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7Level > Self Test Vol 1 > Flashcards

Self Test Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What three fundamentals must be applied in order for sound safety standards to be effective?
A

Commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and individuals must be involved. Standards must be available and understandable. Procedures must be available to ensure compliance with the standard.

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2
Q
  1. What is the most common method of making sure safety standards are being applied?
A

By conducting inspections

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3
Q
  1. What must occur if safety training is to be effective?
A

Trainee must be inspired to make it part of their life.

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4
Q
  1. Name a simple way to make safety training more interesting.
A

Guest speaker, have a worker present the materiel.

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5
Q
  1. How is the Federal Hazard Communication Training Program (FHCTP) documented?
A

AF Form 55

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6
Q
  1. Where is the master material data safety sheet file usually located?
A

BES

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7
Q
  1. Which class of ground mishaps is the most common?
A

Class D

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8
Q
  1. What form must you fill out if an Air Force civilian employee is injured while on duty?
A

AF Form 739

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9
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the ISIB?
A

Assist the SIB.

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10
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the SIB?
A

Prevent future mishaps.

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11
Q
  1. What is the role of the Aircrew Flight Equipment member of the SIB?
A

Assist the Flight surgeon.

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12
Q
  1. What one factor takes precedence over a safety investigation?
A

Safety.

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13
Q
  1. What occurs when the mishap site is off base and its exact location is unknown?
A

The initial response element proceeds to the predestinated assembly point and awaits further instructions.

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14
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of the DRF?
A

For pinpointing and determining how to reach an off-base mishap as quickly as possible.

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15
Q
  1. Why would an aircrew flight equipment technician be tasked to participate in an autopsy?
A

To ensure any AFE equipment is removed correctly.

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16
Q
  1. How are physiological event defined?
A

In-flight episodes of a physical, physiological, medical, pathological, psychological, pharmacological, or toxicological nature which compromise performance, confuse, disorient, dull, distract, pain, endanger or incapacitate

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17
Q
  1. How are physiological mishaps reported?
A

Class E flight mishaps.

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18
Q
  1. What causes most mishaps?
A

A series of events that usually include one or more unsafe acts.

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19
Q
  1. What is the only sure way to prevent accidents or mishaps?
A

Eliminate all unsafe acts and conditions.

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20
Q
  1. What is the goal of the explosives safety program?
A

To reduce the number of accidents and minimize the results of the mishaps that do occur.

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21
Q
  1. Who is responsible for conducting weapons safety training?
A

The base or unit Weapons Safety Officer or NCO.

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22
Q
  1. What is required when explosives operations are not covered in sufficient detail by standard publications?
A

Local written safety standards.

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23
Q
  1. What are the requirements for an explosive safety checklist?
A

It must be comprehensive and include all aspects of maintenance and explosives operations.

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24
Q
  1. What must you do if you discover unsafe conditions or material?
A

Report the unsafe condition or materials to your supervisor and warn others of the hazard.

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25
Q
  1. In what type of vehicles can explosives be transported?
A

Acceptable military vehicles.

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26
Q
  1. At least how many fire extinguishers must be on board each explosives-laden vehicle?
A

Two

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27
Q
  1. Why are government vehicles used to transport explosives, inspected daily?
A

To ensure that mechanical conditions and safety appliances are in good order.

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28
Q
  1. Why must aircrew flight equipment explosive components, be carried in protective containers?
A

To prevent item-to-item contact and so prevent damage to the component or inadvertent actuation.

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29
Q
  1. What is the fundamental principle to observe when planning and conducting any explosives operation?
A

Expose the fewest number of people to the smallest amount of explosives for the shortest period of time necessary to do the job in a safe and efficient manner.

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30
Q
  1. What are explosive limits based on?
A

The minimum quantity of explosives necessary for the operation.

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31
Q
  1. What must explosives have to be acceptable for normal storage?
A

An assigned hazard classification

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32
Q
  1. What is the total quantity of explosives that may be held in the aircrew flight equipment shop storage?
A

The quantity won’t exceed the total number of complete sets for the number of aircraft in maintenance

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33
Q
  1. Why must certain items having the same nomenclature be assigned to different compatibility groups?
A

Because of variations in the basic characteristics of some models and types.

