Shuffled Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is normally used for the notification process in a
chemical plant?
A
On-site public address system
2
Q
What is the highest strategic priority for any IC?
A
Life safety
3
Q
What is the biggest problem the IC manages by addressing site management?
A
People
4
Q
Locations within what distance of the incident will be
rapidly overtaken by the hazmat?
A
1000 feet (304 m)
5
Q
Who can be used to secure the perimeter inside the plant when operating on a private facility?
A
On-site security force
6
Q
What should be the minimum number of alerting methods that should used during a full-scale evacuation?
A
two
7
Q
Who is normally responsible for performing door-to-door
alerting?
A
Law enforcement
8
Q
Within what amount of time must the EAS be available to
the President of the United States using normal activation procedures?
A
10 minutes
9
Q
How many buildings are affected during a limited-scale
evacuation?
A
One or two
10
Q
How many times more expensive is a full-scale evacuation than sheltering-in-place for the manufacturing sector?
A
Fifteen
11
Q
How often will the vehicle have to stop to broadcast the
evacuation message when using a public address system on an emergency vehicle?
A
1000 feet (304 m)
12
Q
1000 feet (304 m)
A
0.5 air exchanges per hour
13
Q
In which situation is sheltering most effective?
A
Fast-moving toxic vapor cloud
14
Q
How many people are estimated to have evacuated Manhattan
Island on 9/11?
A
300,000 to 1 million
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when protecting-in-place?
A
Turn HVAC systems to recycle
16
Q
What should always be tested for when a sick building is
suspected?
A
Carbon monoxide
17
Q
What creates concern when a person has been evacuated?
A
Lack of information
18
Q
What will continue to arise when the IC launches into
tactical operations without first addressing basic site
management tasks?
A
Safety issues
19
Q
What should be the first point of control when confronted
with an incident inside a structure?
A
Points of entry
20
Q
What is the isolation perimeter between?
A
General public and cold zone
21
Q
At which location are people a majority of the time on an
average day?
A
Home
22
Q
Which of the following is NOT what you would expect when you encounter sick building syndrome?
A
Many people throughout the building with symptoms
23
Q
How much breathing air is typically in the cylinders of
the Emergency Breathing Apparatus?
A
5 to 10 minutes
24
Q
What unit should assume command initially at the hazmat
incident?
A
First arriving
25
What is the minimum number of people that each member is being observed by in the Hot Zone?
one
26
What is the only practical and cost-effective way of
moving large numbers of people with critical
transportation needs?
Commercial motor coaches
27
What may be the most prudent course of action for
| short-term releases?
Protect-in-place
28
Which statement about the command functions during the establishment of command by the first-arriving officer is NOT correct?
Select a movable location for the ICP
29
What zone should the emergency responders supporting the tactical hazmat response operation be located?
Warm and cold
30
Where is the most ideal way to approach the hazmat
| incident scene?
Uphill and upwind
31
What is generally seen as the maximum amount of time an older building can provide a safe refuge when
protecting-in-place?
One hour
32
Which of the following is NOT correct about what is needed before first responders can effectively perform rescue operations in a hazmat environment?
Have ICP staffed
33
What should an area with any measurable concentration of a contaminant be initially considered to be within?
Hot zone
34
Which of the alerting systems is the fastest at warning 25
| percent of the population?
Siren/fixed response
35
Who is the best resource to use when establishing
| isolation perimeters?
Law enforcement
36
With what minimum level of staffing can most Hot Zone
| operations be accomplished?
Four
37
Where should the Area of Refuge be established when
| civilians are exposed prior to responder arrival?
Hot zone
38
Which section is responsible for managing the staging
| area?
Operations
39
How often should the IC consider issuing a written
progress report to be posted at the shelter when the
incident covers a period of days?
Two times a day
40
What grades is Wally Wise Guy designed to reach about
| sheltering-in-place?
