[SEM2] PATHO #3 Flashcards by

Which one of the following is NOT involved in the etiology of systemic hypertension?
(1 Point)
A. Arteriolosclerosis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Conn’s syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma

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The following statements about an atherosclerotic aneurysm of the aorta removed from a 65-year-old man are true, except:
(1 Point)
A. If the lesion was more than 6 centimeters, it would have most likely ruptured.
B. The wall of the aorta revealed cystic medial necrosis.
C. The lesion was situated below the renal arteries.
D. His male sex is typical for this condition.

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A 25-year-old man develops acute onset of fever, malaise, muscle pain, hypertension, abdominal pain, bloody stool, and prerenal failure 6 months after recovering from an acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following will a biopsy of the patient’s disease process reveal?
(1 Point)
A. Temporally dissimilar lesions without giant cells
B. Temporally similar lesions with giant cells
C. Temporally dissimilar lesions with giant cells
D. Temporally similar lesions without giant cells

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A 20-year-old man develops purpura, fever, and hematuria after penicillin treatment for a streptococcal infection. Skin and renal biopsies reveal vasculitis involving arterioles and venules. Multifocal microscopic hemorrhages and glomerular necrosis are also noted. No immune deposits are noted in skin or kidney biopsies. These clinical laboratory and pathologic features are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Microscopic polyangiitis
B. Henoch-Schӧnlein purpura
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Wegener granulomatosis

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Which one of the following is NOT a complication of pulmonary hypertension with cor pulmonale?
(1 Point)
A. Chronic passive congestion of the liver
B. Splenomegaly
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Peripheral edema

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A cyanotic infant is found to have a ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and complete pulmonic stenosis. Which of the following accompanying congenital anomalies permits survival in this patient?
A. Ostium secundum defect
B. Preductal coarctation of aorta
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
D. Patent ductus arteriosus

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Microscopic examination of the heart of a patient with long-standing valvular heart disease finds a granulomatous lesion. This lesion contains reactive histiocytes with a caterpillar-like appearance, surrounded by interstitial edema and fibrinoid necrosis. Which of the following valvular lesions is suspected in this patient?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Mitral valve prolapse

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Echocardiography reveals a solid mass filling the left atrium in a 45-year-old woman with signs and symptoms of mitral valve obstruction. Histopathology finds the tumor composed of stellate cells within an abundant myxoid matrix. The familial form of this tumor is associated with extracardiac anomalies in:
A. Naxos syndrome
B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
C. Carney syndrome
D. Tuberous sclerosis

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A bone marrow biopsy is done for the staging of a non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Histologic examination shows a focal paratrabecular pattern of marrow involvement. This pattern is most consistent with which of the following lymphoid neoplasms?
(1 Point)
A. Small lymphocytic lymphoma
B. Follicular lymphoma
C. Lymphoblastic lymphoma
D. Burkitt lymphoma

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Biopsy of an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node shows bands of fibrosis, lacunar cells, and focal necrosis. Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of the patient with this lymph node disease?
A. The patient with this lymph node may have other lymph nodes involved.
B. The patient with this lymph node is most likely a young adult.
C. The patient with this lymph node most likely has an immunoglobulin spike.
D. The patient with this lymph node should also undergo a bone marrow biopsy.

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A 10-year-old child is found to have a mandibular mass that on biopsy reveals a monotonous pattern of small non-cleaved lymphocytes. Which of the following statements is inconsistent with this finding?
A. Though it is fast-growing, leukemic transformation is uncommon.
B. A virus of the Herpesviridae family is present.
C. The child is from Africa.
D. This neoplasm is of T-cell origin.

