Seizure and Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Epilepsy

A

The condition of recurrent unprovoked seizures

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2
Q

Things that may provoke seizures in non-epileptic patients

A

Acute hypoglycemia, alcohol withdrawal, high fever, and medication or drug toxicity

These are all acute, reversible factors

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3
Q

Things that may cause seizures, but do not technically “provoke” them

A

Brain tumors, prior stroke, prior head trauma, prior CNS infection, and cortical malformations

These entities are neither acute nor reversible, and so recurrent seizures due to any of these causes are considered unprovoked. Therefore, patients with recurrent seizures due to brain tumors, prior trauma, prior stroke, prior neurosurgery, prior CNS infection, or any other irreversible underlying seizure focus are considered to have epilepsy and should be treated as such.

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4
Q

A patient with seizure(s) will generally present for evaluation in one of three scenarios:

A
  1. After a first seizure or other spell
  2. With a history of seizures (or other type of spell)
  3. Actively seizing
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5
Q

Whenever possible when trying to gather history on a suspected seizure, ___ should be obtained.

A

Whenever possible when trying to gather history on a suspected seizure, a clear description of the event by witnesses should be obtained.

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6
Q

Seizures are broadly categorized as ___ or ___.

A

Seizures are broadly categorized as generalized seizures or focal seizures.

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7
Q

Generalized seizures

A
  • Characterized by impaired consciousness and bilateral motor manifestations if motor manifestations are present
  • Self-injury, bladder/bowel incontinence, and altered level of consciousness commonly occur with generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
  • A postictal state is common after a generalized seizure
    • If a patient is found comatose or confused without clear cause and recovers without specific intervention, unwitnessed seizure with a subsequent postictal state should be considered in the differential diagnosis.
  • Some generalized seizures produce altered consciousness without motor features, such as absence seizures.
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8
Q

Motor manifestations of seizures

A

Motor manifestations can be:

  • tonic (stiffening of involved body parts),
  • clonic (rhythmic movements),
  • tonic-clonic (mix of tonic and clonic),
  • myoclonic (brief jerks),
  • atonic (loss of postural tone causing drop attacks).
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9
Q

Postictal state

A

Characterized by altered consciousness, which can range from confusion to coma depending on the severity and length of preceding seizure activity

In a patient with altered level of consciousness following seizure(s), continued nonconvulsive seizures may be occurring and must be distinguished from a postictal state. EEG is essential to making this distinction, as there may be barely visible motor activity or no motor activity at all.

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10
Q

Absence seizures

A

Absence seizures are characterized by brief periods of altered awareness in which patients are unable to communicate or engage with the environment, but have no motor features.

Absence seizures are more common in children.

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11
Q

Focal (Partial) Seizures

A
  • Focal seizures can occur with impairment of consciousness (complex partial seizures) or with consciousness preserved (simple partial seizures)
  • The clinical manifestations depend on the origin of seizure activity within the brain and can include focal motor symptoms (tonic-clonic movements, posturing, head and/or eye deviation), focal sensory symptoms (paresthesias that tend to spread over seconds), visual, auditory, or olfactory hallucinations, and/or psychic phenomena such as déjà vu (a sense of already having experienced a new place or event), jamais vu (a sense of never having been in a familiar place or situation), or a sense of fear.
  • A seizure may begin with focal manifestations and secondarily generalize
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12
Q

Post-ictal weakness / Todd’s paralysis

A
  • May occur in the limb(s) affected by seizure activity
  • If a seizure is unwitnessed and a patient is found with focal postictal weakness, the patient may be initially thought to have had a stroke. Therefore, seizure with subsequent postictal paralysis should be considered in the differential diagnosis of acute stroke and transient ischemic attack (TIA) and vice versa.
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13
Q

Aspects of history that suggest fall/loss of consciousness is more likely seizure than syncopy

A
  • Tonic clonic activity pre-, during, or post-fall
  • Tongue biting
  • Fecal or urinary incontinence
  • Prolonged unconsciousness before awakening
  • Prolonged confusion or weakness post-fall
  • Preceding aura (foul odor, sense of déjà vu)
  • No memory of just before the fall
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14
Q

Seizures generally cause ___ while TIAs generally cause ___.

