Section #5 Flashcards
(359 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance?
A
Integrated Training
2
Q
What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach?
A
Progressive Overload
3
Q
What is the number one cause of death around the world?
A
Heart Disease
4
Q
Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?
A
Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance
5
Q
What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest?
A
Superset
6
Q
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
A
Muscle Hypertrophy
7
Q
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
A
Resistance Training
8
Q
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
A
Heart Disease
9
Q
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
A
Quickness
10
Q
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
A
Nerves
11
Q
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
A
Speed
12
Q
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
A
6,750 Pounds
13
Q
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
A
Growth and Volume
14
Q
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
A
Self - Myofasical Techniques
15
Q
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
A
Muscle Imbalance
16
Q
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
A
Phase 2 - Strength Endurance
17
Q
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
A
Stabilization Endurance Strength Endurance Muscular Development Maximal Strength Power
18
Q
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
A
Cleaning
19
Q
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
A
Resistance Training
20
Q
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
A
Squatting
21
Q
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
A
Stretch - Shortening Cycle
22
Q
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
A
Cross - Country Runner
23
Q
Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?
A
Decreased agility - based outcomes in athletes.
24
Q
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system?
A
Stabilization Endurance Training
25
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated Training
26
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Stabilization Endurance Training
27
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand Push - Ups
28
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous Injury
29
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
30
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Phase 3 - Muscular Development
31
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Training
32
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline Value
33
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagital
34
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Phase 4 - Maximal Strength Training
35
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
Movement Quality
36
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
37
Which portion of a client’s exercise program should be designed first?
Flexibility Portion
38
What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?
Synergists Dominance
39
Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress?
Davis's Law
40
With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?
Tissue Trauma and Inflammation
41
TRUE OR FALSE? The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local myofascia by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restriction and adhesions.
True
42
What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity?
Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness
43
What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held?
30 seconds
44
TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.
False
45
What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?
Active Stretching
46
What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?
Reciprocal Inhibition
47
What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?
Self Myofascial Techniques and Static Stretching
48
What is the goal of dynamic stretching?
To prepare the body for more intense activity
49
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted Hurdler's Stretch for Hamstrings
50
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
51
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility Exercises
52
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
53
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
54
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR and Static Stretching
55
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
56
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer & Bleeding Disorders
57
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle Static Stretching
58
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
59
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
60
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic Dominance
61
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?
Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
62
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
63
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural Distortions
64
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Pattern Overload
65
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered Movement Patterns
66
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
67
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal Inhibition
68
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
69
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
70
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
71
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
72
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
73
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
74
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
75
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Any medical precautions or contraindications
76
What principle describes the nervous system’s ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?
Neuromuscular Efficiency
77
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
78
What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased?
Rate of Progression
79
The five components of fitness include which of the following?
```
Cardiorespiratory Fitness
Muscular Strength
Muscular Endurance
Flexibility
Body Composition
```
80
What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
81
Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?
Stage 1 & 2
82
What does the term midpoint refer to?
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
83
TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.
True
84
Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?
Knee Valgus
85
Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?
Type 1
86
What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques?
Bracing
87
TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended.
False
88
What is the goal of core training?
To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power
89
What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?
Poor Activation of the Local Core
90
TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.
False
91
Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?
Kneeling Pallof Press
92
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In A Neutral Position
93
Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsosas
94
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
95
What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
Fear of pain from movement.
96
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize Vertebral Segments
97
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
98
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased lordosis (Lordotic)
99
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Sternocleidomastoid (large neck muscles)
100
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric Action
101
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side Plank
102
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
103
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Latissimus Dorsi
104
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
```
Rotatores
Multifidus
Traverse Abdominus
Diaphragm
Pelvic Floor Musculature
Quadrates Lumborum
```
105
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip Extension
106
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
107
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core Strength
108
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and Lumbar (1 &3)
109
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector Spinae
110
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex LPHC
111
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Transverse Abdominis
112
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through the spine
113
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
Concentric Action
114
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Posterior Pelvic Tilt
115
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Medicine Ball Woodchop Throw
116
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Instability training using a stability ball
117
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
118
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
119
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and Extend the Spine
120
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side Plank
121
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Functional Scoliosis (Nonstructural)
122
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Diaphragm
123
What does EMG stand for?
Electromyography
124
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
125
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local Muscles
126
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector Spinae
127
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Depressed and slightly retracted.
