Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Immunology > Section 1 > Flashcards

Section 1 Flashcards

(52 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

DiGeorge syndrome lymphatic abnormality

A

Underdeveloped paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lymph drainage (top to bottom)

A 
Cervical
Hilar
Mediastinal
Axillary
Celiac
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric
Internal iliac
Para-aortic
Superficial inguinal
Popliteal
  • *Right lymphatic duct drains right body above diaphragm
  • *Thoracic duct drains everything else into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spleen organization

A

White pulp inside rings of red pulp with “barrel hoop” BM

White pulp: contains T cells in periarteriolar lymphatic sheath + B cells in follicles

Marginal zone is between red and white, contains APCs and specialized B cells

Macrophages found nearby remove encapsulated bacteria and IgM –> complement activation –> opsonization of it and killing of encaps bacteria

Vasculature and RBCs in red pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of PAMPs

A

Pattern-associated molecular patterns recognized by PRRs (eg Toll-like receptors):

ex: LPS (G- bacteria), flagellin (bacteria), ssRNA (viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MHC I vs MHC II

A

MHC I encoded by HLA-A, B, C genes

Binds TCR and CD8 receptor - presents endogenous antigens (intracellular material) to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells (delivered to MHCI in RER by TAP)

MHC II encoded by HLA-Ds, presents exogenous antigen to CD4+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HLA A3 mutation

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HLA B27 mutation

A

PAIR:

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
arthritis of IBD
Reactive arthritis/Reiter syndrom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8 mutation

A

Celiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HLA DR2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HLA DR3

A

T1 DM, SLE, Graves, Hashimoto thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HLA DR4

A

RA, T1DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Three ways to induce NK cells to kill

A
  1. Exposure to nonspecific activation signal on target cell
  2. Lack of MHCI on target cell surface
  3. CD16 binds Fc region of antibody-antigen complex, activating NK cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treg surface receptors

A

CD3, CD4, CD25, FOXP3

Make anti-inflamm cytokines (eg IL-10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Th1 (helper T) - activated by ___, activates ____, inhibited by

A
  • activated by IFN-gamma and IL-12
  • activates macrophages and CD8 cells by secreting IFN-gamma
  • inhibited by IL-4 and 10 (from Th2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Th2 (helper T) - activated by ___, activates ___, inhibited by ___

A
  • activated by IL-4
  • secretes IL-4,5,10,13 to recruit eos and promote IgE production to fight parasites
  • inhibited by IFN-gamma (from Th1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T and B cell activation steps

A

APC (dendritic cell) samples and processes antigen –> lymph node –> presents antigen via MHC to activate T cell via TCR and costim (B7 on dendritic cell binds CD28 on T cell) –> T cell activated

Activated Th finds B cell that has picked up the antigen and binds/activates it; costim = CD40 rec (on B cell) and CD40L (on Th) –> turns B on –> class switching, affinity maturation, Ig production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lymph node organization

A

Follicle - B cell (primary = dormant; 2ary = active, pale centers)

Medulla - cords (lymphs and plasma cells) and sinuses (retics and macrophages)

Paracortex (T cells, expands during CMI, contains HEV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IgM

A

Produced in primary (immediate) response to antigen

Doesn’t cross placenta!

Switches isotype in lymph nodes via gene rearrangement –> IgA, IgE, IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IgG

A

Secondary (delayed) response to antigen

Crosses the placenta –> passive immunity

Fixes complement –> opsonization, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thymus-dependent vs -independent antigens

Study These Flashcards
A

Dependent: antigen contains protein component so can be processed and presented to B cells by Th1 –> memory B cells

Independent: antigens lack peptide component (eg LPS) so can’t be presented by MHC to T cells –> weakly or nonimmunogenic

22
Q

Acute phase reactants are made in the ___ and induced by ___

23
Q

Acute-phase reactants

Study These Flashcards
A 
CRP (opsonin)
Ferritin (sequesters iron)
Fibrinogen (coag, endoth repair)
Hepcidin (prevents release of iron bound by Ferritin)
Serum amyloid A

Decreased with inflamm:
Albumin (saves AAs for increased reactants)
Transferrin (less of it –> sequestration of iron)

24
Q

Complement pathways

Study These Flashcards
A

Classic - IgG/M complexes (G- opsonization; starts with C1)
Lectin - mannose and lectin on bacterial surfaces (pathway starts with C1-like complex and C4 –> C3 convertase)
Alternative respond to microbial surfaces (pathway starts with C3)

All end in C3 –> C3b –> C4b2b3b (C5 convertase) which turns C5 into C5b, at which point C6-9 enter and form the membrane attack complex (MAC)