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34
Q
  1. Why is it necessary to segregate serviceable and unserviceable explosive items?
A

To prevent the possibility of installing an unserviceable item in a survival kit.

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35
Q
  1. Why do aircrew flight equipment shops need an explosive facility license?
A

Because they’re used to store explosives outside of the explosive storage area.

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36
Q
  1. Before issuing an explosive facility license to an aircrew flight equipment shop, the explosive safety representative will perform a physical inspection of the proposed facility to ensure that it meet four requirements. What are these requirements?
A

1) It must be possible to secure the structure or room used for storage, (2) items must be protected from moisture and high temperature, (3), all fire and explosive safety rules must be observed, and (4) fire symbols must be readily available.

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37
Q
  1. In addition to the explosive safety representative, who is required to coordinate on explosive facility licenses?
A

The Base Fire Chief and the Security Police.

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38
Q
  1. Who assigns the number in item 3 of the AF Form 2047 and how is the number composed?
A

The Installation Explosives Safety Officer assigns the number which consists of the last two digits of the calendar year and a serial number assigned in numerical sequence.

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39
Q
  1. Who is the certifying official for Section III of the AF Form 2047?
A

Your unit commander.

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40
Q
  1. What information is entered in the remarks section?
A

Type of fire extinguishers required, conditions of approval, expiration date, reasons the request was disapproved (if applicable), your comments, TO references, personnel limits, etc.

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41
Q
  1. As a supervisor, what type of qualities do your subordinates look for from you?
A

Guidance and their mentor.

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42
Q
  1. What type of training is designed to satisfy the knowledge portion of your upgrade training?
A

Nonresident

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43
Q
  1. Which type of training is conducted by VTT? What’s the advantage of this training (if any)?
A

Live video teletraining where the students and the instructor are geographically separated. The advantage is
that VTT is used when “real-time” instructor/student interaction is required.

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44
Q
  1. Who is responsible for determining the overall direction of training in an AFS?
A

The AFCFM.

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45
Q
  1. List the feedback options available to you for improving training quality.
A

(1) Field interview.
(2) Field evaluation questionnaire/Training evaluation report.
(3) Graduate assessment survey.
(4) Customer service information line.
(5) Occupational survey report and Utilization & training workshop.

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46
Q
  1. What information do you need to have before forecasting your training needs?
A

The number of people who need training, what kind of training is needed, and when the training is needed.

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47
Q

010When you receive new or transferred personnel, what should you strive to determine?

A

What the trainee already knows or doesn’t know

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48
Q
  1. Reviewing the documents in the AF Form 623 will help you with what action for new personnel?
A

Defining training requirements.

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49
Q
  1. Why is it so important to conduct an initial evaluation of your trainee’s qualification?
A

This step is crucial because new workers want to know how they fit into the organization. They need to know what your expectations are and what they need to do to satisfy them.

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50
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a training waiver?
A

To provide the means for saving training resources without affecting career field progression or the mission when people possess qualifications that are equivalent to the established requirements

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51
Q
  1. Which Air Force instruction or manual would you follow to submit a training waiver request?
A

AFI 36–2101.

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52
Q
  1. Who starts the training waiver process?
A

You, the supervisor.

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53
Q
  1. What happens if there is a disagreement between the Personnel Employment Section and the Base Education and Training Manager?
A

Both people will provide the MPF Commander the rationale to support their position.

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54
Q
  1. What does the CFETP provide for supervisors?
A

Provides the necessary information for functional and training managers, supervisors, and trainers to plan,
develop, manage, conduct, and evaluate a very effective, productive, and efficient career field training program.

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55
Q
  1. What is in Part I of the CFETP?
A

(1) A preface explaining what the CFETP is all about.
(2) Abbreviations and terms applicable to the CFETP.
(3) General information about the purpose, use, and coordination of the CFETP.
(4) Career progression information concerning our Air Force specialty.
(5) Skill level training requirements—what it takes to move up the career ladder.
(6) Resource constraints (if any) that might affect the way training is conducted.
(7) Transitional training guide as an implementation plan to restructure an AFSC.

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56
Q
  1. Where in the CFETP would you find the training courses available for your AFS?
A

Training course index in Part II.

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57
Q
  1. What should you do prior to using the CFETP?
A

Ensure you’re using the latest edition.

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58
Q
  1. What’s the easiest way to learn how to use the CFETP?
A

Simply read it

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59
Q
  1. What are the two most important CFETP issues to you at your level?
A

(1) Getting comments and concerns up the chain of command to the FM.
(2) Correctly using the CFETP to guide and help you conduct effective and efficient training.

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60
Q
  1. Describe the four columns of the STS.
A

(1) Column 1 contains the tasks, knowledge, and technical references.
(2) Column 2 contains the core tasks the AFCFM and MFMs identify as the minimum upgrade qualification requirements within an AFS or duty position.
(3) Column 3 contains certification for OJT. This column simply provides the space to document the dates and initial’s for the various tasks listed in column 1.
(4) Column 4 contains the proficiency codes used to indicate training/information provided.

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61
Q
  1. How do various combinations (mixing and matching) of the STS proficiency codes relate to the student?
A

The combinations (mixing and matching of the codes) indicate to what level of task knowledge and task performance the student is to perform.

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62
Q
  1. Describe the AFJQS.
A

It’s a comprehensive task list that AFS CFMs prepare to describe a particular job type or duty position

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63
Q
  1. Regardless of whether or not an AFJQS is used, what other document must you maintain?
A

A copy of an STS for each AFS authorized on the UMD.

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64
Q
  1. What are the three simple steps to follow when developing or revising an AF Form 797?
A

(1) Determine what the task is and its title.
(2) Determine any subtasks required.
(3) Determine the TRs.

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65
Q
  1. What determines when a task is a “task” and not just a duty?
A

If the action isn’t observable, measurable, and has a beginning and an end, then it’s not a task; instead, it’s either a part of a task or a duty.

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66
Q
  1. How are tasks and subtasks identified on the 797?
A

Number the tasks consecutively; letter the subtasks.

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67
Q
  1. What’s the definition of an OSR?
A

An all-inclusive survey of all the tasks within an AFS.

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68
Q
  1. What’s the main use of the OSR data?
A

Aids in determining what goes in column 1 of the STS.

69
Q
  1. What are the three parts of an OSR?
A

(1) USAF job inventory.
(2) Task difficulty booklet.
(3) Training emphasis booklet.

70
Q
  1. What two products does AFOMS provide in the OSR?
A

The actual Occupational Survey Report and the Training Extract.

71
Q
  1. What’s the main role of the MAJCOM representatives at a U&TW?
A

Review, discuss, and vote upon the “who, what, when, and where” of training for the next two to three years.

72
Q
  1. Before AETC can provide training, what resources must be available?
A

Facilities, equipment, and personnel.

73
Q
  1. The strawman STS are developed using what data source?
A

OSR

74
Q
  1. How are training problems identified by the MAJCOMs addressed at the U&TW?
A

Once the actual workshop begins, the first agenda item discussed is any training problems identified by the MAJCOMs. These problems become “action items.” As such, they’re documented and put in the meeting minutes to be corrected within a suspended timeframe set by the AFCFM.

75
Q
  1. How are disagreements about the STS handled during a U&TW?
A

Each MAJCOM (except AETC) has one voting representative. If a particular item can’t be agreed upon, a vote is taken. If the issue becomes deadlocked, the AFCFM has the final decision.

76
Q
  1. What should you do prior to assigning individual work duties?
A

Evaluate the individuals OJT records.

77
Q
  1. What is a pilot unit responsible for?
A

Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details.

78
Q
  1. What is the ultimate goal of every QA program?
A

Produce quality aircrew flight equipment to aircrew every day.

79
Q
  1. As a minimum, what percentage of equipment will be QCI’d?
A

10 percent

80
Q
  1. What form(s) may be used to document QC inspections?
A

AF Form 2420

81
Q
  1. What form(s) may be used to document QC inspections?
A

AF Form 847

82
Q
  1. What AFI would you use to write an operating instruction?
A

AFI 33–360, Volume 1, Air Force Content Management Program—Publications

83
Q
  1. What form is used to administer a support agreement?
A

Support agreements administered by the Air Force are normally documented on DD Form 1144.