A

Seizures generally cause “positive” symptoms (i.e., abnormal movements, paresthesias, visual phenomena) while TIAs generally cause “negative” symptoms (i.e., weakness, loss of sensation, visual field deficits).

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15
Q

Distinguishing seizure from a migraine with aura

A
  • Positive symptoms of migraine auras tend to evolve/spread over minutes, whereas those of seizures generally evolve/spread over seconds.
  • Migraine does not lead to alterations in level of consciousness, although it can cause mild confusion in some patients
  • A headache is a common (but not universal) accompaniment to migraine with aura, but a headache can also be a component of a seizure aura or postictal state.
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16
Q

Distinguishing Seizures From Psychogenic Nonepileptic Spells (Pseudoseizures)

A
  • Psychogenic nonepileptic spells (also called pseudoseizures) are generally a manifestation of an underlying psychiatric condition (e.g., conversion disorder)
  • Clinical features suggestive of psychogenic nonepileptic spells rather than epileptic seizures include:
    • prolonged bilateral movements with preservation of consciousness
    • forced eye closure during episodes (eyes are generally open during seizures)
    • episodes provoked by stress or other emotional circumstances
    • continued events in spite of multiple antiepileptic medications (though this can also occur in refractory epilepsy)
  • Remember, patients with epilepsy can have both seizures and nonepileptic spells, and patients with underlying psychiatric conditions can have seizures
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17
Q

Five categories of EEG findings

A
  • Normal variants not associated with epilepsy but of unclear significance (e.g., small sharp spikes, wicket spikes)
  • Findings associated with focal or global cerebral pathology but not necessarily with epilepsy (e.g., focal or generalized slowing, triphasic waves, frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity [FIRDA])
  • Findings indicating cortical irritability and risk of seizures (e.g., spike-wave discharges, periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges [PLEDs], generalized periodic discharges [GPEDs]).
  • Seizures
  • Artifact, which can be due to:
    • Patient factors (e.g., blinking, movements)
    • Technical factors (e.g., electrocardiographic [ECG] artifact, interference from electrical hospital equipment, issues with EEG leads)
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18
Q

Sensitivity of a routine EEG in detecting epileptiform activity

A
  • Only 50%
  • BUT, can be improved by:
    • performing the EEG in the sleep-deprived state
    • performing EEG within 24 hours of a seizure event
    • repeating EEG on multiple occasions
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19
Q

Notes on epileptiform activity on EEG

A
  • A small proportion of the population may have EEG abnormalities of no clinical significance
  • A number of medications can also cause EEG abnormalities
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20
Q

The absence of epileptiform discharges ___ and their presence ___

A

The absence of epileptiform discharges does not “exclude” epilepsy and their presence does not “confirm” epilepsy

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21
Q

Workup of a patient’s first seizure

A
  • Medication/drug history
  • Labs (electrolytes, tox screen)
  • Neuroimaging (preferably MRI w/ contrast, possibly also arterial/venous imaging)
  • Lumbar puncture if CNS disease suspected from clinical picture
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22
Q

Epilepsy-protocol MRI

A
  • Includes coronal views of the hippocampi to look for asymmetries in size or signal characteristics on T2/FLAIR that may suggest an underlying focus for temporal lobe epilepsy (mesial temporal sclerosis)
  • Seizures can produce transient MRI abnormalities, most commonly diffusion restriction (on DWI/ADC sequences) and/or T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the cortex, splenium, and/or thalamus
    • Diffusion restriction on MRI can also be caused by acute stroke
    • The pattern of diffusion restriction due to seizure can be distinguished from stroke in that it is often limited to the cortex and can span multiple vascular territories.
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23
Q

What is going on in this MRI?

A

Mesial temporal sclerosis

A: Coronal T1-weighted image showing asymmetric hippocampi (smaller left hippocampus). B: Coronal FLAIR image showing increased signal in the left hippocampus.

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24
Q

When are antiepileptics useful?

A
  • If a clear acute, reversible etiology of a patient’s seizure is identified and the patient has returned to normal with treatment of this underlying provoking condition, antiepileptic drug treatment is not necessarily indicated.
    • EEG is not particularly helpful in this scenario
    • If a structural lesion is also found, anti-epileptics may be used prophylactically
  • If there were multiple and/or difficult-to-control seizures due to an underlying acute reversible provoking factor, a short course of antiepileptics may be maintained and later tapered.
  • If there is a structural lesion identified in a patient with a first seizure, long-term antiepileptic treatment is generally indicated.
  • After an unprovoked seizure, medium-risk or high-risk patients should be treated immediately with long-term antiepileptic therapy
    • For low-risk patients, it is a joint decision between patient and clinician, but data is unclear on benefits.
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25
Q

Counseling after first seizure

A

Patients with active epilepsy or who have just had a first seizure should be counseled not to drive, operate heavy machinery, work at heights or near fire, bathe/swim alone, or participate in any other activity during which a seizure could lead to significant injury or death

Laws vary from state to state with respect to the seizure-free period necessary before driving, so local regulations should be consulted.

The recommended seizure-free period for driving (6–12 months in most U.S. states) can be used as a rough guide for avoidance of other potentially risky activities.

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26
Q

Antiepileptics sometimes. . .

A

. . . make epilepsy worse!!!!

It is important to know which diseases antiepileptics treat, and which they exacerbate. THESE ARE NOT BENIGN DRUGS.

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27
Q

First-line therapy for idiopathic genetic generalized epilepsy syndromes

A

Valproate

with the exception of childhood absence epilepsy, for which ethosuximide is first-line therapy.

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28
Q

Valproate should be avoided in. . .

A

. . . women of child-bearing age, due to its teratogenicity.

Same goes for topiramate.

It should also be avoided in children <2 years of age, due to hepatotoxicity in this population.

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29
Q

Carbamazepine is particularly effective for ___

A

Carbamazepine is particularly effective for partial (focal) seizures

BUT may worsen idiopathic genetic generalized epilepsy syndromes such as childhood absence epilepsy

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30
Q

Drug-drug interactions of antiepileptics

A
  • The older AEDs phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproate have the most drug–drug interactions
  • Phenobarbital, phenytoin, and carbamazepine are enzyme inducers, lowering the levels of other medications, AND decreasing the effectiveness of oral contraceptives
  • Valproate is an enzyme-inhibitor, increasing the levels of other medications.
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31
Q

Side effects of antiepileptics

A
  • Nearly all AEDs can cause dizziness, double vision, sedation, and/or behavioral changes. Worse w/ older agents, less so with newer ones.
  • Life-threatening toxicities include hepatic toxicity, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome
    • Initiation of most AEDs requires evaluation with baseline CBC and hepatic and renal function tests. Tests are then followed serially to monitor for toxicities
  • Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can cause hyponatremia, so serum sodium is also monitored for these
  • Lacosamide can cause PR interval prolongation, and so a baseline ECG should be obtained with serial monitoring
  • Topiramate and zonisamide can increase the risk of nephrolithtiasis
  • Topiramate and valproate are teratogenic
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32
Q

The highest risks of Stevens-Johnson syndrome among antiepileptics are with. . .

A

. . . phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine

The risk of Stephens-Johnson syndrome with carbamazepine is higher in Asians with a particular HLA type (HLA-B*1502), so this should be screened for before starting carbamazepine in patients with Asian ancestry

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33
Q

Risk of SJS may be reduced in antiepileptic treatment by. . .

A

. . . slowly uptitrating the drug rather than giving the full dose all at once.