25
Inhibitors of complement on self cells
Delay-accelerating factor (DAF, aka CD55) C1 esterase inhibitor
26
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
Can't inhibit complement, Get Hereditary angioedema ACEi contraindicated
27
C3 deficiency
Increases risk of infection and susceptibility to type 3 hypersensitivity
28
C5-C9 deficiency
Increased susc to recurrent Neisseria bacteremia
29
Cytokines (ILs)
Hot T-bone stEAK IL-1: fever, secreted by macrophages (OC activating, acute inflamm, activates endothelium to express adhesion mcs + induce chemokines to recruit WBCs) IL-2: stimulate T cells (secreted by T cells) IL-3: stimulate bone marrow (secreted by T cells) IL-4: stimulate IgE production (induces differentiation of T cells to Th2, secreted by Th2 cells, enhances class switching to IgE) IL-5: stimulate IgA production +growth of eos, promotes differentiation of B cells, secreted by Th2 cells IL-6: produce aKute-phase proteins and causes fever, secreted by macrophages IL-8: Chemotactic factor for neutrophils, secreted by macrophages IL-10: attenuates immune response, secreted by Th2 (decreased expression of MHC II and Th1 cytokines, inhibits APCs) IL-12: released by macrophages -> T cells differentiate into Th1 and NK cells activated TNF-alpha: activates endothelium --> septic shock IFN-gamma: Th1 cells secrete it to activate macrophages and more NK cells (Th1)
30
Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
Defective enzymes (especially NADPH oxidase) make phagocytic cells unable to generate ROS, which would activate the phagocytic cells --> kill bug Rely on bug to make ROS, so increased susc to bugs that neutralize their ROS (catalase positive bugs)
31
B7 surface protein
on APCs with MHCII, serves as co-stim second signal by binding to CD28 on T cells and thus activating them
32
CD40L
surface protein on Helper T cells (CD4+) that serves as co-stim second signal, activating B cells and macrophages
33
CD21
EBV receptor on B cells
34
CD 19, 20, 21
surface proteins on B cells
35
CD14
macrophage surface protein - directly stimulated by endotoxins/LPS (G-) --> phagocytosis of bug aka TLR4
36
CD16
NK cell surface protein - binds Fc of IgG
37
CD56
unique marker for NK cells (surface protein)
38
CD34
hematopoeitic stem cell surface protein
39
Examples of live attenuated vaccine
MMR, Polio (Sabin), Varicella, Flu (intranasal), Yellow fever
40
Examples of inactivated or killed vaccine
Rabies, Influenza (IM), Polio (Salk), Hep A
41
Type I hypersensitivity
Antigen binds preformed (fast) IgE, which is cross-linked and bound to pre-sensitized mast cells and basophils Binding --> release of vasoactive amines (eg histamine)
42
Type II hypersensitivity
IgM, IgG bind antigen that's fixed to cell and target that cell for destruction by complement, opsonization/phag, or antibody-mediated cell dysfxn Test with Coombs (direct - Ig on RBCs, or indirect - serum Ig that can adhere to RBCs)
43
Type III hypersensitivity
Ag-Ig complexes form, bind complement, and attrack PMNs, which release lysosomal enzymes Serum sickness - complexes deposited in membranes, fix complement there and --> tissue damage within 5-10 days of exposure, fever, urticaria, arthralgia etc Arthus rxn = serum sickness but in skin (antigen = intradermal)
44
Type IV hypersensitivity
Delayed, T cell mediated T cells find antigen and release cytokines --> activate macrophages (no Ig involved)
45
Hypersensitivity disorders
Type I - rhinitis, hay fever, eczema, anaphylaxis (eg bee sting) Type II - AIHA, bullous pemphigoid, Goodpasture, Graves, Guillain-Barre, MG, pemphigus vulgaris, pernicious anemia, RF Type III - Arthus, Serum sickness, SLE, PSGN Type IV - Contact dermatitis, GVHD, MS, PPD
46
Aldesleukin
Recombinant IL2 used to treat RCCA and metastatic melanoma
47
Filgrastim and Sargramostim ("-stim")
Recombinant G(M)-CSF used for bone marrow recovery
48
IFN-alpha
Chronic hepatitis, Kaposi sarcoma, malignant melanoma
49
IFN-beta
MS
50
IFN-gamma (treats what?)
CGD
51
Recombinant cytokines used to treat thrombocytopenia
Romiplostim, eltrombopag, Oprelvekin (IL-11)
52
CD28
costim receptor on T cells, binds to B7 on APC

Immunology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions