experience – 3
b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2 Experience – 4, 5
c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2 Experience – 3, 5
d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2 Experience – 4

Answer 20

The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories
of test techniques, according to the syllabus (4.1.1) is:
 Black-box test techniques
Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User
stories are used as the test basis (5)
 White-box test techniques
Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of
the test object (1) The processing within the test object is
checked (2)
 Experience-based test techniques
Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their
distribution (3)
Thus, option A is correct.

Question 21

A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to
encourage the user to keep fit.
The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:
Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the highest equivalence partition coverage?
a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000
b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000
c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678
d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Answer 21

The following valid equivalence partitions can be identified:
1) Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
2) Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
3) Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
4) Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
5) Above 6000 - Way to Go!
The sets of test inputs therefore cover the following partitions:
a) 0 (1), 1000 (1), 2000 (2), 3000 (3), 4000 (3) – 3 partitions
(out of 5)
b) 1000 (1), 2001 (3), 4000 (3), 4001 (4), 6000 (4) – 3 partitions
(out of 5)
c) 123 (1), 2345 (3), 3456 (3), 4567 (4), 5678 (4) – 3 partitions
(out of 5)
d) 666 (1), 999 (1), 2222 (3), 5555 (4), 6666 (5) – 4 partitions
(out of 5)
Thus, option D is correct.

Question 22

A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and
provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental-friendliness based on this temperature.
The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:
Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!
Using two-point BVA, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the highest level of boundary
coverage?
a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C
b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C
c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C
d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Answer 22

The input equivalence partitions, with two-point boundary
values, can be represented as the number of boundary values
covered by the test inputs is therefore:
a) 0°C 11°C 20°C 22°C 23°C → 4 (11, 20, 22 and
23)
b) 9°C 15°C 19°C 23°C 100°C → 3 (15, 19 and 23)
c) 10°C 16°C 19°C 22°C 23°C → 5 (10, 16, 19, 22
and 23)
d) 14°C 15°C 18°C 19°C 21°C 22°C → 3 (15, 19 and 22)

Thus, option C is correct.

Question 23

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?
a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by
the system under test in collaboration with actors.
b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating
integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components.
c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure
the user interfaces are easy to use.
d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of
the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows.

Answer 23

a) Correct: The syllabus (4.2.5) explains that each use case
specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in
collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains
that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors
(basic, exceptional and errors).

Question 24

Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?
a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code (minus comments)
exercised by tests.
b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source
code exercised by tests.
c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code exercised by tests.
d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code
exercised by tests.

Answer 24

b) Correct: Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion
of executable statements exercised (normally presented as a
percentage), per syllabus (4.3.1).

Question 25

Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT? a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests. b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests. c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes. d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests.

Answer 25

d) Correct: Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage), as per syllabus (4.3.2).

Question 26

Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing? a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it. b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer. c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers. d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Answer 26

c) Correct: The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists).

Question 27

Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing? a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility. b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines. c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system. d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer.

Answer 27

d) Correct: Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer.

Question 28

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager? a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing. b) Review tests developed by others. c) Create the detailed test execution schedule. d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications and models for testability.

Answer 28

a) Correct: One of the typical tasks of a test manager from the syllabus (5.1.2).

Question 29

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria: 1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent. 2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope. 3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified. 4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones. 5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked. 6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing. Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria: a) Entry criteria – 5, 6 Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4 b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6 Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5 c) Entry criteria – 1, 3 Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6 d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6 Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Answer 29

The correct pairings of examples to entry and exit criteria are:  Entry criteria o (3) The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified – example of the need for a test environment to be ready before testing can begin. o (5) The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked – example of the need for the test basis to be available before testing can begin. o (6) The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing – example of the need for a test object to have met the exit criteria for a prior level of testing before testing can begin.  Exit criteria o (1) The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent – example of spending the testing budget being a signal to stop testing. o (2) 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope – example of all the planned tests being run being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on outstanding defects remaining). o (4) Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones – example of the number of outstanding defects achieving a planned limit being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on planned tests being run). Thus, option D is correct.

Question 30

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT? a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts. b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget. c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort. d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget.

Answer 30

c) Correct: Test -Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed.

Question 31

Which of the following BEST defines risk level? a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them. b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event. d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system.

Answer 31

c) Correct: As described in the syllabus (5.5.1).

Question 32

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk? a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture. b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team. c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements. d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery.

Answer 32

a) Correct: If the expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product risk.

Question 33

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing? a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities. b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will now be performed in that area. c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system. d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project.

Answer 33

b) Correct: As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation.

Question 34

You are performing system testing of a train booking system and have found that occasionally the system reports that there are no available trains when you believe that there should be, based on the test cases you have run. You have provided the development manager with a summary of the defect and the version of the system you are testing. The developers recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide more details so that they can fix it. Given the following pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect. 2. Identification of the test item. 3. Details of the test environment. 4. Urgency/priority to fix. 5. Actual results. 6. Reference to test case specification. Apart from the description of the defect, which includes a database dump and screenshots, which of the pieces of information would be MOST useful to include in the initial defect report? a) 1, 2, 6 b) 1, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 3, 5, 6

Answer 34

Considering each of the pieces of information: 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 2. Identification of the test item – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the item that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information. 3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information. 4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information. 5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information. 6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information. Thus, option D is correct.

Question 35

``` Given the following test activities and test tools: 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis. 2. Test execution and logging. 3. Management of testing and testware. 4. Test design. A. Requirements coverage tools. B. Dynamic analysis tools. C. Test data preparation tools. D. Defect management tools. Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools? a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C ```

Answer 35

The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are, per syllabus (6.1.1): 1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools 2. Test execution and logging – (a) Requirements coverage tools 3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools 4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools Thus, option C is correct.

Question 36

Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization? a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change. b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool. c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools. d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide.

Answer 36

a) Correct: As per syllabus (6.2.2).