Schizophrenia Therapeutics Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

before diagnosing schizophrenia, it’s important to rule out what?

A

drug-induced psychosis

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2
Q

7 drugs that can cause drug-induced psychosis

A

stimulants
PCP
marijuana
anticholinergics
MDMA
ketamine
dopamine agonists

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3
Q

general distinction between the typical (1st gen) and atypical (2nd gen) antipsychotics

A

1st gen - D2 antagonism. improve positive symptoms and not negative

2nd gen - Serotonin 2a antagonism/ D2, 5HT1A partial agonists. possibly good for the negative symptoms
-allow for serotonin mediated dopamine inhibition

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4
Q

true or false

in schizophrenia, the goal is to increase dopamine

A

false - decrease

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5
Q

differentiate between the common AE of typicals vs atypicals

A

typicals - EPS, hyperprolactinemia. anticholinergic, sedation, orthostasis (in low potency)

atypicals - metabolic syndrome (hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, weight gain) hypertension, sedation, orthostasis

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6
Q

true or false

the atypicals do NOT modulate dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway

A

true

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7
Q

which has less instances of EPS - the typicals or atypicals

A

atypicals

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8
Q

true or false

ALL antipsychotics are considered equal in efficacy

A

false

all EXCEPT CLOZAPINE

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9
Q

6 1st gen antipsych (all others are atypicals)

A

haloperidol
chlorpromazine
fluphenazine
loxapine
thiothixene
perphenazine

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10
Q

akathesia and dystonias are more common in 1st gen or 2nd gen

A

1st gen

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11
Q

hyperprolactinemia is more common in 1st gen or 2nd gen

A

1st gen

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12
Q

black box warning for ALL antipsychotics

A

-increased risk of death in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis (lewy body dementia, alzheimers)

-cardiac-related death. minimal benefit in treating this type of psychosis!

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13
Q

true or false

the BBW for increased risk of death in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis only applies to the atypicals

A

FALSE - all the antipsychotics

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14
Q

contraindications/DDI concern with chlorpromazine

A

contraindicated with large amt of CNS depressants

also interacts with anticholinergics - too much!

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15
Q

true or false

chlorpromazine has a lower risk of EPS than the other 1st gen antipsychotics

A

true

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16
Q

perphenazine specific DDI concern

A

CYP2D6 inhibitors like fluoxetine and paroxetine

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17
Q

loxapine unique attribute

A

has an active metabolite called amoxapine that is a TCA

also comes in inhalation form - but has REMS program

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18
Q

what is generally considered the “first choice” if we use a 1st gen antipsychotic

A

haloperidol

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19
Q

true or false

haloperidol is not selective for the D2 receptor

A

FALSE - very selective

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20
Q

haloperidol is often administered with what? why?

A

a regularly-dosed anticholinergic

to lessen EPS effects

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21
Q

true or fakse

the PO to IM conversion of fluphenazine is NOT 1:1

A

true

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22
Q

true or false

compared to other 2nd gen antipsychotics, risperidone has a low affinity for D2 receptors

A

FALSE - high affinity

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23
Q

does risperidone have an active metabolite?

A

YES - paliperidone
also marketed as an antipsychotic (LAI)

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24
Q

risperidone and the other 2nd gen antipsychotics typically dont have much of an issue with hyperprolactinemia and EPS

when would we start to see these more?

