SEE best study guide ever - RESP Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

what does RLN innervate sensory?

A

below vc to trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does external SLN innervate motor?

A

cricothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

stimulation of ____ = laryngospasm

A

SLN motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

internal SLN sensory area?

A

above vocal cords and cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the function of the posterior cricoarytenoid?

A

abduction - please come apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the function of the lateral cricoarytenoid?

A

adduction - lets close airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of the cricothyroid?

A

tenses vocal cords

CT = cords tense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the function of the thyroarytenoid?

A

relaxes cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the only intrinsic muscle that receives motor innervation from the SLN?

A

cricothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what nerve provides the sensory innervation for pharynx?

A

glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what nerve provides the motor innervation for the pharynx?

A

spinal accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which laryngeal cartilages are paired?

A

cuneiform, corniculate, arytenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which laryngeal cartilages are unpaired?

A

epiglottis, thyroid, cricoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which laryngeal cartilage is the only one that has a complete cartilaginous ring?

A

cricoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where does the transtracheal block puncture?

A

cricothyroid membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve - what does it mean when the curve is shifted to the right?

A

right = released
O2 is unloaded from blood

hemoglobin has less affinity for O2 and releases it, so saturation will be less for a given PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve - what causes a right shift

A
inc PCO2, H+, acidosis (so dec pH), 
inc temp (think inc metabolism), inc 2,3 DIPG, sickle cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve - what does it mean when the curve is shifted left?

A

left shift increases O2 affinity.
left = love = locked

hemoglobin has a higher affinity for O2, binds O2, so saturation will be higher for a given PO2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a normal P50?

A

26-27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve - what causes a left shift?

A

dec PCO2, dec H+, inc ph(alkalosis), dec temp, inc CO poisoning (carboxyhemoglobin), fetal hemoglobin, methemoglobin, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the bohr effect

A

an increase in H+ decreases Hb’s affinity for O2 (right shift).

so this increases the delivery of O2 to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the hb p50 point?

A

Sao2% = 50, PaO2 = 27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

haldane effect

A

Hb carries more CO2.
love-locked-left
this allows hemoglobin to load more carbon dioxide at the tissue level and release more CO2 in the lungs

this affects the CO2 dissociation curve not the oxy

24
Q

hamburger shift

A

when the RBC releases HCO3 into the plasma, CL- is transported into the RBC to maintain electroneutrality

25
what is the formula for O2 content in blood? hint: it involves O2 carried on Hb and dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (SO2 x Hb x 1.31) + (PO2 x 0.003)
26
what is the formula for O2 content in blood? hint: it involves O2 carried on Hb and dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (SO2 x Hb x 1.31) + (PO2 x 0.003)
27
what has a stronger affinity for CO2 - carbon monoxide or nitric oxide?
nitric oxide - it binds 200k times more readily than o2 carbon monoxide binds 250x more than o2
28
PRBC used for transfusions are stored ___, have ____ 23DPG, so Hb in stored blood initially shows a ___ shift
cold, diminished, left
29
what are the 4 ways CO2 is carried in the blood
physically dissolved (5%), carbonic acid(<1%), bicarb ion (90%), protein bound (5%)
30
T/F Venous blood transports more CO2 than arterial blood
TRUE
31
what is the pacemaker of respiration
dorsal resp group. | it controls inspiration and resp rhythm.
32
DRG receives signals from what 3 sources?
peripheral chemoreceptors, baroreceptors, lung receptors
33
do geriatric lungs have increased or decreased compliance ---- what about peds?
increased geri decreased peds d/t dec # alveoli
34
Dead space = 0 or infinity? | dead space = good perfusion or good ventilation?
infinity well vent, poor perfusion think: "dead space = infinite amt of breathing"
35
``` shunt = 0 or infinity? shunt = good perfusion or good ventilation? ```
0 well perfuse, poor vent think: shunt = 0 breathing
36
how does the lateral position affect v/q mismatch?
when a patient is anesthetized, ventilation is better in the nondependent lung and perfusion is better in the dependent lung
37
For tx of hypoxemia during OLV, add __ of ___ to the nondependent lung, and ___ of ___ to the dependent lung
10 CPAP nondependent | 5 PEEP dependent
38
what 2 spirometry components make up FRC
ERV + RV (35ml/kg)
39
what tests can measure FRC?
nitrogen washout, helium wash in, or body plethysmography
40
what is the best test to assess early stages of COPD?
FEV25-75
41
what are the 2 high risk PFT results
FEV <2L (normal is 5, should be able to get 80% of that which is 4) and FEV/FVC <0.5 (normal is 80%)
42
what is a normal FEV1
4L
43
what is a normal FVC
5L male, 3.7F
44
how do you expect PFT's to change on someone with restrictive disease?
dec FEV1, dec FVC, normal to high FEV1/FVC
45
how do you expect PFT's to change on someone with obstructive disease?
dec FEV1, normal FVC, dec FEV1/FVC
46
T/F Hyperbaric O2 is used to treat CO2 poisoning, gas embolism, anaerobic infections (gas gangrene) , and decompression sickness (bends)
TRUE
47
carbonic anhydrase is responsible for converting ___ to ___
CO2 to HCO3
48
what do central chemoreceptors respond to?
H+ in the CSF
49
what do peripheral chemoreceptors respond to?
inc H+. inc CO2, and dec PaO2
50
what is the 3-3-2 rule?
3 finger mouth opening(inter incisor distance), 3 thyromental, 2 floor mouth to top of thyroid
51
how does thyromental distance predict intubation
want at least 3 fingers which is 6cm. >7 is an easy tube, <6 or >9 is diff
52
Mendelsons syndrome: Ph = ___, volume = ___
ph <2.5, gastric volume >25
53
what are the risk factors for laygospasm
age >1, GERD, URI <2weeks, hypervent, hypocap.
54
what is the succs dose to break spasm in an adult? | how about in a child/neonate?
adult/child 1mg/kg | neonate/infant 2mg/kg IV
55
a child <5y should receive atropine @ ___mg/kg with succs to prevent bradycardia
.02
56
lung zones:
zone 1 = PA > Pa > PV zone 2 = Pa > PA > PV zone 3 = Pa > PV > PA