Kindergarten to fourth
41
What level incident will require the total evacuation of
all company personnel and the surrounding public to a
pre-designated location outside the immediate area?
III
42
Who is usually responsible for coordinating all personnel
| accountability activities at the fixed facility?
Supervisors
43
How far short of the scene does staging typically occur as part of initial response operations?
One city block in the direction of travel
44
Which oxygen level reading would place the area into the Hot Zone classification?
19.5%
45
Who manages the Personalized Localized Alerting Network?
FEMA
46
What is the cost to individual households for a full-scale
| evacuation?
Seven times the cost to shelter-in-place
47
What percentage of the population is it estimated will
| need to shelter when evacuated?
35%
48
Which of the following should be used for security at an
| evacuation shelter?
Police officer
49
What area must the IC gain control of when achieving
| public protective actions objectives?
Beyond isolation perimeter
50
Which of the following specialized tanks consist of
| seamless cylinders permanently mounted inside an open frame?
Tube modules
51
Where will the physical or chemical hazard statement be
| located?
Side panel
52
At what temperature are products in a refrigerated storage tank stored?
Near boiling point
53
How many openings are usually found on closed head drums?
Two
54
In which type of packaging can spent nuclear fuel be
| expected to be found?
Type B
55
What letter is used to indicate a leakage test on the
| cargo tank?
K
56
Up to what maximum allowable working pressures can be found in non-pressure tank containers?
100 psig
57
What is located at the "B-end" of the railroad tank car
| that is used as the initial reference point?
Hand brake wheel
58
What is the minimum number of required labels that must be displayed on or near the closure of the container on an
aircraft?
One
59
Which commodity accounted for the largest member of
| fatalities between 2000 and 2009?
gasoline
60
What is the only reliable method to identify cylinder
| contents?
DOT label
61
Which type of packaging is used to transport limited
| quantities of smoke detectors?
Excepted
62
Which has little significance to responders?
EPA Establishment Number
63
What working pressure range is seen with the dome roof
| tank?
2.5 to 15 psi
64
Which of the following is the title of the shipping paper
| when transported by highway?
Freight bill
65
What can be used to determine the capacity of a pressure tank car?
Tank car marking
66
What should you do if you cannot identify the material?
Classify it
67
Where are the reporting marks and number generally found on the intermodal portable tank container?
Right-hand side (as you face it from either side) and on
68
What is transported in the pneumatically unloaded covered hopper car?
Dry, solid materials
69
What is used to provide emergency venting in the cone roof
| tank?
Weak roof-to-shell seam
70
Where are pressure relief devices typically incorporated
| on a portable tank or "tote"?
Container fill lid
71
What letter means the rail car is not owned by a railroad?
X
72
What color in the NFPA 704 marking system indicates the
| reactivity of the material?
Yellow
73
What size range is seen in industrial high pressure
| horizontal tanks?
1,000 to 120,000 gallons
74
```
What pressure range of the tank is indicated by the tank
marking T4 (74)?
```
<1.47 (21.3 psig) bar pressure test
75
What must a liquefied oxygen tank be over?
Concrete pad
76
What helps to identify the open floating roof tank?
Wind girder around the top of the tank shell and roof
| ladder
77
What may be done to identify liquid lines on the high
| pressure spherical tank?
Paint them
78
How many compartments are normally found in an intermodal
| portable tank container?
one
79
Where may a wide band of corrosion-resistant paint be
found running vertically on the non-pressure tank car
transporting strong corrosives?
At the manway
80
How long are the contents of the cryogenic liquid tank car protected from ambient temperatures?
30 days
81
What is the maximum number of bottles allowed to be in
| multi-cell packaging?
6
82
Where on the front label panel will the toxicity signal
| word be found?
Center
83
What is primarily stored in the cone roof tank at petroleum storage facilities?
Combustible liquids
84
For which of the following is an exemption required if the
| material is being transported in a "super sack"?