84
Q
  1. What are MOAs used for?
A

MOAs and MOUs are used to define areas of broad agreement between two or more parties.

85
Q
  1. What is the underlying purpose of a CTK program?
A

To eliminate the potential for foreign object damage (FOD) to aircraft and reduce tool cost

86
Q
  1. Your tools should be inspected periodically for serviceability according to what publication?
A

TO 32–1–101, Use and Care of Hand Tools and Measuring Tools.

87
Q
  1. What should be removed from tools before installing them in a CTK?
A

Remove pocket clips from tools when possible (flashlights, continuity testers, small screwdrivers, etc.) before placement in tool kits.

88
Q
  1. What instruction establishes the process for managing the acquisition process?
A

DODI 5000.2.

89
Q
  1. How many phases are there in the acquisitions processes and what are they?
A

4; Concept and Technology Development, System Development Demonstration, Production and Deployment, and Operations Support.

90
Q
  1. What is the MDA is responsible for at milestone A?
A

Approves the initiation of concept studies, approves concept exploration exit criteria, designates a lead component, as appropriate, and issues the acquisition decision memorandum (ADM).

91
Q
  1. When is development of a mission need statement required?
A

MNS are mandatory for needs that cannot be met through changes in tactics, strategy, doctrine, or training. They are required when solutions require a new development, new procurement, or upgrade of an existing
system.

92
Q
  1. Who develops the operational requirements document?
A

The lead operating command.

93
Q
  1. Name the three subsections of the Aircrew Flight Equipment System.
A

Operational environment, escape and descent, and survival and recovery

94
Q
  1. What office is responsible for “cradle-to-grave” management of military systems and functions as the single point of contact for users?
A

HQ AF Materiel Command and/or HSG.

95
Q
  1. On fielded systems, what is DT&E used to accomplish?
A

Used to extend the useful military life of systems, increase current performance capabilities, analyze materiel deficiencies, and implement solutions.

96
Q
  1. What does DT&E conducted during acquisition provide?
A

Provides complete and reliable data for estimating the military utility of new systems or items, and forms the basis for making decisions to continue the acquisition process.

97
Q
  1. When will contractors conduct DT&E?
A

In the acquisition strategy

98
Q
  1. Why is OT&E conducted in an environment as realistic as possible?
A

To determine the system’s operational effectiveness and operational suitability, and to make sure operational requirements are met.

99
Q
  1. Why is initial operational test and evaluation (IOT&E) conducted?
A

To determine the operational effectiveness and suitability of systems undergoing R&D efforts.

100
Q
  1. What is the first step in developing a lesson plan?
A

Research.

101
Q
  1. Who tailors down the Master Lesson Plan that your unit will use?
A

Each group AFEO or AFES will complete this tailoring down to the AFMLP

102
Q
  1. What are the three parts of an objective statement?
A

Task, condition, and standard

103
Q
  1. What regulation gives guidance to MAJCOMs, ANG, and AFRES for Aircrew Flight Equipment continuation training program?
A

AFI 11–301 Volume 1.

104
Q
  1. List the “hands-on” training categories?
A

Hands-on equipment training in courses, LL01, LL02, LL03, LL04, LL05, and LL06.

105
Q
  1. What system does the aircrew flight equipment officer use to document training?
A

In aviation resource management system (ARMS)

106
Q
  1. What is the objective of an EAP?
A

To ensure personnel know the immediate actions to take in the event of an emergency

107
Q
  1. What is the standard that governs the EAP?
A

29 CFR 1910.38, Emergency Action Plans standard.

108
Q
  1. Where must an EAP be kept?
A

Must be kept at the workplace and made available for employee review.

109
Q
  1. According to AFI 10–403, what does each squadron have to develop?
A

Installation deployment plan (IDP).

110
Q
  1. Who is the installation commander’s representative during all deployments?
A

Installation deployment officer (IDO).

111
Q
  1. What is required of the UDM?
A

Is the unit deployment representative who receives and coordinates all the unit tasking, fills unit requirements, and coordinates the unit shortfalls

112
Q
  1. What is the function of the DCC?
A

Provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises or deployments, including the host unit and base tenants

113
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of the CDF?
A

Responsible to the DCC for ensuring all transportation actions required to process and load all passengers and cargo for deployment are accomplished

114
Q
  1. Who does the PDF fall under?
A

Under direct control of the DCC.