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A 3-year-old boy presents with polyuria, exophthalmos, and multiple lytic lesions in the skull. The infiltrate is composed of CD1a-positive cells. This patient most likely has a neoplastic proliferation of which of the following cell types?
A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Histiocytes
D. Plasma cells

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A poor reticulocyte response would be expected in a patient with which of the following conditions?
A. Iron deficiency treated with ferrous sulfate after one week of therapy.
B. Untreated folate deficiency
C. Congenital spherocytosis
D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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A clinical pathologist finds normocytes, “helmet” cells, an increase in the number of leukocytes, and a decrease in the number of platelets on peripheral blood smear examination. These blood findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Gram-negative sepsis
B. Beta-thalassemia
C. Massive splenomegaly
D. Hereditary spherocytosis

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Abdominal ultrasound of which of the following patients would most likely reveal a normal-sized spleen?
A. An African teenager with Hgb SS on electrophoresis
B. An elderly man with tear-drop cells and nucleated red cells on peripheral blood smear
C. A Jewish boy with Gaucher cells on bone marrow aspirate
D. An African man with trophozoites and schizonts on peripheral blood smear

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A 25-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of mild anemia. Physical exam finds mild splenomegaly. His lab tests reveal normal liver serum enzyme levels and a negative DAT. However, His red blood cells demonstrate an increased susceptibility to lysis in hypotonic solutions. Which of the following patterns of inheritance is most likely present with his condition?
A. Autosomal recessive, Asian ancestry
B. Autosomal dominant, European ancestry
C. X-linked recessive, Middle Eastern ancestry
D. Autosomal recessive, West African ancestry

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A 60-year-old man develops a non-productive cough along with a fever of 37.9°C. Chest X-ray shows a 4-cm diameter mass with an air-fluid level in the right lung. Sputum gram stain reveals mixed flora. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. S. pneumoniae infection
B. Aspiration of oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal contents
C. Chronic exposure to organic dusts
D. Chronic exposure to cigarette smoke

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A 30-year-old woman presents with a three-week history of persistent cough, intermittent flushing, and diarrhea. A chest X-ray and a bronchoscopy show a 2-cm diameter solitary well-defined mass projecting into the lumen of the mainstem bronchus. The mass is removed and sent to surgical pathology. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of the mass on microscopic examination?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Carcinoid tumor
C. Metastatic adenocarcinoma
D. Mesothelioma

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A thin 25-year-old Caucasian man presents to the emergency department because of wheezing and recurrent abdominal pain radiating to his back. He was recently treated for a severe respiratory infection. Further history reveals that he was diagnosed with a genetic condition based on a “sweat test” several years ago. This patient is at greatest risk for the development of which one of the following?
A. Pleural plaques
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma

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A 28-year-old nonsmoking Caucasian man presents with chronic lung disease limited to the lower lung lobes. His chloride sweat test is normal, and an abnormality is detected in a serum protein electrophoresis. Refer to the schematic diagram of the respiratory unit below (the letters A, B, and C represent three subdivisions of the unit). Which one of the following areas of the lung would exhibit evidence of this man’s disease?
A. Area A only
B. Areas B and C
C. Area B only
D. All areas

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A 70-year-old man has noted a small 0.7 cm nodule on the left lower side of his mouth. This lesion has been produced by obstruction of a minor salivary gland duct. This lesion is most likely to be a:
A. Calculus
B. Mucocele
C. Hematoma
D. Squamous papilloma

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A 50-year-old man with a long history of chewing tobacco is at risk for which one of the following?
A. Salivary duct lithiasis
B. Sjogren syndrome
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

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A 35-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4 count of 300 has confluent adherent white plaques on the upper surface of the tongue. Histologic examination of these lesions is most likely to reveal:
A. Multinucleated giant cells
B. Budding cells with pseudohyphae
C. Caseating granulomas
D. Spherules and endospores

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A pathologist receives a “postauricular mass” specimen removed from a 35-year-old man. Microscopic examination reveals a tumor with myoepithelial cells and an epithelial component on a background of myxoid stroma. Significant nuclear atypia is not seen, and mitoses are not apparent. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this tumor?
A. The tumor may arise from Sjogren’s disease.
B. The tumor is strongly associated with cigarette smoking.
C. The tumor never goes into malignant transformation.
D. The tumor has a high incidence of local recurrence.

