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Section 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

An ACE CPT is working with a new client who has had a consistent exercise history. During the interview the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise & loves the way a workout makes her feel. What is this client’s motivation?

A

Autonomous motivation

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2
Q

Which of the following will most strongly influence a client’s current self-efficacy levels?

a) past performance experiences
b) mood state & emotional belief
c) physiological state
d) positive feedback from others

A

Past performance experiences

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3
Q

An ACE CPT receives a call from an individual who is inquiring ab training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive & nervous, stating that she knows she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. What stage of change is the caller in?

A

Contemplation

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4
Q

According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people’s perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?

A

Perceived susceptibility

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5
Q

An ACE CPT is working w/ a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. What would be a good goal for this client?

A

Maintain interest & reduce risk of boredom

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6
Q

What is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?

A

Discuss lapses with the client in advance

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7
Q

What describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?

A

Competence

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8
Q

A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat & is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined & perfected is in what stage of learning?

A

Associative stage

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9
Q

What could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise preparticipation health-screening process for a client?

A

Risk-factor profiling or classification

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10
Q

Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardio events?

A

desired intensity level

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11
Q

What form collects more detailed medical & health info beyond the preparticipation health screening?

A

Lifestyle & health-history questionnaire

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12
Q

What antihypertensive medication increases the excretion of water & electrolytes through the kidneys?

A

diuretics

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13
Q

What is MetS?

A

Metabolic Syndrome; cluster of factors ass. w/ increased risk for coronary heart disease & diabetes - abdominal obesity indicated by a waist circumference >=40 in. in men & 35 in. in women; levels of triglycerides >= 150mg/dL; high density lipprotein levels <40 & 50 mg/Dl in men & women; blood-pressure levels >= 130/85 mmHg; & fasting blood glucose levels >= 100 mg/dL

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14
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

Form of diabetes caused by destruction of insulin producing beta cells in the pancreas, which leads to little or no insulin secretion; generally develops in childhood & requires regular insulin injections

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15
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

Most common form; typically develops in adulthood & is characterized by a reduced sensitivity of the insulin target cells to available insulin, usually ass. w/ obesity

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16
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

a learning approach that considers the manner in which behaviors are influenced by their consequences

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17
Q

What is the definition of locus control?

A

The degree to which people attribute outcomes to internal factors, such as effort & ability, as opposed to external factors such as luck or the actions of others. People who tend to attribute events & outcomes to internal factors are said to have an internal locus of control

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18
Q

What are the 5 stages of behavioral change?

A

1) precontemplation
2) contemplation
3) preparation
4) action
5) maintenance

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19
Q

What are traits & goals of precontemplation?

A

Unaware or under-aware of problem or believe it cannot be solved;
increase awareness of risks of maintaining status quo & benefits of making change; focus on addressing something relevant to them; have them start thinking about change

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20
Q

What are traits & goals of contemplation?

A

aware of problem & weight benefits vs risks of change; have little understanding of how to go about changing
collaboratively explore available options; support cues to action & provide basic structured guidance upon request from client & w/ permission

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21
Q

What are traits & goals of preparation?

A

seeking opportunities to engage in the target behavior;

co-create an action plan w/ frequent positive feedback & reinforcements on their progress

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22
Q

What are the traits & goals of action?

A

desire for opportunities to maintain activities; changing beliefs & attitudes; high risk for lapses or returns to undesirable behavior
establish new behavior as habit through motivation and adherence to the desired behavior

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23
Q

What are the traits & goals of maintenance?

A

empowered but desire a means to maintain adherence; good capability to deal w/ lapses;
maintain support systems; maintain interest & avoid boredom or burnout

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24
Q

What process is exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on the direct route between home & work?