115
Q
  1. What are the LRU responsibilities?
A

The coordination center on logistics needs for the aircraft that have deployed

116
Q
  1. What AFI governs the basic requirements for AF deployment planning?
A

AFI 10–403.

117
Q
  1. What are the five stages in the deployment process?
A

Site survey, Mobilizing, Deployment, Employment, and Redeployment

118
Q
  1. Explain the limited base category
A

Are austerely manned locations, having everything found at a bare base with the addition of some facilities and personnel (though it may be sparse) capable of assisting maintenance and supply actions.

119
Q
  1. Describe the difference between shortfalls and LIMFACs
A

A shortfall is something that adversely affects the command’s ability to accomplish its mission, whereas a LIMFAC is a personnel or materiel deficiency, problem, or condition that has a critical negative impact on the ability of a unit to perform its wartime mission and requires the aid of HHQ to resolve.

120
Q
  1. What is ART?
A

Is a web-based, non-intrusive, html-environment tool with associated databases to support collection, collation, and report generation of unit and aggregate UTC readiness data.

121
Q
  1. Who is in-charge for overall AF current operations, readiness and training?
A

Directorate of Operations (HQ USAF/A3O)

122
Q
  1. What units in the AF are required to use ART?
A

All Air Force units including Air National Guard and Reserve components owning UTCs allocated in an AEF or designated an enabler.

123
Q
  1. How often do AF and AF gained units submit UTC assessments?
A

Every 30-calendar days.

124
Q
  1. How long does a commander have to submit an out-of-cycle report?
A

Within 24 hours.

125
Q
  1. What is the rated capacity of each of the rings on a 463L pallet?
A

Up to 7,500 pounds (lbs).

126
Q
  1. What is considered a misuse of a 463L pallet?
A

Using 463L pallets for purposes other than pre-palletizing and transporting cargo.

127
Q
  1. When moving pallets over ground surfaces, what three things should you not do?
A

Do not lift or raise the 463L pallets by engaging the forklift tines to the rail lip or corner of the pallet and do not push, pull, or slide them (empty or loaded) over ground surfaces.

128
Q
  1. How many rows of dunnage should you use to place under pallets and what should the measurements of dunnage used be?
A

Three rows of dunnage

129
Q
  1. How often are pallets inspected when being stored for mobility/contingency?
A

Semiannually

130
Q
  1. What do you look for during an inspection on a pallet?
A

Signs of corrosion, warpage, delamination, damaged rails and loose or missing hardware

131
Q
  1. How does the delamination process work?
A

Suspected delamination may be checked by tapping the area with a coin or small hammer. A sharp sound will be heard if the area is good as opposed to a dull or clicking sound if delamination has occurred

132
Q
  1. When practical, where can a unit turn-in reparable pallets for a one-for-one exchange?
A

The closest AMC aerial port of embarkation (APOE)

133
Q
  1. What items makes a net assembly?
A

Two HCU-7/E side nets and one HCU-15/C top net

134
Q
  1. How often are nets inspected when stored as part of WRM?
A

Once each year on a staggered inspection basis

135
Q
  1. Who can replace the hardware on a net?
A

Aerial port personnel

136
Q
  1. How do you distribute heavier items when packing for deployment?
A

Evenly distribute heavy items from the center of the pallet outward.

137
Q
  1. Can you turn-in all assets pertaining to 463L pallets if your unit owns ISUs?
A

Possession of ISUs does not relieve a unit of their responsibility/requirement to maintain 463L pallets and nets.

138
Q
  1. What is key to the success of C-RW operations?
A

Operational Risk Management (ORM).

139
Q
  1. What will C-CW CONOPS use to implement procedures?
A

Existing resources under the auspices of the Air Force Emergency Management Program.

140
Q
  1. What is the information in the C-RW Concept Paper designed for?
A

To complement, not conflict with, the other elements of the Air Force counter-chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (C-CBRN) CONOPS.

141
Q
  1. What does the foundation of the C-RW portion of the C-CBRN CONOPS include?
A

The Concept Paper, C-RW Commander’s Guide, C-RW-related training materials, decision aids, and
operational risk management (ORM) tools.