Liquid hazardous materials
85
What color will fire protection piping normally be
| painted?
Red
86
What material is most often used to construct uninsulated
| cylinder containers?
Steel
87
What do a vast majority of water treatment plants have on site in large quantities?
Chlorine
88
What color plate is used for the cargo tank truck
| combination of MC-306 or DOT-406?
Red
89
Where do molten sulfur tank trucks frequently have a large breathing air cylinder attached?
Near the trailer's ladder
90
What color candy-striped border on any cargo paperwork
| will indicate the presence of hazardous materials?
Red
91
How long is the fire test that is conducted on Type C
| packaging?
60 minutes
92
What letters before the four-digit identification number
| can be used for domestic and international shipment?
UN
93
Which hazard zone is applied to the most toxic material?
Zone A
94
What type of heads are found on ton containers?
Concave
95
If a material being shipped is a mixture of four hazardous
materials, what is the minimum number of technical names that most predominantly contribute to the hazards of the mixture that must be listed on the shipping papers?
Two
96
Which of the following is NOT a performance test conducted on nonbulk packaging?
Vacuum test
97
What is the portable bin designed to be moved with?
Forklift
98
What is in place when a pipeline crosses under a road?
Marker
99
Where are Dewars containers commonly found?
Laboratories
100
What route of transport are materials in Type C packaging moved?
Aircraft
101
Until what date can distributors continue to ship products
| using older hazcom labels?
December 1, 2015
102
What determines proper placard and label(s)?
Hazard class
103
What hazard class is NOT primarily transported in the high pressure cargo tank truck?
Gasoline
104
What is the maximum allowed capacity for compressed gas in nonbulk packaging?
Water capacity of 1,001 pounds (454 kg)
105
Which of the following senses offers some protection at
| the hazmat incident?
Vision
106
Which part of the railroad tank car marking "AAR 201T100C F-1" designates the type of material used in the tank
construction?
"C"
107
What percent active ingredients is indicated by the word
| "Technical" with the product name?
70% to 99%
108
What is typically last in the product cycle for a liquid
| petroleum pipeline?
Regular gasoline
109
Approximately what percentage of releases occur during
| transport of chemicals?
25%
110
What color is the label that must be attached to the
| package of materials that can only be transported on cargo aircraft?
Orange and black
111
Where on the driver's side of the cargo tank truck will
| the manufacturer's specification plate be mounted?
Front third of the tank
112
What material is typically used to make the gastight outer
| shell of the cryogenic liquid storage tank?
Carbon steel
113
Up to what amount of material may wooden boxes contain?
550 pounds
114
Which DOT standards apply to the specialized cryogenic
| tank containers?
Spec 51
115
What is the outer shell of the cryogenic liquid cargo tank
| truck filled with?
Insulation
116
Where is the specification marking stamped on the rail car where it is not readily visible?
Heads
117
What percentage of the total number of tank containers
| worldwide do IM-101 and IM-102s account for?
Over 90%
118
Where is the dry caustic soda off-loaded of the dry bulk
| tank truck?
Bottom
119
What will the first set of numbers on the railroad tank
| car designate?
Class designation
120
What portion of the MC-331 specification tanks are painted a light reflective color?
Upper two-thirds
121
Where are values and fittings on the non-pressure tank
| containers located?
In top spillbox
122
What color label would warn responders of transformers and equipment that is PCB-laden?
Black-on-yellow
123
Which is considered the workhorse of the chemical
| industry?
Low pressure chemical cargo tank truck
124
How are the majority of radioactive material shipments
| made?
Roadways
125
What color plate is used on a non-specification cargo tank truck?
Blue
126
What is the first clue for the recognition and
| classification of any hazmats involved?
Occupancy and location
127
Up to what capacity of an oxidizer may be found in a
| "composite IBC"?
500 gallons
128
What material is used to construct the frame of the
| "composite IBC"?