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5. A 48-year-old woman presents with dysphagia for both solid and liquid foods that has slowly progressed in severity over the past year. It is associated with the regurgitation of undigested food, especially at night. Which among the four differential diagnoses should be number one on your list? A. Achalasia B. Esophageal cancer C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome D. Zenker diverticulum

6. A 45-year-old woman who was diagnosed with scleroderma 5 years ago presents to her physician with increasing difficulty swallowing. Which of the following abnormalities of esophageal muscle function most likely cause these symptoms? A. Atrophy of striated muscle in the lower two-thirds of the esophagus B. Atrophy of smooth muscle in the upper two-thirds of the esophagus C. Atrophy of smooth muscle in the lower two-thirds of the esophagus D. Atrophy of striated muscle in the upper two-thirds of the esophagus

7. A 40-year-old woman has had mild abdominal pain and nausea for several months. Upper GI endoscopy shows an irregular 3 x 5 cm area of loss of rugal folds near the antrum. Biopsies from this area reveal extensive mucosal and submucosal infiltration by a monoclonal population of B-cells. The lesion resolves with antibiotic therapy. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely to be associated with these findings? A. HIV B. HPV C. H. pylori D. S. bovis

8. A newborn with Down syndrome has constipation. Rectal exam finds no stool in the rectal ampulla. The proximal rectosigmoid is dilated on a radiograph. The mechanism most likely responsible for the patient’s disease is: A. Inspissated meconium owing to a defect in exocrine secretions B. An imperforate anus C. Atresia of the rectosigmoid owing to a defect in embryogenesis D. Absent ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses

9. Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma is in most instances a complication of which one of the following diseases? A. Tropical sprue B. Celiac sprue C. Crohn disease D. Peutz-Jegher syndrome

10. A patient is diagnosed with an inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following is not associated with ulcerative colitis? A. Entire colon is affected B. Presence of granuloma C. Formation of pseudopolyps D. Presence of inflammatory cells infiltrating the mucosa and submucosa

1. A 35-year-old woman presents with vomiting dark, greenish fluid material approximately 1 hour after eating. She is scheduled for a barium meal to evaluate the upper portion of the gastrointestinal tract. She denies pain and is anicteric. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her condition? A. Esophageal atresia B. Pyloric stenosis C. Gallstones D. Annular pancreas

2. In which one of the following conditions is fatty change of the liver, not a feature? A. Alcohol abuse B. Viral hepatitis C. Obesity D. Kwashiorkor

3. A 40-year-old woman diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic complaining of severe and constant right upper quadrant pain over the past 2 days. Physical examination reveals an enlarged liver. What other finding would most likely be seen at presentation? A. Hyperpigmented skin B. Esophageal varices C. Ascites D. Asterixis

4. Which of the following histopathologic changes is most likely to be seen in liver tissue obtained from a patient with yellow fever? A. Periportal necrosis B. Midzonal necrosis C. Centrilobular necrosis D. Bridging necrosis

5. A 55-year-old man presents with flank pain and blood in his urine without dysuria. He has experienced weight loss and fever over the past two months. Which among the four diagnoses should be number one on your list of differentials? A. Pyelonephritis B. Nephrolithiasis C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Acute glomerulonephritis

6. Which of the following primary glomerular diseases would most likely progress into chronic glomerulonephritis? A. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Membranous glomerulonephritis D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

7. An 8-year-old boy is being assessed for recurrent hematuria and progressive nerve deafness, especially to high frequencies. A renal biopsy finds foam cells in the glomeruli and tubules along with thinning, splitting, and fragmentation of the basement membrane. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely present in this child? A. Infection with verotoxin-producing coliform B. A hereditary defect in the renal transport of neutral amino acids C. The presence of C3 nephritic factor in the serum D. A lack of the glomerular domain of type IV collagen

8. Which one of the following histologic changes is most characteristic of class IV lupus nephritis? A. Thickening of the glomerular capillaries forming a “wire-loop” appearance B. Mesangial deposits forming a “holly leaf” pattern C. Thickening of the basement membrane forming a “spike and dome” appearance D. Splitting of the basement membrane forming a “tram-track” appearance