128
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Thoracic & Sacral
129
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector Spinae
130
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
131
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Transverse abdominis
132
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased Lordosis
133
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
134
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through the spine
135
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble Board
136
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back Extensions
137
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Anterior Pelvic Tilt
138
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Drawing - in Manuever
139
What term refers to the interaction between the body’s processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body’s motor response to that information?
Sensorimotor Function
140
What does the term perturbation mean?
An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force
141
What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?
Proprioceptively enriched environment
142
What is the main goal of balance training?
To continually increase the client’s awareness of their limit of stability
143
Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?
Single - Leg Lift & Chop
144
What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?
Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position
145
When performing the single-leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease stress to the spine and enhance control of the core?
Rotate thru your hips and not the spine.
146
If a client cannot touch their foot when performing the single-leg squat touchdown, where should the personal trainer instruct them to reach first?
Knee, Shin, Foot
147
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Static Balance
148
What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Technique
149
What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults?
The Environment
150
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
151
Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program?
BOSU Ball
152
Which three senses are involved in the balance system?
Visual, Vestibular, Somatosensory System
153
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
154
Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body?
Midpoint of the body.
155
The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics?
ACL
156
It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling.
Older Adults
157
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 Mins
158
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
159
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.
Proprioceptively enriched
160
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
Ankle Sprains
161
Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions?
Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions
162
How could the personal trainer make the “single-leg throw and catch” balance exercise more difficult for the client?
Increasing the Velocity of each Throw
163
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?
Vestibular System
164
In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.)
Center of Gravity
165
What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?
Has been cleared by a medical professional.
166
Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?
Rate of Force Production
167
TRUE OR FALSE? As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills.
True
168
When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following?
Optimal Landing Mechanics
169
When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client’s knees be positioned upon landing?
In line with the toes.
170
When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following?
Step Off and drop from the prescribed height.
171
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?
Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
172
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Stretch-shortening cycle
173
What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise?
Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
174
According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Neuromuscular Stabilization & Core Stabilization
175
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of Force Production
176
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Amortization
177
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?
Ground Reaction Force
178
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
179
Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise?
Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.
180
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Adding a stabilization pause between reps.
181
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
182
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
183
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?
The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
184
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?
Multiplanar jump with stabilization
185
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
Amorization
186
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?
60 - 120 secs
187
What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?
It causes stress to the connective tissues.
188
TRUE OR FALSE? Components of a speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) program can significantly improve the physical health profile of apparently healthy sedentary adults and those with medical or health limitations.
True
189
Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a Certified Personal Trainer to implement over the next few months?
Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises
190
When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin?
In the middle of the 4 cones.
191
When performing the T-Drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?
Backpedal
192
What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients?
1 - 2 Sessions
193
Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?
Hip Abduction
194
What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?
Quickness
195
What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
Stride Rate
196
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
0 - 60 Seconds
197
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?
Plantar Flexion, Hip Extension, Knee Extension
198
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Osteopenia
199
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
200
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion?
Dorsiflexion, Hip Flexion, Knee Flexion
201
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change of Direction
202
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
10%
203
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride Rate & Length
204
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
Speed
205
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small Circuits
206
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?
Lead Leg
207
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout?
6-10 Drills
208
What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus?
Quickness
209
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
4 - 8 Drills
210
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0 - 90 seconds
211
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
Proprioception
212
How many repetitions of each SAQ drill is appropriate for youth athletes?
3 - 5 Reps
213
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
0 - 15 seconds
214
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Stride Length
215
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?
Quickness Training
216
Which of the following is a component of agility training?
Deceleration
217
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
4 - 6 Drills
218
Which term refers to the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress?
General Adaptation Syndrome
219
Which term refers to a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates?
Motor Unit
220
Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming?
They specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals.
221
What is calculated by totaling the number of repetitions performed in a set during a training session, then multiplying it by the resistance used?
Training Volume
222
What type of resistance training alternates heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement?
Complex Training
223
What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle?
Post Activation Potentiation
224
TRUE OR FALSE? The Certified Personal Trainer is encouraged to spot at the client’s elbows instead of the wrists when using dumbbells (e.g., in a dumbbell shoulder press) to provide better support for the lifter.
False
225
Which of the following is a process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability?
Valsalva Maneuver
226
Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes?
Stabilization Focused Exercises
227
TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the “ball squat, curl to press” exercise, the client should lean back into the ball throughout the squatting motion, relying on it for support.
False
228
Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?