Steel
129
What is the outer protective jacket on the cryogenic
| cylinder made from?
Metal
130
What type of bottle is generally used for transport of
| light sensitive and reactive materials?
Brown glass
131
What is the service pressure range of pressure tank
| containers?
100 (6.8 bar) to 500 psi (34 bar)
132
Which of the following is the most common multi-purpose
| configuration of the cargo tank trucks?
DOT-407 and DOT-412 units
133
What is used in the NFPA 704 marking system to indicate
| materials that demonstrate unusual reactivity to water?
W with a line through it
134
What radioactive label will be found when the maximum
| contact radiation level ranges from 50 mrem/hour to 200 mrem/hour?
Yellow III
135
What is the third most common hazard class?
Corrosive materials
136
Which identification method can be done the farthest
| distance from the material?
Container shapes
137
Where is the discharge on "super sacks" often located?
Bottom
138
How are flexible intermediate bulk containers transported in open and closed transport vehicles?
On pallets
139
Which packing group indicates minor danger?
PG III
140
What is commonly found in a carboy?
Caustics
141
What is the inner containment vessel of Type A packaging made from?
Glass
142
From which part of the tank truck are compartments
| sequentially numbered?
Front
143
What indicates how much radioactivity is present on the
| radioactive label?
Activity
144
What word must be on packages with materials that are
liquids at or above 212 degrees Fahrenheit (100 degrees
Celsius)?
HOT
145
What color is the supplemental label used on DOT
| explosives?
Orange
146
What agency regulates packaging used for transporting
| hazardous materials?
DOT
147
What do the first digits following the county code on the
| intermodal tank container indicate?
size
148
Where are the cylinder valves, piping, and controls
| typically located on the compressed gas trailer?
Back of the unit
149
What is the only reliable method to identify cylinder
| contents?
Check the attached label
150
What factor is being addressed when a chlorine container is rotated to change a liquid leak into a vapor leak?
Magnitude
151
What is the minimum number of wreckers that will be
required for the uprighting operation of a transport and
tractor trailer combination?
Two
152
Where may Command Officers have their actions and
| decisions judged?
Court of public opinion
153
Soft wood plugs are effective for holes that are under
| what size?
3 square inches
154
What constant is used to determine the storage tank area
| during the pre-incident planning process?
.785
155
What should the incident objectives be based upon?
Factual information
156
What statement about the operational considerations during a pressure transfer is NOT correct?
Requires tank containing the product be vented and the
| receiving tank be airtight
157
What will the costs of making a mistake at a reactive
| chemicals incident often be measured in terms of?
Lives
158
What is the key concern when selecting a neutralizing
| agent?
Biodegradability
159
What type of fire exposure is present with a primary
| exposure at the flammable liquid emergency?
Direct flame impingement
160
Which type of rescue situation is removing a victim from a cooling tower?
High-angle rescue
161
What is best suited when diking a substantial spill?
Bagged sand
162
How many holes are normally required when performing vent and burn operations on a pressurized tank car?
2
163
Which may be the most readily available chemical that can be used to improve the ground field?
Sodium chloride
164
What is used to gain access to bulk liquid or gas tanks,
| pipelines, or containers to accomplish product removal?
Hot tapping
165
Which is an example of a fooler gas?
Anhydrous ammonia
166
Where is the open end of the overpack drum placed when performing the V-roll method?
Under the rim of the leaking drum
167
What was the common problem in the incidents at St.
Elizabeth de Warwick, Quebec in 1993; Burnside, Illinois
in 1997; and Albert City, Iowa in 1998?
Pressure-relief valves not functioning
168
What is the resistance of a chemical to decomposition or
| spontaneous change?
Stability
169
Where should the neutralizing agent be applied to the
| corrosive spill first?
Outermost edge
170
Which mode of operation is being used when diking the
| hazmat?
Defensive
171
Which of the following is NOT a tactical priority for
| managing a flammable gas fire?