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34
Q

Among antiepileptics, ___ both have mood-stabilizing properties, whereas ___ can cause irritability and depression

A

Among antiepileptics, valproate and lamotrigine both have mood-stabilizing properties, whereas levetiracetam can cause irritability and depression

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35
Q

At each follow-up visit, a patient on AEDs should be assessed for . . .

A

At each follow-up visit, a patient on AEDs should be assessed for whether seizure frequency has improved and whether there are side effects of the AED(s).

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36
Q

Antiepileptics must always be. . .

A

. . . slowly up-titrated and down-titrated, not abruptly started and stopped.

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37
Q

Carbamazepine autoinduction

A

Unique effect to carbamazepine

Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism, and so as a result, the initial effectiveness may decrease around 6 weeks to 2 months after initiating the medication, requiring a dose increase.

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38
Q

Refractory epilepsy

A
  • If a patient is not controlled after adequate trials of two well-tolerated AEDs (individually or together), the patient is considered to have refractory (drug-resistant) epilepsy.
  • Such patients should be considered for vagal nerve stimulator, epilepsy surgery, and/or the ketogenic diet
    • If surgical resection of the epileptic focus is under consideration and MRI or nuclear medicine study does not reveal the causative lesion, intracranial EEG can be used to more precisely localize the epileptogenic lesion
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39
Q

Tapering off antiepileptics in seizure-free patients

A

In patients who have been seizure free for 2 years, the question often emerges as to whether AEDs can be titrated off.

A gradual taper can be attempted, explaining to the patient that there is about a 40% risk of seizure recurrence, and that that risk is greatest during the period of off-titration. Therefore, during this period, the patient should not drive, should not swim or bathe unaccompanied, and should not work at heights.

If a patient has a seizure during the taper, lifelong AED therapy is generally warranted.​

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40
Q

Status epilepticus

A

defined as 5 or more minutes of continuous seizures, or repeated seizures without return to consciousness between them.

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41
Q

Aspects of managing status epilepticus

A
  1. Management of the “ABCs” (airway, breathing, circulation): Continuous oxygen saturation monitoring and cardiovascular monitoring are essential and intubation/mechanical ventilation may be necessary.
  2. Treatment of seizures in status epilepticus: Use the status epilepticus treatment algorithm
  3. Search for an underlying cause: Evaluation for hypoglycemia, electrolyte abnormalities, drug intoxication or withdrawal, structural lesion, or an infectious or inflammatory etiology in parallel with treatment. Glucose and thiamine are generally given immediately to patients in status epilepticus.
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42
Q

Status epilepticus treatment algorithm

A
  1. Serial doses of benzodiazepines along with glucose and thiamine
  2. If not under control, phenytoin load is given (some practitioners use valproate, phenobarbital, or levetiracetam instead)
  3. If not under control, an additional partial load of the antiepileptic loaded in the prior step
  4. If not under control, patient is intubated and 24-hour coma is induced with pentobarbitol, midazolam, or propofol.Continuous EEGmonitoring is generally initiated at this point to guide success of therapy. Adaily maintenance AED is also initiated.
    • This step is generally only taken for generalized convulsive seizures but not for focal motor status epilepticus; use of these measures in nonconvulsive status epilepticus is debated
  5. Sedatives are weaned to see if patient will seize again. If so, additional AEDs and/or sedative agents can be added
  6. If still not under control, extreme measures may include ketamine, hypothermia, ketogenic diet, immunotherapy (if there is concern for an autoimmune etiology), electroconvulsive therapy, and/or surgical intervention (if a seizure focus can be identified).
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43
Q

Why do we give glucose and thiamine to patients in status epilepticus?

A

Hypoglycemia is a common cause of seizures, and adding glucose will quickly resolve the seizure. And, even if hypoglycemia isn’t the cause, giving glucose is a very cheap and low-risk thing to do.

Thiamine is given with glucose so as to prevent development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy in potentially at-risk patients

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44
Q

Nonconvulsive status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus seizure activity without frank convulsions.