9. Ulceration of the male external genitalia is least likely with infection by: A. T. pallidum B. H. ducreyi C. HPV D. C. granulomatis

10. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to predispose an elderly man to develop penile squamous intraepithelial neoplasia? A. HSV infection B. Phimosis C. Epispadias D. Balanitis xerotica obliterans

1. Physical examination of a 35-year-old man finds a left inguinal mass which is consistent with a cryptorchid testis. The right testis is palpated in the scrotum and is of normal size. What should be done about the cryptorchid testis? A. Surgically place testis into scrotum B. Do chromosomal analysis C. Removal D. Removal along with the opposite testis

2. A 32-year-old man presents with an enlarged right testis. He had an elevated serum AFP; the HCG was also slightly elevated. The testis is removed, and gross exam finds a 5-cm soft reddish-brown mass. Histopathology of the mass reveals cords and sheets of primitive cells with large nuclei. The most likely diagnosis of the mass is: A. Teratoma B. Leydig cell tumor C. Choriocarcinoma D. Embryonal carcinoma

3. Which one of the following is least likely to progress into cancer? A. Atypical ductal hyperplasia in the breast B. Endometrial polyp C. Endometrial hyperplasia D. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III

4. A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea, cold intolerance, coarse hair, weight loss, and fatigue. She has a history of abruptio placenta and failure of lactation two years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis of this woman? A. Pituitary tumor B. Premature ovarian failure C. Ashermann syndrome D. Sheehan syndrome

5. A 61-year-old obese woman presents with profuse vaginal bleeding over the past month. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. She has a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. She is nulliparous. What condition should rank the highest in your differential diagnoses? A. Endometrial cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Endometrial hyperplasia D. Endometrial polyps

6. At autopsy, the stomach is removed from a 65-year-old woman who had a history of epigastric distress and weight loss. Her stomach has an appearance and consistency of a “leather bottle.” Also, both her ovaries are enlarged and firm on cut section. Which one of the following factors is not associated with this lesion? A. Signet ring cells B. Virchow’s node C. Early detection D. Krukenberg tumors

7. A 35-year-old woman has a palpably firm irregular mass in the right breast that demonstrates calcifications by mammography. Biopsy of this mass reveals extensive fat necrosis. The most likely etiology for this condition is: A. Fibrocystic changes B. Lobular carcinoma in situ C. Pregnancy D. Trauma

8. A 42-year-old woman with a 9-cm soft, fleshy, breast tumor that microscopically has a lymphoid stroma with little fibrosis surrounding sheets of large vesicular cells with frequent mitoses is most likely which of the following? A. Cystosarcoma phyllodes B. Medullary carcinoma C. Lobular carcinoma D. Invasive ductal carcinoma

9. A 34-year-old man with moderately severe ulcerative colitis has been taking oral prednisone for 4 months. Which of the following symptoms is the most likely adverse effect of this drug? A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin B. Diabetes mellitus C. Diabetes insipidus D. Hypotension

10. A 24-year-old woman who has never been pregnant presents to her physician with galactorrhea. Her past medical history is significant for hypercalcemia and recurrent duodenal ulcers. Maternal family members have been diagnosed with a variety of tumors. Which of the following is the genetic inheritance pattern of this patient’s disorder? A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. Autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant

1. A 40-year-old man has paroxysmal hypertension. He is subsequently found to have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, and mucosal neuromas. Parathyroid involvement is not noted. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. MEN IIB B. MEN IIA C. MEN I D. MEN III

2. A deficiency in which one of the following enzymes would result in hypokalemia, increased plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone, and increased urinary excretion of 17-hydroxycorticosteroids and 17-ketosteroids? A. 21-Hydroxylase B. 11 beta-Hydroxylase C. 17 alpha-Hydroxylase D. 3 beta-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

3. A 10-year-old child presents with growth retardation. Lab data reveals that the serum level of growth hormone is increased compared with normal. Further evaluation of this patient would likely show all the following, except: A. Decreased plasma levels of insulin-like growth hormone B. Decreased plasma levels of growth hormone-binding protein C. Increased hypothalamic secretion of somatostatin D. Increased lipogenesis

