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7Level > Self Tes Vol 2 > Flashcards

Self Tes Vol 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the purpose of ETIMS?
A

The purpose of ETIMS is to provide a combination of services and interim capabilities to support TO management and use, until subsumed or replaced by the ECSS

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2
Q
  1. What is the primary use for ETIMS?
A

To be used for Air Force managed TOs, though it also supports local supplements and commercial manuals.

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3
Q
  1. What is needed to access ETIMS?
A

An internet connection, Internet Explorer, and an AF Portal account with CAC or ECA.

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4
Q
  1. Currently, what do Air Force personnel use JCALS to do?
A

To manage, acquire, improve, publish, stock, and distribute paper and digital technical orders.

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5
Q
  1. Who primarily uses JCALS?
A

TO managers, equipment specialists, and TODOs

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6
Q
  1. What is CTOMs?
A

The strategic steering group chartered to improve the quality of TOs, define policy and develop procedures required to achieve the Air Force digital TO vision and CONOPS.

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7
Q
  1. What three-tier structure makes up the CTOM Organization?
A

The CTOM committee, executive steering group, and ad-hoc WGs to solve specific problems.

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8
Q
  1. What does the CTOM Committee review and approve?
A

All Air Force policy and guidance relating to the TO system.

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9
Q
  1. What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provide basic TO system support to base-level AF organizations?
A

Base TODO, unit TODO, and TODA.

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10
Q
  1. What does the base TODO service?
A

Those base activities that maintain less than 250 TOs and aren’t serviced by an operations, maintenance, tenant unit, or other organization assigned a TODO code by OC-ALC.

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11
Q
  1. Which personnel may establish ID requirements and requisition TOs through the TO distribution system?
A

TODOs.

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12
Q
  1. What factors determine whether a TODA will maintain records?
A

File location and size, TODO workload, and/or special account requirements.

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13
Q
  1. What personnel administer and manage the TCTO program?
A

Those in wing PS&D.

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14
Q
  1. Which section in the group sends “working” copies of all newly received TCTOs to wing PS&D?
A

QA.

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15
Q
  1. Personnel in what section schedule and chair TCTO planning meetings?
A

Wing PS&D.

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16
Q
  1. What criteria are considered ineligible for submission on an AF Form 22?
A

Those that merely call attention to a word or omission, or typographical or printing errors, that would normally be corrected during scheduled reviews and don’t cause misinterpretation. Those that identify other non-critical errors in a TO and/or suggest minor word changes to technical data unless the suggester specifically describes the problems that will be prevented and/or gives examples of prior problems.

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17
Q
  1. TO improvement reports should be evaluated against what criteria?
A

Mission impact, personnel and aerospace system safety, damage to equipment, work simplification, urgency of need for change, labor savings.

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18
Q
  1. What are the guidelines for determining if a TO improvement report qualifies as an urgent report?
A

Identify errors (or omissions) that, if not, corrected could cause one or more of the following: injury to personnel, damage to equipment or property, or a reduction of operational efficiency. An urgent report might also be submitted if the deficiency could jeopardize the safety or successful accomplishment of a mission. TCTO deficiencies are always classified as urgent reports.

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19
Q
  1. What category of report is submitted if the improvement will result in over $25,000 or 1000 man-hours annual savings to the Air Force?
A

Urgent.

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20
Q
  1. Where are urgent and routine reports sent?
A

Designated command control points.

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21
Q
  1. In what TO can you find information on how to fill out an AFTO Form 22?
A

TO 00–5–1, chapter 9.

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22
Q
  1. In which report category can you make an initial follow-up 60 days after submission
A

Urgent.

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23
Q
  1. When does an AFTO Form 22 qualify for the suggestion program?
A

When it has been approved.

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24
Q
  1. What types of deficiencies are not reported using AFTO Form 22?
A

Recommendation for new TOs, embedded computer system hardware and/or software, calibration responsibility determination, corrections to flight manual publications, errors in preliminary TOs, and requests for changes SMR codes.

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25
Q
  1. What does a reviewing organization do with received reports?
A

Make sure the report is justified, assigned the proper priority, and downgraded or disapproved when necessary. Make necessary changes with concurrence of submitting MAJCOM HQs. Return a carbon copy of report to initiating activity. Signs approved reports

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26
Q
  1. What three characteristics depict the concept of the supply system?
A

First, the system is worldwide; second, accomplishment of the supply system mission depends on the performance of specialized functions such as storage, distribution, and disposal; third, the system contains a few million items which vary in size, use, complexity, and value.

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27
Q
  1. When determining the segments of the supply system, how many of the characteristics are considered in the concept of the system?
A

All three

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28
Q
  1. Describe the SBSS
A

An accounting system consisting of standardized computer equipment, programs, procedures, and policy. It provides base activities with their supply needs, using a SBLC to account for supplies, equipment, POL, munitions, and clothing.

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29
Q
  1. What is the primary goal of the SBSS?
A

To provide standardized data for all levels of management and to provide managers with accurate and current data for budget and buy programs.

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30
Q
  1. Which element in base supply would you contact if you had a supply-related problem?
A

The customer service element.

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31
Q
  1. Who established UMMIPS?
A

The military services, DLA centers, USCG, defense contractors, other governmental agencies, and countries participating in the MAP (grant aid and FMS).

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32
Q
  1. What are the two purposes of UMMIPS?
A

Provide a standard method of ranking competing needs according to their importance (using a method for identifying the importance of requisitions by using a combination of FAD and UND) and to ensure the most effective management of resources in reacting to each need.

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33
Q
  1. Who is responsible for assigning priority designators consistent with assigned FADs and the existing urgency of need?
A

Commanding officers and the heads of requisitioning activities.

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34
Q
  1. How are FAD codes identified?
A

By the Roman numerals I, II, III, IV and V.

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35
Q
  1. What are FAD I assignments reserved for?
A

Those units, projects, or forces which are most important militarily in the opinion of the JCS and as approved by the Secretary of Defense.

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36
Q
  1. List the entities that fall under FAD V.
A

All other US forces or activities; approved programs of the military services and federal agencies not otherwise designated; and forces of SA program countries not otherwise designated.

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37
Q
  1. Who must review or delegate in writing the authority to certify that all requirements with priority designator A or B are appropriate and justified.
A

Commanders or heads of DOD activities.

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38
Q
  1. What is done to maintain the integrity of the UMMIPS?
A

The quantity of materiel included on priority designator 01 through 08 requisitions is restricted to that amount necessary to satisfy the immediate requirement

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39
Q
  1. Abuse and misuse of UMMIPS have far-reaching and negative results on the logistics system, in supply, contracting, and transportation. What type of review prevents this from occurring?
A

Before the fact review of the priority one requirement

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40
Q
  1. Who notifies the organization commander of adverse trends in high-priority requirements?
A

Base management and systems flight personnel

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41
Q
  1. What is the system that provides a method of obtaining the kinds of items required by AF organizations to maintain mission capability?
A

MICAP.

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42
Q
  1. When is a MICAP terminated?
A

At the time of due-out release, due-in or due-out cancellation, or downgrade to non-MICAP

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43
Q
  1. What is done with the B9(x) start/stop reports and MAPS when requirements computation is performed and the record is more than 90 days old?
A

They are deleted.

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44
Q
  1. Define MASS.
A

Mission capable (MICAP) asset sourcing system (MASS) is a user-friendly, menu-driven PC application and interacts with various systems on the SBLC to improve MICAP processing

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45
Q
  1. What does MASS eliminate?
A

The need to maintain external MICAP boards.

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46
Q
  1. Match the inspection concepts in column B with the type of scheduled inspection in column A. Items in column B may be used more than once.
    Column A
    ___(1) Maintains historical data.
    ___(2) Used to acquire materiel needed to repair equipment
    ___(3) Is terminated at the time of due-out release.
    ___(4) Eliminates need for external MICAP boards.
    ___(5) Uses MILSTRAP to produce effectiveness reports.
    ___(6) Measures timely logistics system performance.
    Column B
    a. Mass.
    b. MICAP.
    c. UMMIPS.
A

(1) a.
(2) b.
(3) b.
(4) a.
(5) c.
(6) c.

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47
Q
  1. Who will ensure that requisition modifier documentation is processed in conjunction with the
    UMMIPS time standards for the revised priority designator and/or the SDD/RDD?
A

Air Force materiel manager.

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48
Q
  1. What responsibility is a part of every position description in the Air Force?
A

Property responsibility

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49
Q
  1. Who, if any one person, holds the title to Air Force property?
A

No one person; it is owned jointly by all of us.

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50
Q
  1. Who is responsible and accountable for material or equipment you use on the job?
A

You, your supervisor, and your commander.

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51
Q
  1. The wing commander has just called and informed the squadron commander that an egress maintenance truck assigned to his squadron is parked in front of the Base Exchange with four people on board. The squadron commander was also informed that if the situation occurs again, all trucks will be assigned to the regular motor pool. Why would the wing commander be so concerned with this maintenance truck?
A

It is the responsibility of the commander to ensure economical use and minimize abuse of equipment.

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52
Q
  1. How do commanders ensure economical use of the property under their jurisdiction?
A

By setting examples for those under their command and seeing that supplies are used for their intended purpose and not wasted.

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53
Q
  1. Why are supervisors often given the responsibility of control over equipment and supplies?
A

Because normally they are located near the property and thus have control over the property.

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54
Q
  1. What is custodial responsibility?
A

Custodial responsibility is the responsibility you must assume for the care of public property in your possession.

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55
Q
  1. Who would you notify before you transfer items listed on your CA/CRL out of your span of
    control?
A

EME personnel.

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56
Q
  1. What do allowance standards provide?
A

Detailed information on what equipment is needed for an organization to perform its assigned peacetime and wartime missions, functions, and duties.

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57
Q
  1. What are the only items generally listed in the ASRS and what items are exempted from the
    policy?
A

Nonexpendable items; specialized tools, personal retention and survival items, components of bench sets, and WRM.

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58
Q
  1. When submitting changes to your unit’s ASRS, what form would you use?
A

AF Form 601.

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59
Q
  1. When would an AFTO Form 375 be submitted when seeking to obtain repair for support
    equipment?
A

If the repair cost estimate for support equipment that cost $2,500 or more exceeds the allowable one time repair expenditure. Also, for support equipment costing less than $2,500, but the maximum repair cost exceeds 75 percent of the replacement cost, the senior maintenance officer may authorize repairs that exceed this limit by submitting an AFTO Form 375 with a justification statement to the national supply class item manager.

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60
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the ROS program?
A

To research and investigate the cause of loss, damage, or destruction of property and determine if it was
attributable to an individual’s negligence or abuse.

61
Q
  1. When is an ROS required?
A

If the amount of loss is more than $500.

62
Q
  1. What does pecuniary liability apply to and what does it mean?
A

It applies to property lost, damaged, or destroyed as a result of causes other than fair wear and tear, and it means that the responsible person must pay for the loss.

63
Q
  1. List reasons to conduct an ROS.
A

To investigate reasons for the cause of the loss, damaged, or destroyed property to determine if negligence
or abuse is at fault; to either assess monetary liability against the person responsible or relieve him or her from liability if there is no evidence of negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use of the property; provide documentation that can be used to support the adjustment of accountable records; provide commanders with case histories enabling them to take corrective action to prevent recurrence of the incident

64
Q
  1. List at least three instances when a ROS is mandatory.
A

Controlled or sensitive items, weapons, or classified items have been damaged, or destroyed unless exempted by AFMAN 23–220; there is evidence of abuse, gross negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use, fraud, theft, or if negligence is suspected in the case of supply system stocks or property book items; hand tools or other pilfer-able items over $100 unit cost or $500 total cost are lost; supply system stock records are adjusted more than $2,500 for pilfer-able items; supply system stock records are adjusted more than $16,000 for uncontrolled or non-pilfer-able items; and supply system stock record adjustments exceed $50,000

65
Q
  1. List three times when an ROS is not mandatory.
A

An item becomes unserviceable due to fair, wear, and tear; an item is disassembled for component parts or is salvaged; when acts of God cause loss, damage, or destruction; property is lost in combat operations; an individual voluntarily wishes to pay for property that was lost, damaged, or destroyed and the item(s) is not one that requires a ROS and is valued at $500 or less.

66
Q
  1. List three conditions that must be met before a voluntary payment may be used instead of a ROS.
A

You are offering the payment on your own choice and are not being coerced or threatened with adverse action if payment is not made. Adverse action could consist of administrative action and judicial or nonjudicial punishment; you are aware that no administrative determination of a debt exists, and that there is no legal obligation to the government; you are aware that voluntary payment may not be withdrawn later; you are aware that once you make a voluntary payment, the normal avenues of relief (appeal, waiver, remission, etc) are not available; you are offering to pay for loss or damage in excess of one month’s basic pay; you should then be made aware that if a ROS is prepared, the liability might be limited to one month’s basic pay.

67
Q
  1. Where do you locate information concerning average maximum allowable requirements for nonexpendable equipment?
A

Allowance standard documents found on-line in AFEMS.

68
Q
  1. How are requirements for nonexpendable supplies determined?
A

Exact quantities are determined by MAJCOMs and EME, influenced by a review of circumstances within the command or at base level.

69
Q
  1. Which supply office is the point of contact for all matters related to equipment management?
A

EME.

70
Q
  1. What form is used to order supplies?
A

Use AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request

71
Q
  1. What purpose do project codes provide?
A

They identifying special projects; allow logisticians to identify supply transactions associated with the project; and they allow Air Force and DOD personnel to track cost data and service performance of items related to special projects, programs, exercises, and maneuvers

72
Q
  1. When would you arbitrarily assign an SRD code to an issue item?
A

At no time.

73
Q

210.When using an AF Form 2005 to order base-funded equipment items (ERRC NF), what four letter words need to be provided to indicate whether organizational funds are/are not available?

A

“MEMO” to indicate funds are unavailable, or “FIRM” to indicate funds are available.

74
Q

210.What is the difference between materiel placed in the serviceable-identified area, and material placed in the serviceable-and reparable-not identified area?

A

Serviceable-identified material is material identified by part number and or stock number and organization and shop codes; while material in the serviceable-and reparable-not identified area is materiel the user determines to be serviceable but cannot identify to a part or stock number, and unserviceable-materiel the user determines can be potentially repaired by the organization.

75
Q

210.Describe materiel placed in the unserviceable and scrap area.

A

It is materiel the user determines to be unserviceable and not potentially reparable by the organization and having all required demilitarization actions completed.

76
Q
  1. Who directs whether to turn-in reparable equipment with an NF ERRC code to a depot or contract facility?
A

The SM or IM.

77
Q

210.On a direct turn-in to RIPL, what particular copy of the DD Form 1348–1A will the organization receive signed by RIPL?210.

A

Copy 2.

78
Q

210.What must containers turned into RIPL have?

A

A signed certificate (accomplished by the generating activity) on the DTID, stating the following: “I certify that the container listed hereon is empty.”

79
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the supply classification system?
A

To properly identify supplies to be ordered.

80
Q
  1. What do the first four digits of the NSN represent?
A

The NSC code. While the first two digits identify the NSCG, grouping broadly related items, the second two digits are the NSC class, grouping closely related items with the NSCG.

81
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the NIIN?
A

It serves to symbolize and fix the identity of the individual item and to differentiate it concisely and permanently from all other items. The first two digits indicate the country that assigned the number. The last seven digits distinguish the specific item of supply within the federal cataloging system.

82
Q
  1. What does the first character of the UJC represent?
A

The UND.

83
Q
  1. What is identified in the TIC column of the D04?
A

What’s happening to a part?

84
Q
  1. What’s the purpose of the M30?
A

Provides a monthly listing of everything back ordered against your work center.

85
Q
  1. What is identified by the RID?
A

The source of supply.

86
Q
  1. What budget code identifies general support (O&M funded)?
A

Budget code 9.

87
Q
  1. How often is the D18 produced for UND code A requirements?
A

Daily.

88
Q
  1. What does it mean when your D18 displays BQ in the Current Status Codes column?
A

Canceled status

89
Q
  1. What’s the purpose of the D23?
A

Provide the necessary information to manage repair cycle assets.

90
Q
  1. How is a critical item identified within the critical indicator column on the D23?
A

Double asterisk

91
Q
  1. What does a current status code of AWM indicate?
A

Awaiting maintenance

92
Q
  1. What is the R14 used for?
A

Shows all authorizations, assets, and due-outs for each custodian by organization code and shop code

93
Q
  1. Who must sign the R14?
A

Equipment custodian

94
Q
  1. Who must item managers provide with annual forecasts for time change items?
A

Wing superintendent

95
Q
  1. Over what time frame do conventional munitions reports project munitions usage?
A

Forecasts will be by quarter, for the first four years starting with the first quarter of the upcoming fiscal year, and by year for the remaining years, covering a period of time corresponding to the total service life of the item or a minimum of nine years.

96
Q
  1. What’s a cost center?
A

The lowest level of budget management and is the place where supplies are used.

97
Q
  1. Which individual is the RCM?
A

Squadron commander.

98
Q
  1. For whom does the RA work?
A

Squadron commander

99
Q
  1. Who provides each CC with instructions, forms, formats, and deadlines for preparing the future operating budget?
A

Resource advisor

100
Q
  1. What is the basis for the RA’s allocation of funds to your work center?
A

Your projected budget

101
Q
  1. What does the RA use periodic reports to identify?
A

Projected overages and shortages in your budget

102
Q
  1. How does the Air Force define RMS?
A

As a management philosophy and the variety of systems used to achieve the overall objectives of resource management

103
Q
  1. What are the five elements of RMS?
A

Operating budget, financial plans, management and accounting systems, participatory and committee management, and resource management training.

104
Q
  1. At what levels of command are decisions made concerning expenditures for activities such as flying hour allocations, manpower allotments, and depot-level maintenance?
A

Above base level at HQ USAF and major command headquarters.

105
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the effective, efficient, and economical use of all resources made available to their organization?
A

Each AF commander and manager

106
Q
  1. What’s a manager’s principle responsibility even if certain resources appear to be cost free?
A

Ensure these resources are used in the most cost efficient manner

107
Q
  1. How should an individual manager assist in budget formulation and resource allocation?
A

By recommending the best mix of resources necessary to secure the most efficient use of available resources.

108
Q
  1. Who is responsible for assisting base-level managers by assuring fiduciary accounting and control of obligations and providing expense data through the accounting system?
A

The comptroller.

109
Q
  1. What type funds finance most of the day-to-day cost of running an AF base?
A

O&M

110
Q
  1. In order to make the total RMS productive, managers must be effective in controlling several key factors. What are these factors?
A

OJT, career management, motivation, and personnel productivity.

111
Q
  1. What’s the difference between a line manager and a staff manager?
A

Line management is organization and program oriented. Line managers plan and direct the actions of an organization or program in terms of an all-inclusive budget and then manage their program within the resources allotted. The decisions of line managers determine the effectiveness and efficiency of directing resources towards mission accomplishment. The vital role of staff managers is to support line managers through their service, advice, and assistance provided to line managers. This type of management cuts across organizational lines and deals with commodities that are the resources or services used by operational base organizations. Staff managers are suppliers of commodities or services to line managers.

112
Q
  1. What role do commanders play in regards to the financial programs for each of the responsibility centers reporting directly to them
A

Review, validate, and balance the financial plan to ensure the success of the financial management process.

113
Q
  1. Who regulates, on a day-to-day basis, the consumption of work hours, supplies, equipment, and contract services in the production of things or the performance of tasks?
A

The CCM.

114
Q
  1. Who appoints the RA?
A

The RCM.

115
Q
  1. How long should RAs be expected to fulfill their duties?
A

At least one year.

116
Q
  1. What two financial committees make up the formal financial management structure?
A

FMB and FWG

117
Q
  1. Who acts as the chairperson of an FMB?
A

The commander.

118
Q
  1. What type appropriations have the greatest impact on base-level management?
A

One-year or annual appropriations

119
Q
  1. What appropriations are most common to base-level management?
A

Military construction, military family housing, RDT&E, O&M, MP, and other procurement

120
Q
  1. Which procurement provides for fabricating and procuring aircraft weapon systems, modifications, direct ground support equipment, aircraft industrial facilities, investment-type spares, war consumable, miscellaneous aircraft requirements, and technical data?
A

Aircraft procurement (3010).

121
Q
  1. What type appropriation provides for acquiring, constructing, installing, and equipping temporary or permanent public works, military installations, and facilities for the regular Air Force?
A

Military construction appropriation (3300).

122
Q
  1. What will an operations and maintenance appropriation (3400) provide?
A

For operating and maintaining AF resources, including aircraft, missiles, radars, base facilities, hospitals, and other operational requirements, such as intelligence, communications, training, service-wide activities, and support to other nations

123
Q
  1. What appropriation provides funds for your paycheck?
A

Military personnel appropriation (3500)

124
Q
  1. What are the two different ways the military personnel appropriation accounts for military personnel?
A

Hard dollar payments and base-level financial management reports

125
Q
  1. What are excellent sources of information on costs?
A

Supply documents such as the D04.

126
Q
  1. What events can cause a change in base and organizational funding?
A

Changes in base or organizational missions

127
Q
  1. Why is it important to prepare annual budgets?
A

They are used to justify allocation of funds from the next year’s budget.

128
Q
  1. Name some items you could use to help formulate an annual budget forecast.
A

Review D04s, D11s, request letters, and other issue and/or request documents from the past year.

129
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Air Force Government-Wide Purchase Card Program?
A

To supplement normal acquisition support, enhance contingency contracting operations, reduce acquisition lead-time, and improve vendor payment processes

130
Q
  1. Who designates the approving official?
A

The commander or chief of an activity requiring an account will prepare a written letter of appointment
designating the proposed cardholder and approving official

131
Q
  1. What does the approving official use to annotate monthly and single purchase limits?
A

AF Form 4009, Government Purchase Card Fund Cite Authorization

132
Q
  1. List the three primary functions that manpower standards define.
A

Tasks recognized as necessary work for mission accomplishment, primary work drivers or WLFs within a work center, the number of authorizations that a work center needs to accomplish its mission.

133
Q
  1. What factors are used to determine work load factor 4724?
A

The number of aircrew sorties flown and the number of life preservers and life rafts maintained

134
Q
  1. What system do you use to limit airborne dust and moisture in a facility to acceptable levels?
A

Air-conditioning and/or filtration system.

135
Q
  1. What type of material should be used in the floor of an oxygen section?
A

Constructed of non-organic material (concrete or ceramic tile).

136
Q
  1. Where in the facility should the office be located?
A

Located near the work center entrance.

137
Q
  1. When are materiel improvement projects (MIP) established?
A

Whenever a deficiency, improvement, or enhancement is determined to warrant further investigation or consideration and are used to monitor and control actions relating to it.

138
Q
  1. What forms are completed by the DR originating point?
A

SF 368 (or equivalent worksheet or approved automated reporting system); DD Form 2332, and DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag Materiel. AFTO Forms 349 and 350, if applicable.

139
Q
  1. Which DR activity point assigns the report control number?
A

Screening point.

140
Q
  1. What agency is usually responsible for holding and shipping DR exhibits?
A

Base supply or the permanent forward control exhibit holding area

141
Q
  1. Within how many working days after receipt of disposition instructions are Cat I DRs shipped?
A

2 calendar days.

142
Q
  1. What agency is available to provide assistance to resolve problems with maintenance procedures or production that are beyond the capability of the maintaining command?
A

AFMC ALC.

143
Q
  1. If the technical assistance that you receive results in a waiver or deferment of a specific maintenance action, what must the engineer or equipment specialist provide?
A

The authorization in writing, along with any associated limits and parameters.

144
Q
  1. What must maintaining commands do upon receipt of an O&I level maintenance request?
A

Certify that all reasonable alternatives for accomplishing the work have been exhausted and it is beyond the command’s capability.

145
Q
  1. What TO contains the proper format for maintenance assistance requests?
A

TO 00–25–107.

146
Q
  1. What information must be included on all requests for maintenance assistance?
A

The MDS or TMS of the equipment involved including the serial number for serialized items

147
Q
  1. What information must be included in requests for maintenance assistance on non-end items of equipment?
A

NSN and nomenclature

148
Q
  1. What actions should be taken by the SM and/or IM upon receipt of a routine request for assistance?
A

They will formally confirm receipt of all routine requests for maintenance assistance and notify all addressees of the intended course of action within four duty days after a repair disposition or decision is developed and major command certification is received

7Level (4 decks)

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