Subtle motor signs (e.g., eye deviation or nystagmus, eyelid or facial twitching, extremity twitching) may be present, but some patients may only have alterations in level of consciousness ranging from confusion to coma

The diagnosis is made definitively by EEG. Continuous EEG for at least 24 hours is generally required to evaluate for NCSE, since seizures may be intermittent. If EEG is ambiguous, a benzodiazepine trial can be undertaken to see if there is both electrographic and clinical improvement.

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45
Q

___ should be considered in patients who fail to recover consciousness after one or more seizures

A

NCSE should be considered in patients who fail to recover consciousness after one or more seizures

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46
Q

Diagnostic criteria for epilepsy

A
  • An epilepsy syndrome
  • OR, 1 seizure with >60% risk of another
  • OR, 2 seizures >24 hr apart
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47
Q

___% of people will develop epilepsy at some point in their lifetime.

A

3% of people will develop epilepsy at some point in their lifetime.

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48
Q

__% of people will have a seizure in their lifetime

A

10% of people will have a seizure in their lifetime

49
Q

1 cause of epilepsy worldwide

A

Infection

  • Neurocysticercosis (Taenia solium, aka pork tapeworm)
  • HIV
  • TB
  • ToRCHeS infections
50
Q

Childhood Absence epilepsy syndrome

A
  • During childhood, ages ~4-8
  • 3 Hz spike wave pattern on EEG (shown)
  • Normal neurologic exam
  • Treated w/ ethosuxamide with good prognosis
51
Q

West epilepsy syndrome

A
  • Begins in infancy
  • EEG has hypsarrhythmia (shown)
  • Intellectual dysfunction on exam
  • Treated w/ ACTH, variable prognosis
52
Q

Juvenile Myoclonic epilepsy syndrome

A
  • Begins in late teens
  • Fast, spike wave discharges (shown)
  • Neuro exam normal
  • Treated w/ broad-spectrum antiepileptics, prognosis requires lifelong antiepileptic therapy
53
Q

Mesial temporal sclerosis

A

Very common finding on MRI that can produce focal elilepsy

54
Q

Convulsive syncopy

A

Phenomenon where syncopy can produce convulsions.

However, people still regain consciousness rapidly. Important to know that this does exist and can be very difficult to differentiate from a seizure. Even more confusing, syncopy can sometimes trigger a true seizure.

55
Q

Drugs that are IV ABD oral options for epilepsy

A
  • Levetiracetam
  • Lacosamide
  • Valproate
  • Phenytoin
  • Phosphenytoin
56
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is ___ and is therefore treated with ___

A

Trigeminal neuralgia is a focal seizure and is therefore treated with carbamazepine

57
Q

Oral agents good for focal seizures

A

Carbamazepine (makes generalized seizures worse)

Oxcarbazepine (makes generalized seizures worse)

Lamotragine (can cause SJS, used in women of child bearing age due to good data in pregnancy)

58
Q

Treatment of choice for absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

59
Q

Oral only agents good for generalized seizures

A

Clobazam: A benzodiazepine. Has typical benzo side effects (drowsiness). Some patients love it, some cannot tolerate the drowsiness.

Zonisamide: Good for general or focal seizures. Risk of kidney stones. History of nephrolithiasis is a contraindication.

60
Q

Which two antiepileptics CANNOT be used in combination?

A

Carbamazepine and valproic acid

61
Q

Main downside of Lacosamide

A

Prolongs the PR interval.

An already prolonged PR interval is a contraindication.

62
Q

Practical contraindications of levetiracetam

A

Levetiracetam can cause psychosis, irritability, or suicidal ideation.

Psych diagnoses are not themselves contraindications to levetiracetam, but prior experience of these symptoms or exacebation while ON levetiracetam is.