4. A 30-year-old woman has chronic, silvery-white, scaly patches with an erythematous border on the skin of her knees and elbows. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this condition? A. Large vessel vasculitis B. Autoimmune disease C. Fungal disease D. Granulomatous disease

5. A 5-year-old boy, hospitalized for cellulitis, exhibits global denudation of the skin resulting from splitting of the epidermis at the stratum granulosum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Scalded skin syndrome B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Tinea corporis D. Impetigo

6. Which of the following statements regarding a nevus or nevi found on the skin of a 32-year-old man is incorrect? A. Most melanomas arise from nevi. B. Nevus cells are a morphologic variant of melanocytes. C. Nevi evolve from junctional to compound to intradermal lesions. D. Some nevi may not be pigmented.

7. Biopsy of a 4-mm rough, tan, and slightly raised skin lesion on the face of a 65-year-old man shows atypical basal cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm but persistent intracellular bridges. The stratum corneum is thickened, and parakeratosis is noted; the remainder of the epidermis is thinned. Which of the following features would also probably be seen in the dermis? A. Large numbers of spindle-shaped fibroblasts B. Blue-gray elastic fibers C. Touton giant cells D. Malignant nevus cells

8. An 11-year-old boy presents with an enlarging, painful lesion involving the medullary cavity of his right femur. X-rays find an irregular destructive lesion that produces an “onion-skin” periosteal reaction. Histologic findings reveal sheets of uniform small, round, “blue cells”. This lesion is most likely associated with: A. t (14;18) B. t (11;22) C. t (x;18) D. t (9;22)

9. The appearance of irregularly thickened bone showing a mosaic of both osteolysis and osteogenesis in multiple sites in vertebrae, pelvis, and humerus is most often seen as a condition involving bone in a patient with which of the following histories: A. 11-year-old woman with precocious puberty B. 76-year-old man with congestive heart failure C. 5-year-old girl with multiple long bone fractures and blue sclerae D. 85-year-old woman with fracture of femoral neck

10. A 65-year-old woman with a long-standing disease has bone marrow fibrosis and increased bone remodeling, with bone resorption exceeding bone formation. She has a history of passing calcium-oxalate kidney stones. Which of the following lab result profiles would be expected in the serum of this patient? A. Decreased calcium, increased phosphate, decreased PTH B. Increased calcium, increased phosphate, increased PTH C. Increased calcium, decreased phosphate, increased PTH D. Decreased calcium, increased phosphate, increased PTH

1. Along the extensor surface of the forearm of a 42-year-old woman, a firm, non-tender, 1-cm rounded subcutaneous mass can be felt. Microscopic examination of the nodule reveals an area of central necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells. Which one of the following lab findings is most likely to accompany this lesion? A. Positive rheumatoid factor B. Anti-Jo-1 C. Elevated ANA D. Monoclonal gammopathy

2. A 57-year-old woman has a recurrent myxoid liposarcoma of the upper thigh and inguinal region. The most effective treatment for this patient would be which one of the following? A. Hemipelvectomy B. Localized radiation C. Local excision and regional lymphadenectomy D. Chemotherapy

3. Which of the following is the most common hereditary neuropathy? A. HMSN I B. HMSN II C. HSAN II D. HSAN I

4. Which of the following statements best distinguishes type I from type II muscle fibers? A. Type I muscle fibers are the dominant fibers in the bicep muscle. B. Type I muscle fibers are rich in mitochondria. C. Type I muscle fibers function best in anaerobic exercise conditions. D. Type I muscle fibers are rich in glycogen.