A

stimulus control

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25
The gentleman sitting next o you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Which stage of behavioral change is he most likely in?
Contemplation
26
What are the 6 sources of self-efficacy?
1) past performance experience 2) vicarious experience 3) verbal persuasion 4) physiological state appraisals 5) emotional state & mood appraisals 6) imaginal experiences
27
What is the Lifestyle & health-history questionnaire?
A type of form utilized by PTs & healthcare professionals that gathers an individual's personal medical info, family health history & individual health behaviors
28
What is the associative stage of learning?
the second stage of learning a motor skill, when performers begin to master the fundamentals & can concentrate on skill refinement
29
What is the definition of arthritis?
inflammation of a joint, a state characters by the inflammation of joints
30
What is the cognitive stage of learning?
the first stage of learning a motor skill when performers make many gross errors & have extremely variable performances
31
What is OARS?
Open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, summarizing conversational skills
32
Which of the following behaviors would most likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session? a) looking away form client freq. to prevent staring; sitting w/ good posture & a slight forward lean, b) speaking in a soft, friendly voice; leaning against the chair armrest w/ forearms loosely crossed, c) holding direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a constant smile & enthusiasm throughout the session, d) speaking w/ confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking & hands comfortably resting when listening
d) speaking w/ confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking & hands comfortably resting when listening
33
Which of the following is most effective in helping a client develop program adherence? a) providing the client w/ frequent changes in the program to prevent boredom, b) having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal c) implementing a reward system for each training session d) conducting fitness assessments every week to measure progress
B) having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal
34
What is dyspnea?
Difficult or labored breathing
35
What edema?
swelling resulting from an excessive accumulation of fluid in the tissues of the body
36
What is Acute myocardial infarction?
AMI. a myocardial infarction resulting from acute obstruction of a coronary artery
37
What is myocardial ischemia?
the result of an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply & demand, most often caused by atherosclerotic plaques that narrow & sometimes completely block the blood supply to heart
38
What is myocardial infarction?
MI. An episode where some of the heart's blood supply is severely cut off or restricted, causing the heart muscle to suffer & die from lack of oxygen, commonly known as a heart attack
39
What is orthopnea?
Form of dyspnea in which the person can breathe comfortably only when standing or sitting errect, associated w/ asthma, emphysema, & angina
40
What is the PAR-Q+?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone; a brief, self-administered medical questionnaire recognized as a safe pre-exercise screening measure for low-to moderate(but not vigorous) exercise training
41
What is tachycardia?
elevated heart rate over 100 beats per minute
42
What are the 3 steps of the Exercise Preparticipation Health-Screening Questionnaire for Exercise Professionals?
1) Symptoms 2) Current activity 3) medical conditions
43
What is a diuretic?
medication that produces an increase in urine volume & sodium excretion
44
What a calcium channel blocker?
a class of blood pressure medication that relaxes and widens the blood vessels
45
What are Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
ACE. class of drugs used to treat high blood pressure & other conditions by reducing the activity of angiotensin converting enzyme, which converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
46
What are Angiotensin II receptor antagonists?
class of drugs used to treat high blood pressure & other conditions by preventing angiotensin 2 from binding to angiotensin 2 receptors, thereby allowing blood vessels to dilate
47
True or False. The risk of cardiovascular complications during resistance exercise is low.
True.
48
The pre-participating guidelines from the ACSM are designed to do what?
Remove any unnecessary barriers to become more physically active
49
The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based & was developed with a goal of what?
Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise
50
What is ATP?
Adenosine triphosphate. A high-energy phosphate molecule required to provide energy for cellular function. Produced both aerobically & anaerobically & stored in body.
51
What makes up the central nervous system?
the brain & spinal cord
52
What is diastolic blood pressure?
DBP. the pressure in the arteries during the relaxation phase(diastole) of the cardiac cycle; indicative of total peripheral resistance
53
What is hyperthemia?
Abnormally high body temperature
54
What is an LDL?
Low-density lipoprotein. A lipoprotein that transports cholesterol & triglycerides from the liver & small intestine to cells & tissues; high levels may cause atherosclerosis
55
What are the 6 classes of nutrients?
1) water 2) minerals 3) vitamins 4) fats 5) carbs 6) proteins
56
What is RDA?
Recommended Dietary Allowance. The levels of intake of essential nutrients that, on the basis of scientific knowledge, are judged by the Food & Nutrient Board to be adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons
57
What is a saturated fat?
A fatty acid that contains no double bonds between carbon atoms; typically solid at room temp & very stable
58
What is systolic blood pressure?
SBP. the pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls during ventricular contraction.
59
What is trans fat?
an unsaturated fatty acid that is converted into a saturated fat to increase the shelf life of some products
60
What is fat oxidation?
the metabolic pathway that, in the presence of oxygen, breaks down fatty acids to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
61
What are the 5 Key Guidelines w/in the Dietary Guidelines?
1) Follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan 2) focus on variety, nutrient density & amt 3) Limit calories from added sugars & saturated fats & reduce sodium intake 4) shift to healthier food & beverage choices 5) support healthy eating patterns for all
62
On the day of an event, an athlete should aim to eat a meal how many hours before the event?
4-6 hours before the event
63
Refueling should begin within how many minutes after exercise?
30 minutes after exercise
64
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every how many years?
5
65
Whole grains contain how many grams of whole grain per 1 ounce-equivalent?
16 grams
66
How many calories are in a gram of fat?
9
67
What % of calories should adults consume from fat?
20-35% of total calories
68
What % of calories should adults consume from protein?
10-35% of total calories
69
What are the dietary recommendations for added sugars?
no more than 10% of total calories or a total of 50g/day on a 2K calorie diet
70
What % of calories should adults consume from carbs?
45-65% of total calories
71
What is the recommendation for dietary fiber?
14g of dietary fiber for every 1K calories consumed
72
How many calories does 1 gram of protein have?
4 calories
73
how many calories does 1 gram of carbs have?
4 calories
74
What is the recommended fluid intake before exercising?
Drink 5-7mL/kg (0.08-0.11oz/lb) at least 4 hrs before exercise (12-17 ounces for a 154lb individual)
75
What is the recommended fluid intake during exercise?
Monitor individual body weight changes during exercise to estimate sweat. Composition of flued should include 20-30mEq/L of sodium, 2-5 mEq/L of potassium & 5-10% of carbs
76
What is the recommended fluid intake after exercise?
Consumption of normal meals & beverages will restore euhydration if rapid recovery is needed, drink 1.5L/kg (23 ounces/lb) of body weight lost
77
An ACE CPT client state's she is interested in using an OTC diuretic for rapid weight loss. What is the most appropriate response?
Explain the dangers of using the product.
78
What is defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
dyspnea
79
During an initial exercise session, a client presents w/ symptoms of dizziness & mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. What is the most appropriate action for the ACE CPT?
Discontinue exercise & have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance
80
What is the ideal healthy eating pattern?
A diet that includes a variety of veggies, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy & protein-rich foods
81
What is the goal of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?
To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended
82
What eating plan is recommended to optimize health & decrease blood pressure in individuals w/ hypertension?
DASH eating plan
83
A nutrient fact label states that one serving contains 3,300mg of sodium. What is the category of this product's sodium content?
High
84
What are benefits of the DASH plan?
1- lower SBP by 5-6 mmHg | 2- lower DBP by 3 mmHg

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