63
Q

Main two antiepileptics that CAN cause SJS

A
  1. Lamotragine
  2. Valproate
64
Q

Contraindication to valproate

A

Highly teratogenic

Causes neural tube defects

65
Q

Side effects of phenytoin

A
  • Older medication
  • Now used mosty in status epilepticus
  • Long-term use is associated with gingival hypertrophy, hypotension, and bradycardia
    • Phosphenytoin still causes gingival hypertrophy, but is less likely to cause hypotension and bradycardia
66
Q

Status protocol, per Sydni

A
  1. Lorazepam (ativan)
    • In kids, weight based dosing
    • In adults, sequential 2 mg pushes
  2. Levetiracetam, valproate, OR phosphenytoin
    • All noninferior to benzos and to one another
  3. Propofol + intubation
  4. If all else fails, phenobarbital (barbiturates)
67
Q

Two categories of generalized seizures

A

Motor seizures

Absence seizures

68
Q

Generalized motor seizure progression

A

Starts as tonic, lasting several seconds

Followed by clonic phase, which typically lasts 1-2 minutes and is more or less symmetrical

Toward the end of the clonic phase, jerking stops and the body becomes flaccid

69
Q

Common trigger of absence seizures

A

Hyperventilation

70
Q

Antiepileptics in febrile seizures

A

Start them for complex, not for simple

Remember: Complex febrile seizure is an unmasking of underlying epilepsy due to the epileptogenic state of fever in the developing brain

71
Q

Infantile Spasms aka West syndrome

A
  • NOT A TRUE SEIZURE, it is a seizure mimic
  • Patient will be < 1 year old and present with bilateral symmetric jerking
  • Will NOT be generalized and there will be NO fever
  • Dx: Interictal EEG showing hypsarrhythmia
  • Treat with ACTH
  • Often associated with developmental delay and tuberous sclerosis
72
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A
  • Genetic disease
  • Patient will typically be < 2 years old, have ash leaf spots (visible w/ Wood’s lamp) and angiofibromas on skin, afebrile or complex febrile seizures
    • On brain imaging, cortical tubers
  • Diagnose w/ CT or MRI of brain
  • Treatment of supporting
  • Risk of development of benign tumors anywhere in body
74
Q

Special features of absence epilepsy

A
  • Loss of consciousness, but no loss of tone
  • No post-ictal state
  • Hundreds to thousands of seizures per day
  • “Spacing out” or “ADHD”
  • Diagnose with EEG, treat w/ ethosuximide (valproate as backup or if combined generalized seizures)
75
Q

Prerequisite to genetic screening for intellectual disability disorder

A

Mother must be willing to terminate

Otherwise, the procedure only puts both mom and fetus at risk

76
Q

Diagnosis of intellectual disability disorder

A

Clinical diagnosis based upon loss of adaptive functioning

77
Q

Stereotypy

A

Doing the same thing over and over, repetitive behaviors

Symptom of autism spectrum

78
Q

Tic disorder diagnosis and treatment

A
  • Consistent vocal or motor tic
  • Patient < 18 years of age
  • Duration > 1 year
  • Clinical diagnosis
  • Treatment is D2 antagonist and cognitive-behavioral therapy
79
Q

Febrile seizures

A
  • Most common cause of seizure in a child (3-9% prevalence)
  • Occur between 6 months and 5 years
  • Setting of febrile illness without evidence of itnracranial infection
  • Generalized in onset with no neurologic deficits and no post-ictal state
80
Q

Presence of Todd’s paralysis suggests what about the onset of a seizure?

A

It was focal in onset, even if not apparent to observers present at the time

81
Q

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A
  • Seizure disorder of childhood
  • Tonic, atonic, myotonic, generalized tonic-clonic, or absence
  • Associated with major cognitive impairment and disability
  • EEG shows slow (1-2 per second) spike-and-wave discharges
  • Treat w/ valproic acid, lamotragine, felbamate, rufinamide, or clobazam
82
Q

Focal motor seizure (eg benign rolandic epilepsy)

A
  • Seizure syndrome of childhood
  • Aware, focal seizure involving mouth and face, infrequently as generalized tonic clonic seizures
  • Associate with a nocturnal preponderance of seizures
  • EEG: Centrotemporal spikes
  • Treat w/: Carbamazepine, sometimes no treatment is necessary
83
Q