5. Onion bulb formation is seen in the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease B. Refsum disease C. None of the three options are exceptions D. Dejerine-Sottas neuropathy

6. A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with a left parotid pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon resects the tumor but opts to remove a portion of the facial nerve to obtain an adequate margin. A 2-cm nerve graft was placed in the resected area. Which of the following tissue responses is the most likely outcome 1-week post-op? A. Wallerian degeneration in the distal part of the facial nerve B. Trauma-induced neuroma formation C. Group atrophy of the facial muscles D. Tumor recurrence along the nerve graft

7. For several months, a 37-year-old woman has noted increasing fatigue toward the end of the day. She makes more mistakes typing, and she can hardly keep her eyes open. She seems better in the morning. A month later, she has difficulty swallowing and speaking. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present? A. Muscular fasciculations B. Acetylcholine receptor degradation C. Inflammation of skeletal muscle D. Symmetric lower limb muscle atrophy

8. A 50-year-old nonsmoker complains of frontal headaches. During the work-up, a CT scan locates a necrotic mass in the frontal lobe that crosses over the corpus callosum into the other hemisphere. The mass is most likely derived from: A. Choroid plexus B. Ependymal cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Astrocytes

9. Which one of the following tumors retains the cellular features of undifferentiated primitive neuroectodermal cells? A. Ganglioneurocytoma B. Medulloblastoma C. Pilocytic astrocytoma D. Oligodendroglioma

10. Tuberous sclerosis differs from neurofibromatosis in which of the following ways? Tuberous sclerosis: A. Is associated with mental retardation B. Includes skin abnormalities C. Is associated with hamartomas D. Is an autosomal dominant condition

1. Small cystic lesions in the lenticular nucleus, thalamus, and internal capsule are most closely associated with: A. A genetic disease B. A demyelinating disease C. Embolism D. Hypertension

2. A 70-year-old man has a history of transient episodes of vertigo, dysarthria, and dysphagia. He also has numbness of the ipsilateral face and contralateral limbs that lasts for 10-15 minutes and then resolves without any deficits. The mechanism for this patient’s disease is most closely associated with: A. Deficiency of dopamine B. A demyelinating disease C. Ischemia involving the vertebral artery D. A cerebellar tumor

3. A 40-year-old man presents with a recurrent history of headaches and panic attack-like symptoms. Physical examination finds hypertension, multiple light brown macules, and axillary freckles. Which familial tumor syndrome is consistent with these findings? A. Von Hippel-Lindau disease B. Type II neurofibromatosis C. Type I neurofibromatosis D. Tuberous sclerosis

4. A 6-month-old child diagnosed with retinoblastoma undergoes eye enucleation. To which of the following structures should the pathologist pay particular attention when evaluating the eye specimen? A. Cornea B. Vitreous C. Anterior chamber D. Optic nerve

5. A patient with a progressively growing neck mass experiences heat intolerance, heat loss, and bulging of the eyes. What is the likely cause of the eye bulging? A. Infection of the vitreous humor B. A tumoral mass effect C. Optic neuritis D. Fibrosis and enlargement of the extraocular muscles

You decide to do a Fecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT). What is the principle behind this test? A. Sandwich test B. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry C. Chromogen as an indicator for an oxidation reaction D. Heme Immunofluorescence

The FOBT is positive. What would this look like? A. Fluorescent pattern on polarized microscopy B. A red color change C. A blue to dark blue color change D. Absorption at 713 nm

The lab calls you later on, telling you of an erroneous Potassium of 9.2 mmol/L. This reporting in itself is part of the: A. Postanalytical phase B. Analytical phase C. Preanalytical phase D. Metanalytical phase

You discover that the sample for the test in the previous question had a hemolyzed sample because of improper extraction. This error is part of the: A. Preanalytical phase B. Analytical phase C. Metanalytical phase D. Postanalytical phase

This patient has what type of anemia? A. Microcytic, Hypochromic B. Microcytic, Normochromic C. Normocytic, Normochromic D. Normocytic, Hypochromic

Which of the following tumor markers do you expect to be increased? A. CA 15-5 B. CEA C. PSA D. Alkaline Phosphatase

What other thing in the stool could indicate an ulcerating lesion, such as that produced by a colonic carcinoma? A. Monocytes B. Undigested food C. Fibers D. Mucus

1. What blood finding is most likely to be present in this patient? A. Neutrophilic leukocytosis B. Blasts C. Increased eosinophils D. Giant platelets

