Session 7 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Where are the lymphocytes in lymph nodes?

A

T cells in the parafollicular cortex and B cells in the lymphoid follicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give a little bit of information on B and T lymphocytes

A

• Produced by the bone marrow
• T cells mature in the thymus
• B cells mature in tissues following contact with Antigen
• Present in the blood
• ∼5-15%B cells, ∼70% of cells
• Accumulate in key lymphoid tissues
o Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
o Lymph nodes
o Spleen
• Lymphadenopathy
Occurs when B and T cells are activated by the antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three clinically important lymph node regions?

A

Neck (Cervical)
Armpit (Axillary)
Groin (Inguinal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How are antigens recognised by T lymphocytes?

A

• Antigen recognition receptor recognises the MHC associated peptide.
o T cell receptor (TCR): αand βchains with a variable and a constant region. Antibody binds in both alpha and beta chain in the variable region. this doesn’t activate the T cell though.
o After binding, there’s signal transduction to CD3 complex which signals lymphocyte to activate.
o Accessory molecules (CD4 or CD8)
• Diversity of antigen receptors
o Combinatorial diversity (>10^16 possible TCR)
• Forms of antigen recognized
o Peptides displayed by MHC molecules
• Different subtypes
o Helper T cells (CD4+) recognise peptide presented by MHC class II molecules
o Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) recognise peptide presented by MHC class I molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the limiting factor in T cell recognition?

A

Not the TCR as variable region has so many different possible configurations to bind with a massive variety of MHC associated peptides/antigens but instead it is the MHC molecule itself which can only bind to a limited number of peptides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which cells can present both MHC class I and class II molecules?

A

Only antigen presenting cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does costimulation work in T cell activation?

A

1st signal is from MHC associated peptide binding with TCR, second is from B7 protein binding with CD28 and third is cytokines released from APCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the products of T cell activation?

A

CD4+ T cells become T helper cells

CD8+ T cells become cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do cytokines help activate CD4+ T cells?

A
APCs send cytokines to naïve CD4+ t cells and based on the cytokine they differentiate into different subtypes:
IL-12 leads to TH1 formation
IL-4 leads to TH2 formation 
IL 1/IL6 leads to TH17 formation
IL10/TGFbeta lead to Treg formation

TH1 is the best CD4+ helper response that we have against most intracellular and some extracellular microbes because TH1 response can activate CD8+ cells helping them fully differentiate into cytotoxic T cells, enhance the phagocytic activity of macrophages and make chemokines that draw them in and encourage B cells to produce IgG or IgA which are appropriate to fight the infection. this combined immune response is best against intracellular pathogens and is called cell mediated immunity because its mostly based on the activation of macrophages and CD8+ T cells.

If the pathogen is purely extracellular then IL 4 will be produced causing naïve CD4+ cells to become TH2 and induce humoral immunity which is a antibody based response using primarily B cells. these B cells produce IgE which can opsonise large pathogens like parasites and worms. However they are too large to be phagocytosed so Eosinophils and Mast cells (in allergies) produce cytotoxic chemicals to kill the parasite.

TH17 goes on to recruit and activate neutrophils

Treg is involved in tolerance and immune suppression. these prevent the immune response from being excessive by stopping function of TH1 and TH2.

For intracellular pathogens we recruit TH1 and extracellular we recruit TH1 and TH2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are the effector functions of CD8+ T cells carried out?

A

Naïve CD4+ cells differentiate into TH1 which release cytokines to Effector CD8+ cells which go on to become cytotoxic T lymphocytes which go onto peripheral tissues and kill all of the infected cells (presenting MHC class I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is cross presentation?

A

APCs being able to activate both CD4+ and CD8+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why does lower CD4+ levels cause lower cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

A

CD4+ T cells can differentiate into TH1 cells which release cytokines to help CD8+ T cells fully mature into cytotoxic T lymphocytes so if CD4+ cells are low then there is less maturation of CD8+ cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill infected cells?

A

It recognises infected by cell by MHC class I presenting viral antigen. it then uses perforin to make a channel into the cytoplasm of the infected cell and then it sends granzyme into the cell which triggers apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do B cells recognise antigens?