Absence epilepsy

A
  • Seizure disorder of childhood and adolescence
  • Mostly absence seizures, sometimes tonic clonic seizures
  • Hyperventilation is a common trigger
  • EEG: 3 per second generalized spike wave
  • Treat w/: Ethosuximide. Second line is valproate or lamotrigine.
84
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A
  • Seizure disorder of adolescence and young adulthood
  • Myoclonic, absence, or generalized tonic clonic seizures
  • Associated with an early morning preponderance of seizures
  • EEG: 4-6 second polyspike-and-wave
  • Treat w/: Valproate, lamotrigine, or levetiracetam
85
Q

Topiramate

A

Can be used for focal or generalized seizures

Side effects: Word finding difficulty, renal stones, weight loss

86
Q

When there is no witness of a seizure, ___ may be a clue to tonic-clonic activity

A

When there is no witness of a seizure, diffuse muscle aches may be a clue to tonic-clonic activity

87
Q

Adult-onset seizure is caused by ___ until proven otherwise

A

Adult-onset seizure is caused by tumor or stroke until proven otherwise

88
Q

Technically, an aura is. . .

A

. . . a focal seizure with preserved awareness

That may or may not precede a more generalized seizure

89
Q

3/4 of focal seizures with impaired awareness emanate from. . .

A

. . . the temporal lobe

90
Q

___ is always on the ddx for absence seizure

The two can be differentiated by. . .

A

Focal seizure with imparied awareness is always on the ddx for absence seizure

The two can be differentiated by the presence or absence of an aura and post-ictal state, which occur only with focal seizures and not with absence seizures

91
Q

Atypical absence seizures

A

Absence seizures with poorly defined beginning and end and/or with tonic and autonomic components.

These usually occur in cognitively impaired children with epilepsy or in patients with an epileptic encephalopathy, like Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.

92
Q

Prognosis for absence seizures

A

Quite good.

For those beginning in childhood (basically all of them), 70% will resolve by age 18.

93
Q

Longer absence seizure vs atypical absence seizure

A

When an absence seizure lasts beyond 10 seconds, there may be small stereotyped movements such as eye blinking or lip smacking.

However, this should not be confused with atypical absence seizures, which have more dramatic motor components.

94
Q

Automatisms

A

Repetitive, stereotyped, unconscious motor or verbal behaviors that commonly accompany focal seizures with impaired awareness (aka complex partial seizures).

If an automatism is unilateral, the seizure is likely originating in the contralateral hemisphere

95
Q

Complex partial seizures often begin with. . .

A

. . . simple partial seizures! (in the form of an aura)

96
Q

Internationally, __ is a common cause of focal seizures

A

Internationally, cystericercosis is a common cause of focal seizures

97
Q

Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP)

A

Occurs with no apparent cause

Most common among patients with frequent, medically intractable seizures who are noncompliant with antiepileptic medications

98
Q

___ is always indicated for a complex partial seizure

A

MRI of the brain is always indicated for a complex partial seizure

Since many have a focal, anatomic etiology. MRI may reveal a tumor or may reveal mesial temporal sclerosis – both of which can be resected to cure the epilepsy.

Add gadolinium contrast if a neoplasm or vascular malformation is suspected.

99
Q

Anticonvulsants and pregnancy summary

A
  • Many listed as unsafe in pregnancy, but use is often warranted anyway if necessary to control seizures
  • Always use high dose (4 mg) folic acid for PNV for women on antiepileptics during pregnancy
  • Valproate and phenobarbital are most likely to cause NTDs in a dose-related fashion (moreso than other anticonvulsants)
  • Lamotrigine is safest for pregnancy
100
Q

Laboratory abnormalities often observed on anticonvulsant therapy that are screened for those on regular regimen

A

Liver enzyme elevation

Blood cell count depressions

101
Q

Potential surgeries for refractory epilepsy

A
  • There are MANY:
    • Temporal lobectomy
    • Extratemporal resections
    • Corpus callostomy
    • Placement of vagus nerve stimulator
    • Hemispherectomy
    • Multiple subpial transections
102
Q

What is the MOST common type of seizure in an adult?