2. The attending suggests a blood culture (CS). The blood for this test should be extracted: A. Last B. After ionized electrolytes C. First D. After clotting studies

3. What finding is expected upon doing a bronchial lavage in this patient? A. Cowdry type B cells B. Flagella C. Acid-fast bacilli + D. Negri bodies

4. Instead of a blood culture, what specimen could be taken from this patient to help with the initial diagnosis? A. Urine B. Sputum C. Skin scraping D. Feces

5. The type of hypersensitivity reaction seen in an infection with this organism is: A. Type II B. Type I C. Type IV D. Type III

6. Suppose that in this patient, there were no findings that suggest a bacterial infection. Your attending then suspects a parasitic infection. What is the most likely parasite that mimics these kinds of symptoms? A. Taenia solium B. Giardia lamblia C. Trichinella spiralis D. Paragonimus westermani

7. This patient eventually needed a blood transfusion. Three potential donors arrive: 🟢Donor A was imprisoned for 3 days in June 2019 🟢Donor B had COVID last week and still has occasional cough 🟢Donor C uses anti-acne medication Which of the following donors will you accept? A. None of them B. Donor C C. Donor B D. Donor A

8. A suitable donor arrives and you extract blood from him. What blood product is suitable to give to this patient? A. Cryoprecipitate B. pRBC C. Platelet concentrate D. Whole blood

1. Based on the laboratory findings, this patient’s endocrine problem lies with: A. The organ itself (a primary thyroid problem) B. The pituitary gland (a secondary thyroid problem) C. The hypothalamus (a tertiary thyroid problem) D. None of the three options

2. Which of the analytes described above is the most biologically active (or most potent) fraction of thyroid hormone in circulating blood? A. T4 total B. TSH C. Free T4 D. T3

3. Based on the lab results, what is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis of this patient? A. Riedel fibrosing thyroiditis B. Late stage Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis C. Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma D. Graves’ Disease

4. Suppose this patient had thyroid function tests that showed low T3 and T4 with increased TSH, and a thyroidectomy that reveals thyroid parenchyma that is completely replaced by lymphoid follicles and Hurthle cells/oncocytes. What would the diagnosis be this time? A. Graves’ Disease B. Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma C. Late stage Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis D. Riedel fibrosing thyroiditis

1. A young child presents with salt wasting and virilizing symptoms and is diagnosed with a capillary heel test to have the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia. This child most likely has: A. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid deficiency B. 21-hydroxylase deficiency C. 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency D. 17-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

2. What lab finding or radiologic feature would lead you to the diagnosis of Cushing’s Disease (and not just any type of Cushing’s Syndrome)? A. Cortisol levels of 40 mcg/L (normal: 5 to 25 mcg/dL) B. None of the above C. No suppression with high-dose dexamethasone test D. A suprasellar mass on CT scan

3. You do a skin prick test on a patient with a suspected allergy to hayseed. After a few minutes, a wheal and flare reaction appears on the skin. Which of the following is true? A. Measuring the wheal and flare increases reproducibility B. If the reaction measures 2mm, this is considered positive C. Recording the exact reaction size is not necessary D. This test must be conducted with a positive and negative control

4. Refer to the table. When did this patient contract Hepatitis B? (Assume that the patient is not a carrier) A. This patient is unvaccinated and has not contracted HBV yet B. A long time ago C. This patient is vaccinated and has not contracted HBV yet D. Very recently (less than 2 weeks after infection)

5. Seok-woo is a medical student tasked with performing blood extraction on a middle-aged patient. The doctor’s orders are as follows: For 1) CBC w PC, 2) PT/PTT, 3) CA 19-9 determination, and 4) Blood CS x 2. What is the correct order of draw for this patient? A. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 B. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 C. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1 D. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2

6. Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of glycogen storage diseases (GSDs)? A. When considering GSDs that involve muscle, rule out muscular dystrophies as well B. Amniotic fluid analysis may be done for pregnant women C. Blood glucose analysis may help in diagnosis D. All three options are true

[SEM2] PATHO #3 Flashcards

(100 cards)