A

• Antigen recognition receptor
o B Cell Receptor or BCR: Membrane bound antibodies
o Unique specificity for each cell
o Antigen binds to variable region called CDR.
o Has constant region made of 2 heavy chains and variable region made of 2 light chains

• Diversity of antigen receptors
o Combinatorial diversity (>10^11 type of BCR due to multiple genes coding for it with different possible combinations.)

• Forms of antigen recognized
o Macromolecules (proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids)
o Small chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is BCR different from TCR?

A

BCR can recognise native microbe (macromolecules (proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids) and small chemicals are possible antigens) whereas TCR can only recognise MHC class associated peptide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are B lymphocytes activated?

A

BCRs are crossed over so binding of one antigen activates 2 BCRs . This is the first signal. Signal is transduced and this causes increased B7 costimulators. Antigen is cleaved and taken into the B lymphocyte by endocytosis and the microbial peptide is taken in an endosomal vesicle and presented on MHC class II molecules to CD4+ T cells where the second signal comes from TCR engagement. Simultaneously B7 protein signals CD28 receptor in T helper cell. 3rd signal comes from CD40 ligand upregulation in the T helper cell and then this leads to proliferation and differentiation, antibody production and heavy chain isotype switching. First the CD4+ cells produce IgM but then after this they can switch to IgG, IgA or IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the outcome of B lymphocyte activation?

A

• Antibody production (soluble not membrane bound)
o IgM production is T helper independent and produced first
o IgG, IgA, IgE production is T helper dependent(isotype switch)
• Higher affinity as a result of maturation in antibody response so microbe can be detected in low concentration as a result of prolonged or repeated exposure
• Memory B cells can reactivated without the need for T cells.
o Upon re-challenge can give a faster, stronger and longer antibody response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which area of antibody determines isotype?

A

Heavy chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain antibody heavy chain isotype switching

A

initially B cells produce IgM which are Thymus-independent antigens but if activated by effect T helper cells (CD4+ T cells) they can switch isotype with the help of different cytokines to produce different IgG, IgE or IgA. IgG is arguably best as it can enter the peripheral tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does serum antibody concentration change over time?

A

Primary response first antibody to be produced is IgM with small amount of IgG but then with second exposure, due to B memory cells there are far more IgG antibodies and less IgM. the response is faster, stronger, with longer duration, higher affinity and with the isotype switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can we see if an infection is chronic or acute?

A

If acute IgM will be much higher as its first exposure but if chronic, infection will have already been present before so, memory cells will produce IgG so IgG will be much higher than IgM.

22
Q

What are the effector functions of different antibodies?

A
IgG 
Fc-dependent phagocytosis (opsonisation)  
Complement activation 
Neonatal Immunity 
Toxin/virus neutralization 

IgE
Immunity against helminths
Mast cell degranulation (allergies)

IgA
Mucosal Immunity
Present in breast

IgM
Complement activation

23
Q

What are the medical achievements derived from the study of the adaptive immune response?

A
• Disease prevention 
o Vaccination (or active immunization) 
• Immunoglobulin therapies 
o Immune deficiencies 
• Immediate protection 
o Passive immunization (antibody transfer) 
• Diagnostic tests (antibody-based) 
o Infectious diseases 
o Autoimmune diseases 
o Blood type and HLA types
24
Q

DiGeorgesyndrome is an immune deficiency resulting from an impaired thymic development. Which of the following immune components will be affected in these patients?

A

T and B cell function

25
CD4+ T cells that respond to intracellular pathogens by recruiting and activating phagocytic cells are termed what?
TH1
26
A healthy 8 month-old girl with fever and wheezing is diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RVS) infection. Assuming this is first exposure to the virus, which of the following mechanisms will clear the infection?
CTL-induced apoptosis of infected cells
27
Patients who do not have CD40L on their T cells (due to mutations) will likely produce an antibody response to staphylococcus aureus composed of what?
IgM
28
In the ward, a 65 yo female patient is developing a vesicular rash called shingles (caused by varicella zoster virus). This is a highly contagious disease with severe complications specially for the neonates, pregnant women and immunocompromised patients. Which MHC molecules are expressing the viral peptides? Which factors from the adaptive immunity will be used against the virus? One of the nurses in charge of the ward is 2 months pregnant. How would you check whether she has had chickenpox before? The test you have requested comes back negative. What does this mean? What should be done immediately to minimize the risk of serious infection?
MHC class I CD8+ cells cytotoxic T lymphocytes will kill infected cells. Cell mediated Immunity Look for IgG She's never had it before Immunoglobulin therapies Have her moved away
29
What's the difference between HIV and AIDS?
HIV is the virus and AIDS can be a consequence of HIV if left untreated.
30
Name some AIDS defining conditions
Oral candidiasis Kaposi’s sarcoma PCP - pneumocystis pneumoniae Generally only present when there's a weakened immune system
31
What are the four key aspects of viral structure and behaviour?
``` 1) Genome - RNA or DNA • Single-stranded (ss) • Double-stranded (ds) 2) Capsid – protein shell, protects the genome • Helical (rod-shaped or coiled) • Icosahedral (spherical or symmetric) 3) Lipid envelope – present or absent • Derived from host cell membranes • Contains virus-specific proteins (antigens) 4) Replication strategy ```
32
What is HIV?
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Retrovirus as it goes to DNA but then back to RNA • ssRNA→DNA →ssRNA Infects cells with CD4 surface receptor • T-helper lymphocytes • (Monocytes / macrophages) • HIV replicates inside cells  Destroys the cell  Causes inflammation  Spreads to / infects more cells
33
How does HIV replicate?
1. Free virus 2. Binding and fusion: Virus binds to a CD4 molecule and one of two coreceptors. Receptor molecules are common on the cell surface. Then the virus fuses with the cell. 3. Infection: Virus penetrates cell. Contents emptied into the cell. 4. Reverse transcription: Single strands of RNA are converted into double stranded DNA by the reverse transcriptase enzyme. 5. Integration: Viral DNA is combined with the cell's own DNA by the integrase enzyme. 6. Transcription: When the infected cell divides, the viral DNA is read and long chains of proteins are made. 7. Assembly: Sets of viral protein chains come together. 8. Budding: Immature virus pushes out of the cell, taking some of the cell membrane with it. 9. Immature virus breaks free of the infected cell. 10: Protein chains in the new viral particle are cut by the protease enzyme into individual proteins that combine to make a working virus.
34
How is HIV transmitted?
Contact of infected bodily fluids with mucosal tissue / blood / broken skin e.g through sexual contact, blood transfusions, contaminated needles. Perinatal transmission: Transplacental during delivery through an Infected birth canal As a result of ingestion of breast milk carrying the virus. *Medical procedures • Blood/blood-products, skin grafts, organ donation
35
Describe how symptoms and CD4 count change over the stages of HIV
Stage - Symptoms - CD4 count Primary HIV Infection -Asymptomatic or “Seroconversion” illness(Seroconversion is the period of time during which HIV antibodies develop and become detectable) - Normal / temporary drop Stage I - Asymptomatic - >500 Stage II - Mild - <500 Stage III - Advanced - <350 Stage IV or AIDS - Severe or AIDS defining - <200
36
What are the main symptoms of acute HIV?
``` Systemic: Fever and weight loss Pharyngitis Mouth: Sores and thrush Oesophagus: Sores Muscles: Myalgia (pain) Liver and spleen: Enlargement Central: Malaise, Headache and neuropathy Lymph nodes: Lymphadenopathy Skin: Rash Gastric: Nausea and vomiting ```
37
Chat conditions are associated with severe HIV?
Brain: Cryptococcal meningitis, Toxoplasmosis, AIDS dementia complex. Eyes: CMV (cytomegalovirus) Mouth and throat: Cold sores and ulcers, and thrush (oral candidiasis) Blood: Hyperglycaemia and dyslipidaemia (abnormal amount of fats in the blood) Lungs: Histoplasmosis (fungal infection in the lungs), PCP (Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia), TB Bone: Osteoporosis Heart: Heart disease, stroke Liver: HCV (Hepatitis C virus) Stomach: CMV (cytomegalovirus), cryptosporidiosis, MAC (mycobacterium avium complex) Reproductive system: Genital ulcers, HPV (human papilloma virus) and cervical cancer, menstrual problems, PID (Pelvic inflammatory disease), vaginal yeast infections (candidiasis) Whole body: HIV wasting syndrome
38
What are the factors affecting HIV transmission?
• Type of exposure - type of sexual act - transfusion vs needlestick vs mucous membrane • Viral level (viral load) in blood - Transmission unlikely if undetectable VL • Condom use • Breaks in skin or mucosa - other STI (Inflammation of genital tract) - sexual assault - more likely to have breaks in skin/mucosal membranes.
39
How does risk of exposure change with transmission method?
Blood Transfusion (one unit) 90-100% Receptive Anal Intercourse 1/90 (1.11%) Sharing Injecting Equipment 1/149 (0.67%) Mucous Membrane Exposure 1/159 Needlestick Injury 1/333 Receptive Vaginal Intercourse 1/1000 Insertive Vaginal Intercourse 1/1220 Insertive Anal Intercourse 1/1667 Oral sex ?0
40
What is the prognosis for people with HIV?
• HIV +ve: 78yrs • Early detection / good CD4 • Treatment • Adherence • Healthy living helps - Smoking, alcohol, metabolic problems • Late detection = worse prognosis (x10 risk death in 1st year)
41
What are the diagnostic tests for HIV?
* Blood tests - Serology * HIV antigen (Ag) – viral protein * HIV antibody (Ab) – immunoglobulin; immune response to antigen * Current test: detects both Ag and Ab * +ve in 4 weeks * Result on same day * May get false negative result * Blood tests – PCR: * Polymerase chain reaction * Detects HIV nucleic acid * Highly sensitive * Detects very early infection (few days) * Expensive; results slow (up to 1 week) * Not used for initial HIV testing * Used for follow-up / treatment response * “Rapid” tests – low cost, <1hr * Usually detect HIV antibody * Blood test (finger-prick) • Oral (saliva) * In-Home tests • Postal testing * If negative – accurate * May get false positive result * Need to confirm with serology
42
Who should be tested for HIV?
* Everyone! (If rate >2/1000 in population) * Resp: bacterial pneumonia / TB * Neuro: meningitis/dementia * Derm: Severe psoriasis Recurrent/multi-dermal shingles * Gastro: Chronic diarrhoea/weight loss ?cause * Haem: any unexplained blood abnormality * Onc: lymphoma, anal cancer * Gynae: Cervical intrapithelial neoplasia (CIN) * Any STI/ Hep B/ HepC
43
What strategies would you use to treat and reduce the prevalence of HIV?
•Anti-retroviral drugs (ARVs)
44
What are the aims of HIV treatment?
* Undetectable HIV viral load * Reconstitute CD4 count /immune system * Reduce general inflammation * Reduce risk of transmission * Good quality of life * Normalise lifespan
45
When does treatment start for HIV?
ASAP regardless of CD4 count as there are significant benefits in AIDS & non-AIDS morbidity and mortality
46
Why do we give 3 ARVs for treatment?
* Millions of rounds of viral replication each day * Virus mutates (changes/adapts) every 2-3 rounds * Resistance to drugs develops in days * 1 drug – resistance develops quickly * 3 drugs – harder to develop resistance * Patient must keep taking drugs
47
What strategies would you use to treat and reduce the prevalence of HIV?
* Increase condom usage * Prevention of mother-to-child transmission * ARV treatment as prevention * Medical circumcision * Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) * Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)
48
What are the ethical dilemmas of HIV?
``` •Psychological impact of diagnosis •Dealing with stigma •Patient confidentiality vs: - Health of mother - Health of unborn child - Health of sexual contact (husband) - Health of older child - Risk to patients / staff at workplace ```
49
When is HIV most infectious?
During initial infection at about 2-3 months
50
How can drugs target HIV reproduction?
inhibit reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease enzyme to prevent maturation