A

at high doses

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25
black box warning ziprasidone
QT prolongation
26
2 antipsychotics that are HIGH RISK for metabolic syndrome and weight gain
olanzapine and quetiapine
27
how must lurasidone be taken
WITH FOODi
28
which antipsychotic is sometimes used to help reverse hyperprolactinemia
aripiprazole
29
FDA warning aripiprazole
increased gambling/impulsive behavior
30
differentiate between the side effects of aripiprazole vs brexpiprazole
aripiprazole - more akathesia/impulse behavior, but less weight gain than brexpiprazole brexpiprazole has more serotonergic binding affinity - so has antidepressant/anxiolytic properties
31
ONLY agent approved for treatment resistant schizophrenia
clozapine
32
THE MOST EFFECTIVE ANTIPSYCHOTIC
clozapine
33
only agent shown to reduce suicidality in schizophrenia
clozapine
34
M1 and M4 agonist with NO D2 affinity
cobenfy (xanomeline/trospium)
35
for 1st-break patients, consider starting what? why?
second gen antipsychotics EPS sparing, more LAI options, improved adherence
36
how is "treatment-refractory schizophrenia" defined? (this is when clozapine can be used)
when at least 2 trials of other meds (for 6 weeks, 80% adherence) has failed at a therapeutic dose
37
3 dividers in the treatment timeline of schizophrenia
acute stabilization inpatient treatment maintenance
38
considerations for acute stabilization
may need an IM injection admit to inpatient unit prolly. patient is agitated and aggressive
39
in managing agitation what formulations should be offered 1st?
oral 1st IM and oral are equal in efficacy tho
40
in managing agitation, what MUST the regimen include
an antipsychotic
41
true or false in managing agitation, a benzo alone may be sufficient
FALSE - REGIMEN MUST INCLUDE AN ANTIPSYCHOTIC
42
if, after giving the regimen with an antipsychotic, the patient's agitation is getting worse, what must be done
IM agitation meds
43
name the specific medication options for agitation in schizophrenia
B-52 (typicals) benadryl, haloperidol (5mg IM), lorazepam (2mg IM) (instead of haloperidol can use chlorpromazine, loxapine, fluphenazine) atypicals: olanzapine, ziprasidone ORAL SHOULD TYPICALLY BE OFFERED 1ST!
44
in managing agitation, why are benadril, haloperidol, and lorazepam all given?
benadryl decreases any EPS caused by haloperidol lorazepam gives sedation - bc haloperidol does not
45
true or false if we are giving olanzapine as part of the agitation regimen, we do NOT need to give an anticholinergic like benadryl
true olanzapine acts on these receptors already
46
true or false IM olanzapine CANNOT be given with IM benzos
true too sedating
47
if ziprasidone is given as part of the agitation regimen, can we also give a benzo?
yes, and we should
48
what is considered an adequate medication trial
6 weeks with 80% medication adherence
49
true or false many times, 2 antipsychotics have to be used at once
FALSE - minimal benefit (if any) not recommended by any set of guidelines
50
true or false ziprasidone must be taken with a meal
true
51
WHY does clozapine need to be started so low and titrated
seizure and orthostasis risk
52
baseline labs to obtain for clozapine
absolute neutrophil count WBC
53
true or false small bowel obstruction is a BBW for clozapine
false - not a BBW just a concern bc of anticholinergic properties patient should be on a bowel regimen to avoid!
54
which 2 BBW of clozapine are dose dependent
seizures and orthostatic hypotension
55
the previous REMS program for clozapine monitored what
ANC for agranulocytosis
56
2 AE of clozapine
sialorrhea (drooling) GI hypomotility
57
how to treat clozapine-induced sialorrhea (drooling)
typically TOPICAL anticholinergics (atropine/ipratropium) want to avoid systemic anticholinergics like glycopyyrolate bc synergistic effects, but used occassionally
58
true or false glycopyrrolate crosses the BBB
false - does not no CNS anticholinergic effects
59
how to treat/prevent GI hypomotility
osmotic laxatives (PEG 3350/lactulose)
60
smoking and clozapine
reductions in clozapine levels (as few as 6-7 a day) NRT does not cause the metabolism induction tho (combustible marijuana also interacts)
61
****which 3 antipsychotics have the highest risk of metabolic syndrome
clozapine (highest) olanzapine then quetiapine
62
metabolis syndrome is more often caused by the typicals or atypicals
atypicals
63
cut off QT point to stop the antipsychotic
over 500ms
64
2 antipsych that are HIGHEST RISK for prolonged QT. which is lowest risk
highest risk - haloperidol (IV) and ziprasidone lowest risk - abilify
65
high prolactin is due to what
D2 antagonism in the tuberofundibular pathway
66
which antipsych are more likely to cause increased prolactin
high potency first gens (typicals), risperidone, and paliperidone
67
how to manage drug-induced high prolactin
lower the dose d/c and switch to another (preferably dopamine partial agonist) potentially can add on low dose abilify (but not preferred due to minimal benefit)
68
earliest onset of all EPS
dystonia
69
true or false dystonia is usually pretty well managed
true - with anticholinergics
70
akatheisia
restlessness moving around and can't still still. numerous neurotransmitters involved - hard to treat!
71
explain waht tardive dyskinesia is
abnormal involuntary movements due to accumulation of antipsychotic in the cell membrane. hypersensitive to dopamine starts over 3 months-1-2 years after antipsycs start. can be irreversible!
72
which 2 antipsych have the lowest risk of EPS
clozapine and quetipaine
73
which 2 EPS use anticholinergics to manage
parkinsonism and acute dystonia
74
akathisia management
propranolol preferred benzos potentially - but dependence risk (clonazepam preferred bc long acting)
75
true or false anticholinergics are first line for akathisia
FALSE
76
3 treatment for tardive dyskinesia
valbenazine deutetrabenazine tetrabenazine valbenazine and deutetrabenazine are VMAT-2 inhibitors reduce dopamine and improve the dopamine hypersensitivity
77
AE of the VMAT-2 inhibitors for tardive dyskinesia
somnolence anticholinergic properties
78
deutetrabenazine BBW and CI
BBW - depression/suicide CI for suicidality and hepatic disease
79
neuroleptic malignant syndrome symptoms
"lead pipe" rigidity autonomic instability
80
what causes neuroleptic malignant syndrome
excessive dopamine blockade (usually due to overdose. very rare)
81
for which antipsych are you gonna monitor hemoglobin A1C and lipid levels
second gen (atypicals)
82
important thing that must be done before giving LAI
tolerance must be established on an oral dose 1st!
83
true or false oral risperidone can be substituted with paliperidone LAI
true
84
which LAI has REMS program and it thus isn't seen too much (post-injection delirium and sedation)
olanzaoine needs 3 hr monitoring after every injection
85
things to consider when switching antipsychotics
not recommended to abruptly discontinue! cross taper/titrate rebound psychosis and rebound histaminergic/cholinergic action IF switching abruptly - start the new one at equivalent dose. rarely done outpatient due to risk of decompensation
86
most important monitoring parameter for a patient on risperidone
weight and waist size
87
patient is on a long acting injectable. is having more breakthrough symptoms what should be done
increase dose
88