A

Complex partial seizure

NOT grand mal

103
Q

Catamenial epilepsy

A

Accounts for 1/3 of women with epilepsy

Seizure timing is dependent upon menstrual cycle.

104
Q

Things that cause withdrawal seizures

A

Benzodiazepines

Alcohol

105
Q

If someone presents with hallucinations which then get worse on antipsychotics, what is probably going on?

A

They are not psychotic, they are having occipital lobe seizures.

Get an EEG. Then take them off the antipsychotic and put them on an antiepileptic.

106
Q

Two clinical definitions of status epilepticus

A

Seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes

Failure to return to baseline for > 20 minutes following a seizure

107
Q

Classic picture of an atonic seizure

A

Preserved consciousness, but loss of tone

“These are the kids who walk around with football helmets”

They lose tone and fall. They are conscious the whole time, but can’t do anything about it.

Treat w/ valproic acid

108
Q

Picture of a myoclonic seizure

A

There is no loss of consciousness, but brief jerking spasms of a muscle or muscle group

Can look a lot like a tic. Some of these people also get atonic seizure, which look a lot like syncope.

Treat w/ valproate.

109
Q

Four treatments for specific seizure disorders that should be reflex:

  • Trigeminal neuralgia:
  • Absence:
  • Atonic:
  • Myoclonic:
A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia: Carbamazepine
  • Absence: Ethosuximide
  • Atonic: Valproate
  • Myoclonic: Valproate
110
Q

Syndrome of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Unilateral, burning/electric pain coming from the trigeminal nerve, which starts near the top of the ear and splits in three, toward the eye, cheek and jaw.

111
Q

Postictal ___ on BMP supports a diagnosis of generalized tonic-clonic seizure

A

Postictal acidosis on BMP supports a diagnosis of generalized tonic-clonic seizure

Resolves within ~2 hours

112
Q

Cortical laminar necrosis

A

Type of brain damage caused by prolonged epileptic activity

Characterized by permanent neurologic deficit following status epilepticus

113
Q

Idiopathic forms of focal epilepsy

A
  • Benign rolandic epilepsy
  • Temporal lobe epilepsy
    • Both have a strong genetic component
114
Q

“t1” and “t2” for generalized convulsive status epilepticus

A

t1: 5 minutes. The time at which a seizure is assumed to be status epilepticus with continuous seizure activity

t2: 30 minutes. The time at which a patient is at risk for long-term neurologic consequences of status epilepticus

115
Q

Four most common epilepsy syndromes in children

A
  • Febrile convulsions (simple febrile seizures, resolves spontaneously at age ~5)
  • Benign rolandic epilepsy (resolves spontaneously)
  • Childhood absence epilepsy (resolves spontaneously)
  • Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
116
Q

Primary focal epilepsy syndromes should be treated with. . .

A

. . . phenytoin or carbamazepine

117
Q

A patient arrives at the ED following a seizure. The seizure lasted ~6 minutes, then the patient became unresponsive. They have remained unresponsive since this time. What is the next step in management?

A

Order an EEG, but initiate benzodiazepines or phenytoin immediately

If there is high suspicion of non-convulsive status epilepticus, you should NOT wait for EEG confirmation. As with acute stroke, time is brain in status epilepticus.

118
Q

Temporal lobe epilepsy is often poorly responsive to ___, but responds well to ___

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy is often poorly responsive to antiepileptics, but responds well to surgery

119
Q

Breath holding spell

A
  • May be simple, cyanotic (turning blue), or pallid (turning pale)
    • Simple and cyanotic typically caused by frustration
    • Pallid typically caused by pain
  • Child (6-18 months) holds their breath until they lose consciousness, then wake back up without a post-ictal state
  • Treatment is just reassurance