Second Year Final

Question 1

Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by:

Answer 1

Granuloma formation

Question 2

In lungs affected by sarcoidosis there are numerous granulomas and infiltrates of

Answer 2

T-helper lymphocytes

Question 3

Pulmonary tuberculosis can be identified with which laboratory test?

Answer 3

Acid-fast bacilli sputum test

Question 4

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:

Answer 4

Interstitial pneumonia

Question 5

The most common presenting symptom of lung cancer is:

Answer 5

Prolonged coughing and expectoration

Question 6

The most important cause of emphysema is:

Answer 6

Cigarette smoking

Question 7

Potential pathogens located in the upper respiratory tract but that do not cause disease are known as:

Answer 7

Normal flora

Question 8

Which of the following is the primary cause of atelectasis in prema-ture neonates?

Answer 8

Deficiency of surfactant

Question 9

Approximately 90% of all patients with lung cancer present with a history of:

Answer 9

Cigarette smoking

Question 10

Coal-workers lung disease is best classified as:

Answer 10

Pneumoconiosis

Question 11

The most common of all the infections of the respiratory tract is:

Answer 11

Upper respiratory infection

Question 12

Which form of pneumonia is caused by a fungus and is usually seen in patients who have been diagnosed with AIDS?

Answer 12

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Question 13

Bronchiolitis of children is in most instances caused by:

Answer 13

Viruses

Question 14

The major pulmonary complication of congenital alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is:

Answer 14

Emphysema

Question 15

Lung infection that develops in patients who have heart failure and pulmonary edema is called:

Answer 15

Hypostatic pneumonia

Question 16

Acute laryngotracheobronchitis that is most common in children younger than 3 years old and is associated with a barking cough is known as:

Answer 16

Croup

Question 17

Attacks of intrinsic asthma may be precipitated by:

Answer 17

Exercise

Question 18

Pleural tumors are usually associated with:

Answer 18

Pleural effusion

Question 19

Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:

Answer 19

Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) in adult respiratory distress syn-drome (ARDS)

Question 20

Which one of the following lung lesions has been linked to asbestos exposure?

Answer 20

Mesothelioma

Question 21

The most common cause of pseudomembranous colitis is:

Answer 21

Clostridium difficile

Question 22

Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except

Answer 22

Exogenous acids in food

Question 23

Obstructive ileus may be caused by all of the following except

Answer 23

Spinal cord injury

Question 24

All of the following are common symptoms of duodenal ulcer except

Answer 24

Carcinoma

Question 25

Carcinoma of the oral cavity presenting as a white, slightly elevated plaque is clinically described as:

Answer 25

Leukoplakia

Question 26

Genetic predisposition to colon cancer inn inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in:

Answer 26

Familial adenomatous polyposis coli

Question 27

Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:

Answer 27

Achlyorydria

Question 28

Which of the following is a life-threatening condition that occurs in the lower intestinal tract?

Answer 28

Gangrenous appendicitis

Question 29

Which of these diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?

Answer 29

Celiac sprue

Question 30

The changes typical of Crohn's disease are found most often in the:

Answer 30

Terminal ileum

Question 31

Crypt abscesses, serpiginous ulcerations, and inflammatory polyps of the large intestine are typical features of:

Answer 31

Ulcerative colitis

Question 32

Dental caries begin with the formation of:

Answer 32

Bacterial plaques on the surface of the tooth

Question 33

Most pedunculated colonic neoplastic polyps are classified as:

Answer 33

Tubular adenoma

Question 34

The best serologic marker of carcinoma of the colon is:

Answer 34

Carcinoembryonic antigen

Question 35

Approximatley 50% of the intestine develop in the

Answer 35

Rectosigmoid area

Question 36

The most common tumor of the salivary glands is:

Answer 36

Pleomorphic adenoma

Question 37

Most malignant tumors of the esophagus are histologically classified as:

Answer 37

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 38

Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:

Answer 38

Acute pancreatitis

Question 39

Diverticula of the intestine are most often located in the:

Answer 39

Sigmoid colon

Question 40

The most common viral cause of sialadenitis is:

Answer 40

Mumps virus

Question 41

The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?

Answer 41

Carcinoma of the lung

Question 42

Many tumours secrete their own growth factors. This form of stimulation is called:

Answer 42

Autocrine

Question 43

Hodgkins lymphoma is a neoplasm that typically involves the:

Answer 43

Lymph nodes

Question 44

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect of DNA repair enzyme?`

Answer 44

Xeroderma pigmentosum

Question 45

The most important risk factors for breast and colon cancer is

Answer 45

Family history of cancer in those locations

Question 46

Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for malignant tumours originating in the

Answer 46

Liver

Question 47

A lung tumour that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:

Answer 47

Blood vessels

Question 48

Tumours composed of malignant glands of ducts as known as:

Answer 48

Adenocarcinoma

Question 49

Retinoblastoma gene (RB1) is classified as a

Answer 49

Tumour supressor gene

Question 50

Benign protuberant tumours found on the skin, mouth, or larynx are called:

Answer 50

Papillomas

Question 51

The cancer of the chimney sweeps identified in the 18th century in England was related to a component of tar that is chemically classified as:

Answer 51

Polycyclic hydrocarbons

Question 52

Which of the following physical carcinogens is the cause of most skin cancers in humans?