Single Leg Squat To Row
229
Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press?
Shoulder Shrug
230
TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight plates under the feet when performing a barbell bench press exercise is never acceptable.
False
231
When performing a ball cobra exercise, which of the following instructions should the Certified Personal Trainer provide to the client?
Externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing up toward the sky
232
When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement?
Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades
233
TRUE OR FALSE? Performing shoulder external rotation with tubing helps strengthen the subscapularis.
False
234
Which of the following exercises consists of these three parts: a Y, T, then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)?
Ball Combo 1
235
When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl, which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the bicep’s musculature?
Keeping the scapulae retracted
236
TRUE OR FALSE? To decrease stress on the elbows when performing a standing barbell curl, the client should use a very wide grip.
False
237
TRUE OR FALSE? Using a rope when performing cable pushdowns may help decrease the risk of elbow pain.
True
238
Which of the following best describes proper hand position when performing a close grip bench press?
Slightly inside shoulder width apart
239
Which of the following exercises helps strengthen the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles?
Calf Raises
240
TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the dumbbell squat exercise, the client’s feet should be positioned hip-width apart.
False
241
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?
Stabilization Focused
242
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
243
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor
244
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Step - Ups
245
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscle Hypertrophy
246
What is the Valsalva maneuver?
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
247
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
248
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
249
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed?
2 Seconds
250
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close Grip Bench Press
251
What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
252
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
Calf Raise
253
What is defined as an individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage?
Training Intensity
254
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Subscapularis
255
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
256
During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Squat, curl to two-arm press
257
If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?
SAID Principle
258
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, Knee, Hips, Shoulders, Head
259
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Thumbs facing up
260
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Pyramid System
261
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
262
What is the principle of specificity?
A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
263
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?
No more than 10% of body weight
264
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.
265
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?
Muscular Endurance
266
What is the peripheral heart action system?
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
267
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?
Middle Deltoid
268
What is a drop set?
An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
269
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
270
What equation represents power?
Force x Velocity
271
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
272
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Complex Training
273
A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Wrists
274
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
275
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 Minutes
276
How is osteopenia best described?
The loss of bone density related to the aging process.
277
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 Sets
278
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Stretch-shortening cycle
279
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
280
How is Fartlek training best described?
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
281
Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Somatosensory system
282
How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined?
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption
283
What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?
Keeping the knees in line with the toes
284
Speed is the product of what two variables?
Stride Rate and Stride Length
285
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
286
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
287
What is defined as the body’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
288
You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
4-8 Drills Per Workout
289
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?
10%
290
Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
291
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?
Small Jumps
292
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume & Progression
293
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core Strength
294
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?
Dual Foot Drills
295
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?
Eccentric
296
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
297
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?
Rounded Shoulders and forward head posture
298
Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)?
Shoulder/Military Press
299
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw
300
What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?
The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional
301
What are ground reaction forces?
Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
302
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Stretch - Shortening Cycle
303
Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training?
Injury History
304
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Strength Endurance
305
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
306
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi - Dynamic Balance
307
What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?
Thumbs Pointing Up
308
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
309
Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?
Perturbation
310
According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
Rehabilitation
311
How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined?
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
312
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back Extension
313
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
Arthrokinematics
314
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local Core Muscles
315
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
Change of Direction
316
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?
Osteopenia
317
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Reciprocal Inhibition
318
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
319
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
320
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
Ratings of perceived exertion
321
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
3.5 mL/kg/min
322
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric Action
323
What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client?
Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history
324
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?
325
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
15 to 60 seconds
326
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?
Perturbation
327
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
Develop an appropriate aerobic base
328
What does EMG stand for?
Electromyography
329
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?
Motor Unit Recruitment
330
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
Power
331
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
332
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?
Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
333
What is the general adaptation syndrome?
The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.
334
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?
Self Efficacy
335
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
336
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
As far as can be controlled without compensating
337
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?
It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
338
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical & Lumbar
339
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
340
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
Stride Length
341
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?
Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
342
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single Leg Squat
343
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
344
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
345
Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise?
Barbell Bench Press
346
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3 - 5 Reps
347
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal Plane
348
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Quickness
349
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?
Medicine Ball Soccer Throw
350
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Intensity
351
Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Plow Pose
352
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered Bone Shape thru the Spine
353
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?
Jump
354
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Visual System
355
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize Vertebral Segments
356
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?
Decreased Rest Periods
357
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
358
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
359
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement Assessments
