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NASM > Section #4 > Flashcards

Section #4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which screening tool is used to evaluate the benefits and risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?

A

Health Risk Assessment (HRA)

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2
Q

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process?

A

Desired Exercise Intensity

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3
Q

Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).

A

False

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4
Q

What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?

A

Thermoregulation

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5
Q

Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?

A

The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

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6
Q

What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion?

A

Anthropometry

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7
Q

Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height?

A

BMI (Body Mass Index)

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8
Q

Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?

A

Archimedes’ Principle

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9
Q

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?

A

VO2max

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10
Q

Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?

A

Mitochondrion

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11
Q

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?

A

Body Composition

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12
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?

A

.85 (Waist/Hip)

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13
Q

What is the definition of anthropometry?

A

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

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14
Q

What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

A

12 inches

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15
Q

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?

A

Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

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16
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

A

Triceps, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac

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17
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?

A

Ventilatory Threshold (VT1) Test

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18
Q

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?

A

Peripheral Vasodilation

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19
Q

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team?

A

The 1.5 Mile Run Test

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20
Q

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

A

Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

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21
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27?

A

Overweight (25 - 29)

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22
Q

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon?

A

Archimedes’ Principle

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23
Q

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

A

Reliability

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24
Q

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?

A

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

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25
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?

A

Flexibility

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26
Q

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

A

Validity

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27
Q

What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test?

A

Individual is tired from the test.

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28
Q

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?

A

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

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29
Q

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?

A

Body Composition

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30
Q

Where is it most common to take an individual’s circumference measurement to assess health risk?

A

Waist

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31
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?

A

Brachial Artery

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32
Q

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

A

Reliability

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33
Q

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol?

A

When the individual responds with “no” when asked, “Can you speak competently?”

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34
Q

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?

A

Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

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35
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?

A

Underweight

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36
Q

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

A

4

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37
Q

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall?

A

Elevated

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38
Q

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?

A

Individuals with performance goals

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39
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

A

YMCA 3-minute step test

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40
Q

Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?

A

Muscle Imbalance

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41
Q

Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?

A

Static Postural Assessment

42
Q

Posture, Movement, and Performance Assessments
KNOWLEDGE CHECK 12.3
What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?

A

Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA)

43
Q

What does the push-up test measure?

A

Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

44
Q

Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?

A

Squat strength assessment

45
Q

Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?

A

Lower Extremity Functional Test (LEFT)

46
Q

Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?

A

Static postural and overhead squat assessments

47
Q

TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.

A

True

48
Q

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?

A

Performance Assessment

49
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

A

Upper Trapezius

50
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?

A

Dynamic Posture Assessment

51
Q

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow?

A

Static Posture

52
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus Maximus

53
Q

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

A

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

54
Q

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

A

Femur parallel to ground

55
Q

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

A

40 Yard Dash

56
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

A

Abdominals

57
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

A

Hip Flexors and Lumbar Extensors

58
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?

A

Vertical Jump

59
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?

A

Middle and Lower Trapezius

60
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears?

A

Shoulder Elevation

61
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

62
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

A

Upper Trapezius

63
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities?

A

Squat

64
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus Maximus

65
Q

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?

A

Static Posture Assessment

66
Q

How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

A

Every Month

67
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

Gluteus Maximus

68
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

A

Gluteus Maximas and Medius

69
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip Flexors

70
Q

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?

A

Performance Assessments

71
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Gluteus Maximus

72
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders?

A

Upper Crossed Syndrome

73
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip Flexors

74
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

A

Lower Trapezius

75
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

Gluteus Maximus and Medius

76
Q

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

A

Forward Head and Protracted Shoulders

77
Q

What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?

A

Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring

78
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Hip Flexor Complex

79
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

A

Anterior and Posterior Tibialis

80
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?

A

Vertical Jump

81
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

TFL and Adductor Complex

82
Q

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?

A

A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

83
Q

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be?

A

80 Beats Per Minute

83
Q

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be?

A

80 Beats Per Minute

84
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

A

Pro Shuttle

85
Q

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school’s rugby team?

A

The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

86
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

87
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?

A

.85

Waist/Hip

88
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

A

Adductor Complex

89
Q

Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement?

A

Standing Push Movement

90
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

A

Bench Press Strength Assessment

91
Q

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients?

A

Overhead Squat

92
Q

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?

A

Single - Leg Squat

93
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?

A

LEFT

94
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

A

Gluteus maximus and medius

95
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?

A

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome

96
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

A

YMCA 3 minute step test

97
Q

How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?

A

It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.

98
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

A

Abdominals

99
Q

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?

A

Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

NASM (4 decks)

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