142
Q
  1. What regulation is used as the single installation plan for comprehensive radiological response actions?
A

Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP) 10-2.

143
Q
  1. What is the goal of the C-RW operations?
A

To implement countermeasures that would prevent the entry of unauthorized radiological materials onto an installation, to keep personnel exposure ALARA, and to sustain critical mission capabilities.

144
Q
  1. Where are the RW threat assessments and intelligence reports analyzed?
A

Within the installation’s Threat Working Group (TWG).

145
Q
  1. What does mitigation include?
A

All activities designed to reduce or eliminate risks to persons or property or to lessen the actual or potential effects or consequences of a radiological event.

146
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the selection of the ACCA sight?
A

The base Civil Engineer Emergency Management and Readiness flight.

147
Q
  1. Define CHA.
A

The initial area within the ACCA where an aircrew flight equipment technician can be exposed to an aircrew that has been or is potentially exposed to a chemical or biological agent.

148
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the VHA?
A

To separate all airborne hazards before processing to the Toxic Free Area.

149
Q
  1. Why is it necessary to place the TFA’s main personnel rest and recovery area 200 yards away from the boundary of the ACCA?
A

To protect personal from the hazard of shifting winds creating cross contamination as well as possible additional attacks.

150
Q
  1. What items should be packed in mobility bins for decontamination of equipment in the field for temporary continued use?
A

M291 and M295 decontamination kits, Clorox bleach: 5% chlorine solution.

151
Q
  1. What are the duties of an ACCA manager?
A

Duties include, but are not limited to, ensuring the line is properly staffed, monitoring work and proper rest cycles, site location, equipment requirements, coordinating waste disposal with CE, and coordinating medical aid for personnel showing signs of illness

152
Q
  1. After the ACCA manager processes the direction of the wind what must occur next?
A

Attach color-coded rope to a fixed point at ACCA entrance and string rope in heading desired for approximately 100 meters and secure opposite end of rope at ACCA exit area.

153
Q
  1. How must all equipment be positioned during the ACCA process?
A

Directly into wind

154
Q
  1. How many chemical agent detectors must be available?
A

Four detectors

155
Q
  1. What is the M295 decontamination kit?
A

This mitten has one side that is impregnated with a charcoal powder, thus allowing the attendant to dust or “pat-down” the aircrew member.

156
Q
  1. How many areas are located within the ACCA?
A

Four

157
Q
  1. Why is it important to register all Cospas-Sarsat 406 MHz emergency beacons?
A

The information you furnish is used by Search and Rescue (SAR) agencies in the event of beacon activation.

158
Q

034.When mailing off the registration forms how long does it take to be loaded into the database?

A

within 2 business days of receipt

159
Q

034.How often do you have to re-register the Cospas-Sarsat 406 MHz emergency beacons?

A

Every two years.

160
Q
  1. What are the two factors that give an NVG the ability to create an image during nighttime?
A

NVGs are sensitive to a greater range of available energy in the night sky, NVGs intensify the available energy to which they are sensitive

161
Q
  1. What are the four natural sources of illuminations discussed?
A

Moonlight, Chemical reactions, starlight and aurora and zodiacal lights

162
Q
  1. What is the typical resolution range of a current NVG?
A

20/25 and 20/40 when optimally adjusted.

163
Q
  1. How many times better is an individual’s eyesight when using NVGs during night?
A

Five times better than unaided night vision

164
Q
  1. What does FOV refer to?
A

Refers to the total instantaneous area covered by the NVG image

165
Q
  1. What are the three basic design approaches used for head mounted NVG systems?
A

Binocular, biocular, and monocular.

166
Q
  1. What are the three assumptions discussed when discussing NVG capabilities?
A

The aircraft is NVG compatible, the environmental conditions are favorable, and the NVG has been properly adjusted.

167
Q
  1. How do NVGs aid during night navigation?
A

Navigation by allowing the aircrew to visualize waypoints and features that would otherwise be impossible to see.

168
Q
  1. What are the four limitations of the NVG?
A

System design characteristics, Environmental conditions, Physiological considerations and Aircraft type/Design Considerations.

7Level (4 decks)

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