Answer 52

Ultravoilet light

Question 53

Researchers who deal with neoplasia in the human populations and also study the environmental causes of tumors are known as:

Answer 53

Cancer epidemiologists

Question 54

Workers employed in the chemical industry and exposed to high levels of aniline dyes are at increased risk of developing cancer of the:

Answer 54

Urinary bladder

Question 55

Teratomas originate from:

Answer 55

Germ cells of the ovary

Question 56

Carcinoma of the stomach has the highest incidence in:

Answer 56

Japan

Question 57

The most common autosomal dominant disease, which affects more than 3 million Americans, presents with numerous subcutaneous neural sheath tumors and is known as:

Answer 57

Neurofibromatosis type 1

Question 58

Malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells are often called:

Answer 58

Blastomas

Question 59

The most important source of chemical carcinogens in the human habitat is:

Answer 59

Cigarette smoke

Question 60

Human papillomavirus (HPV) has been implicated in the pathogenesis of carcinoma of the:

Answer 60

Cervix of the uterus

Question 61

Myocardial infarction is accompanied by typical biochemical changes. Elevation of which enzyme in the blood occurs first after the occlusion of a coronary artery?

Answer 61

Creatine kinase

Question 62

Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:

Answer 62

Streptococcal throat infection

Question 63

What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?

Answer 63

Interventricular septal defect

Question 64

Which of the following represent iatrogenic heart lesions?

Answer 64

Digitalis toxicity

Question 65

The most common cause of infectious myocarditis in the United States is:

Answer 65

Coxsackie B virus

Question 66

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a vein and artery?

Answer 66

Veins have valves that hinder the backflow of blood.

Question 67

Lymph fluid is different than blood because it contains:

Answer 67

White blood cells only`

Question 68

Atherosclerosis of the brain arteries is the most common cause of:

Answer 68

Cerebrovascular accidents

Question 69

The patient presents with edema in the lower extremities, ascites, dyspnea with activity, and inability to concentrate. You suspect the patient is suffering from:

Answer 69

Congestive heart failure

Question 70

The most common form of arterial hypertension is considered to be:

Answer 70

Essential or idiopathic

Question 71

Septal defects produce a distinct:

Answer 71

High-pitched systolic heart murmur

Question 72

In the diastolic phase, the right side of the heart is filled with:

Answer 72

Peripheral venous blood

Question 73

Which of the following has been implicated in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

Answer 73

Cigarette smoking

Question 74

Intermittent claudication is caused by atherosclerosis of the:

Answer 74

Popliteal artery

Question 75

Infarction of the posterior half of the interventricular septum is caused by an occlusion of the:

Answer 75

Right coronary artery

Question 76

The most common complication of rheumatic endocarditis is:

Answer 76

Bacterial endocarditis

Question 77

Which of the following organs helps regulate arterial blood pressure?

Answer 77

Kidneys

Question 78

Atherosclerotic narrowing of which artery causes hypertension?

Answer 78

Renal artery

Question 79

The medical term for chest pain is:

Answer 79

Angina pectoris

Question 80

Microcytic hypochromic anemia with low hemosiderin stores in the bone marrow responds favorably to treatment with:

Answer 80

Iron

Question 81

Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?

Answer 81

HTLV-1

Question 82

The most common form of leukemia in children younger than 5 years is:

Answer 82

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Question 83

The sickling of red blood cells of patients with sickle cell anemia can be induced in a test tube by exposing the blood to:

Answer 83

An oxygen-binding chemical such as metabisulfite

Question 84

The diagnostic feature of multiple myeloma is best documented by:

Answer 84

Serum electrophoresis

Question 85

When seen by x-ray examination, punched-out bone lesions of the calvaria are typical of:

Answer 85

Multiple myeloma

Question 86

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia occurs typically in association with:

Answer 86

Atrophic gastritis

Question 87

Epstein-Barr virus, a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma, has a predilection for infecting:

Answer 87

B lymphocytes

Question 88

Fibrin split products are typically found in the urine of patients who have:

Answer 88

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Question 89

Aplastic anemia is most often:

Answer 89

Idiopathic

Question 90

Thalassemia minor is a disease involving the gene that encodes:

Answer 90

Globin chains of hemoglobin

Question 91

Which lymphoma is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?

Answer 91

Follicular lymphoma

Question 92

All of the following findings are typical of secondary polycythemia except:

Answer 92

Association with myelodysplastic syndromes

Question 93

The synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X by the liver depends on the presence of which vitamin?

Answer 93

Vitamin K

Question 94

Which leukemia has the best prognosis without chemotherapy?

Answer 94

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Question 95

Sickle cell hemoglobin is routinely identified in the laboratory by:

Answer 95

Electrophoresis

Question 96

Consumption of platelets associated with widespread hemorrhages is a feature of:

Answer 96

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Question 97

Lymphoma's most common symptom is:

Answer 97

Lymph node enlargement

Question 98

Overall, the most common form of leukemia is:

Answer 98

Acute myelogenous leukemia

Question 99

All of the following are hemolytic anemias caused by red blood cell abnormalities (intracorpuscular defects) except:

Answer 99

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia