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7Level > URE Vol 2 > Flashcards

URE Vol 2 Flashcards

1
Q

*201-What technical order explains how Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS) works?

A

00-5-1

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2
Q

*201-What system currently provides immediate (near-term) improvements in war fighter capability to manage and electronically distribute both paper and electronic technical orders (eTO)?

A

Enhanced Technical Information Management Systems (ETIMS)

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3
Q

*201-The Joint Computer-Aided Acquisition and Logistics Support System (JCALS) is primarily used by

A

technical order (TO) managers

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4
Q

*201-What strategic steering group is chartered to improve the quality of technical orders (TO), define policy, and develop procedures required to achieve the Air Force digital TO vision and concept of operations (CONOPS)?

A

Centralized technical order management (CTOM) organization

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5
Q

*202-What base level agency administers and manages the time compliance technical order (TCTO) program?

A

Wing plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section.

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6
Q

*202-Time compliance technical order (TCTO) kits are not necessary for

A

condition or inspection TCTOs

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7
Q

203-Which of these criteria is not used in the submission of an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22?

A

Cost savings of more than 50 dollars.

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8
Q

*203-In which category is a technical order (TO) improvement that, if not approved, would result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel and impede the mission?

A

Emergency

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9
Q

204-Which technical order would you check to find a list of addresses for the appropriate technical order management agency (TOMA)?

A

00–5–1

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10
Q

204-Responsibility for making sure an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission rests with the

A

supervisor

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11
Q

*205-The Air Force supply system must immediately respond to the constantly changing needs of its customers and requires

A

more flexibility than any civilian supply system

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12
Q

205-Three characteristics of the Air Force supply system that are of prime importance include manageable segments based on

A

a geographical and a functional basis, as well as on a classification system

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13
Q

205-What facets are paramount in the Air Force supply system due to its complexity?

A

Manageability of segments and performance of specialized functions

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14
Q

205-As a supply customer, how many primary points of contact within base supply do you have and what are they?

A

Four; customer service, retail sales, demand processing, and equipment management

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15
Q

205-What supply point of contact will document your request for assistance and notify you of actions taken?

A

Customer service

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16
Q

*205-What element of supply would you contact if you want to obtain steel-toed boots?

A

Retail sales

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17
Q

*206-What two codes does the uniform material movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS) use to provide a method for identifying the importance of requisitions?

A

Force activator designator (FAD) and urgency of need designator (UND)

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18
Q

206-What level(s) of command share the responsibility for maintaining an effective and credible priority system?

A

All levels

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19
Q

*206-Who designates (approves) force activity designator (FAD) I assignments?

A

Secretary of Defense, with the opinion of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

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20
Q

206-Urgency of need designators (UND) are used to identify

A

mission capability degradation, and determine priority

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21
Q

206-High priority requests inflate the overall cost of assets by increasing

A

transportation and handling costs

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22
Q

*206-Urgency of need designator “A” is used when

A

lack of an item causes inability to perform the mission

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23
Q

*206-What type of position must appointed individuals occupy when the commanding officer designates them to review urgency of need designator (UND) requests?

A

Management-level positions

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24
Q

*207-How many priority elements do base supply personnel use when responding to your needs?

A

Two

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25
Q

207-Mission capable (MICAP) procedures may be initiated only after verification that the requirement cannot be satisfied using base-level resources. Who makes this verification?

A

Supply and maintenance personnel

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26
Q

207-What was mission capable asset sourcing system (MASS) designed to do?

A

Improve the efficiency of mission capable (MICAP) processing and the management of MICAP requirements

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27
Q

207-All of the statements are functions of the mission capable asset sourcing system (MASS) except

A

revent abuse and misuse of uniform material movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS)

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28
Q

207-What is the maximum standard terminal date for order and shipping time (O&ST) normally required for the logistic system to deliver the requisitioned materiel?

A

Standard delivery date (SDD)

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29
Q

*207-What priority system tells base supply personnel how much time they have to deliver a part in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement?

A

Required delivery date (RDD)

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30
Q

207-The day (calendar date) materiel delivery must be accomplished in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement describes the

A

required delivery date (RDD)

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31
Q

*208-For a transfer of equipment between custodians, personnel in the equipment management element (EME) process an inter-custody receipt transfer, the purpose of which is to

A

prevent spending allocated funds

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32
Q

*208-What form is used to request changes to the allowance standard retrieval system (ASRS)?

A

AF Form 601

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33
Q

*208-What form is used to request an item that is in the allowance standard retrieval system (ASRS) and requires wing-level approval?

A

Air Force (AF) Form 2005

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34
Q

208-What form is submitted with justification by the senior maintenance officer if the maximum repair cost of an equipment item exceeds 75 percent of replacement cost, but is less than $2,500?

A

Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 375

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35
Q

209-When is a report of survey (ROS) not required?

A

Property is lost in combat operations

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36
Q

*209-You may voluntarily pay for the property when the value of the loss is

A

$500 or less

37
Q

*210-Usually, what types of items are the only ones listed in allowance documents?

A

Nonexpendable

38
Q

21*-Who may initiate requests for changes to allowance standards?

A

Any activity

39
Q

210-The equipment management element controls and issues

A

test equipment

40
Q

*210-Which Air Force Form is used for turn-in of excess or unserviceable property?

A

2005

41
Q

*210-Standard equipment reporting designator (SRD) codes are designed to identify

A

specific model, design, and series of weapon systems and ground CE equipment

42
Q

*210-When ordering equipment items using AF Form 2005, “MEMO” indicates

A

organizational funds are unavailable

43
Q

210-To which supply element would you send requests for supplies?

A

Demand processing

44
Q

210-What are the categories of supply-type items that require turn-in?

A

Recoverable and consumable

45
Q

210-What expendability, reparability, recoverability code (ERRC) identifies consumable items?

A

XB3

46
Q

210-What forms do equipment custodians send to the equipment management element (EME) in order to ask for turn-in of equipment on the custodian authorization/custody receipt listing

A

AF Form 601 or AF Form 2005

47
Q

210-To turn-in equipment that is beyond economical repair (condition condemned) requires the signature of

A

a qualified aircrew flight equipment maintenance inspector

48
Q

210-Organizations may turn-in all types of items listed below directly to the Receipt in Place Location (RIPL), except

A

EAID equipment

49
Q

*211-The first four digits of a national stock number identify the national

A

supply classification code (NSC)

50
Q

*211-The last nine digits of the national stock number (NSN) represent the national

A

item identification number (NIIN)

51
Q

*212-Review the D04, daily document register, for

A

due-out releases and cancellations

52
Q

212-Upon reviewing a D04, you notice a transaction code (TIC) of DUO which means an item is due

A

out or back ordered

53
Q

*213-On the M30, due-out validation listing, due-outs for urgency of need (UND) C equipment are validated

A

quarterly

54
Q

*213-What is indicated by a budget code of 9 on the M30, due-out validation listing?

A

General support - O&M funded

55
Q

213-What type issue is the demand code R on the M30, due-out validation listing?

A

Recurring issue

56
Q

213-What transaction code (TIC) code on the M30, due-out validation listing, indicates a forced charge has been made against operations and maintenance (O&M) funds?

A

IPU

57
Q

*214-The D18, priority monitor report, only lists parts that have an urgency of need (UND) code of

A

A

58
Q

*214-On the D18, priority monitor report, an asterisk in the “Memo and/or firm due-out indicator” column indicates the item

A

has funds obligated

59
Q

*214-Which supply status code on the D18, priority monitor report, is for an item being processed for release and shipment?

A

BA

60
Q

*215-On the D23, due-in from maintenance listing, which column would contain the term MAINT OFF ATTN REQ?

A

PHRASE

61
Q

*216-If a custodian has more than one organizational code assigned,

A

a separate custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) will be printed for each code

62
Q

*216-How are adjustments made on the original custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) when equipment is taken on a deployment?

A

Adjustments are made in pencil

63
Q

*217-Forecasting reports on life sustaining items are prepared annually and cover a minimum of

A

Six years

64
Q

*217-Whom must item managers provide with annual forecasts for time change items?

A

Wing superintendent

65
Q

*217-Over what period do conventional munitions reports project munitions usage?

A

Six years

66
Q

*218-For resource management, what is the lowest level of a cost center (CC)?

A

Flight

67
Q

*218-In resource management, which individual is the responsibility center manager (RCM)?

A

Squadron commander

68
Q

*219-At what level in the United States Air Force (USAF) are many of the basic decisions determining the level of expenditures of resources decided?

A

Headquarters (HQ) USAF and MAJCOMs

69
Q

*219-What type of appropriations finance most of the day-to-day cost of running an Air Force base?

A

Operations and maintenance (O&M)

70
Q

220-The responsibility for planning, directing, and coordinating the activities of subordinate organizations rests with the

A

responsibility center (RC) manager

71
Q

220-On a day-to-day basis, responsibility for regulating the consumption of work hours, supplies, equipment, and contract services in the production of things or the performance of tasks rests with the

A

cost center (CC) manager

72
Q

221-Which procurement appropriation provides for the fabricating and procuring aircraft weapon systems, miscellaneous aircraft requirements, and technical data?

A

3010

73
Q

221-Which procurement appropriation provides for the procurement of direct and indirect ground weapon support materiel, other industrial facilities, equipment and modifications, and investment-type spares?

A

3080

74
Q

222-Which statement regarding excess funds at the end of fiscal year is not true?

A

You can transfer it to the next fiscal year

75
Q

223-A key program in managing your budget will be your organization’s use of the

A

Air Force Government-Wide Purchase Card Program

76
Q

*224-Mismatched data on the unit personnel management roster (UPMR) refers to

A

mismatched skill levels

77
Q

225-What should be done to ensure environmental and personnel control within an aircrew flight equipment facility?

A

Entrances should be limited

78
Q

225-What technical order list the minimum standards for deployed facilities?

A

15X-1-1

79
Q

*226-Category II deficiency reports (DR) must be submitted within how many working days after the discovery of a deficiency?

A

3

80
Q

*226-What activity is responsible for resolution of a deficiency report (DR)?

A

Action point

81
Q

226-When are messages used to report deficiency reports (DR)?

A

When automated means are not feasible

82
Q

*226-What is the maximum number of days a deficiency report (DR) exhibit should be held pending response when the exhibit is to be transferred to another DOD component?

A

60

83
Q

226-Category II deficiency reports (DR) are classified as

A

deficiency and improvement reports

84
Q

227-Maintenance assistance is provided in technical assistance, organizational and/or intermediate level maintenance, and un-programmed depot maintenance categories. Who provides this assistance?

A

Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

85
Q

227-Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) can provide authorization to do all of the following except

A

purchase items not listed on authorization documents

86
Q

227-What maintenance requests will be forwarded to the appropriate maintaining command?

A

Organizational and intermediate (O&I) level

87
Q

*227-What number format of equipment involved should all requests for maintenance assistance include?

A

MDS or TMS

88
Q

*227-The system manager and/or item manager (SM/IM) will reply to all emergency requests for maintenance assistance within how many hours after receipt?

A

Four

7Level (4 decks)

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