Increase operating pressure of the line feeding the fire
172
What is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together by means of a conductor?
Bonding
173
What type of operations are confinement tactics?
Defensive
174
What should the minimum angle of the diversion barrier be for a fast-moving spill?
60 degrees
175
What is used to prevent the LNG from coming into contact with the outer shell/hull of LNG carriers?
Inner shell/hull
176
How should the confined space be treated when air
| monitoring is within acceptable limits?
Contaminated
177
What type of fire responders treat an incident with large
| quantities of strong oxidizers and organic peroxides?
Explosives
178
What must the IC be able to do first to begin the process
| of assembling a site safety and control plan?
Understand the nature of the problem
179
What is the maximum amount of time that a victim can be
| assumed able to survive in a toxic atmosphere above the PEL/TLV?
15 minutes
180
What material is used to construct the majority of
| MC-306/DOT-406 cargo tank trucks?
Aluminum
181
What is the minimum number of pointed, long-handled
| shovels needed when constructing a dike?
Three
182
What can be used to estimate the flammable region of the vapor cloud of spilled LNG?
White cloud
183
What should be used to stop a chime leak?
Chemical patch
184
Who always has the final say on Go/No Go when entering a toxic atmosphere?
Person taking the risk
185
What should be developed if contamination is found that
| will require specialized clean up?
Written remedial action plan
186
Within what time period did flashover of the entire 30,000 square foot (2787 square meter) vacant shopping center with reactive chemicals in Puyallup, Washington occur during the full-scale test fire?
2 minutes
187
What is a useful guide and template for an IC to structure
| mitigation efforts?
ICS 208
188
What time period constitutes the present events the IC
| will need to evaluate?
10-15 minutes in the future
189
Which is a better respiratory option when working in a
| confined space?
SAR
190
How many firefighter line-of-duty deaths have occurred
responding to LNG incidents since 1941 in the United
States?
0
191
What forms the interface between the hoisting equipment and the load?
Rigging
192
What principle should be kept in mind when planning
| leak-control tasks?
Keep It Simple, Stupid
193
Within what distance from the vacuum truck, discharge of
the vacuum pump, or any other vapor source should strict
control of ignition sources be maintained?
100 feet
194
What must be established to implement the IC's general
| game plan?
Tactical objectives
195
What are the most difficult decisions responders must make
| related to?
Life safety
196
Using the rule of thumb, if you begin with a pH of 1 on a
10 gallon spill and want to use dispersion to bring it to
a pH of 7, how many gallons of water will you need to add?
10,000,000
197
At what pressure can pressurized containers penetrate the skin?
5000 psi
198
What is used to perform dilution?
Water
199
What should be done if attempts to tighten the fusible
| plug on a cylinder fails?
Cut plug off flush with the valve body
200
Absorption is most effective on spill of less than what
| amount?
55 gallons
201
What is liquefied natural gas?
Methane in its liquid state
202
What is removed initially when performing a gas transfer
| using product displacement with compressors?
Vapors
203
What is the first step taken when collecting and
| processing evidence at the incident scene?
Photograph each piece as it was found
204
What is used on the ground to control the movement of
| liquids, sludge, and solids?
Diking
205
Which type of dam is used to trap heavier-than-water
| materials?
Overflow
206
At what level are strategies developed?
Command
207
Within what amount of time of direct flame impingement may BLEVE occur?
5 to 10 minutes
208
According to the "Handbook of Compressed Gases" nearly how many types of compressed gases are commonly shipped annually?
200
209
What type of alarm is normally tied to monitoring and
| detection systems at bulk storage facilities?
Audible
210
Which foam concentrate is dependent on the difference in surface tension between the fuel and the firefighting
foam?
Aqueous film-forming foam
211
What is the minimum water application rate at the point of fire impingement during water cooling operations on a
pressure vessel?
500 gpm
212
What size should the patching device be in relation to the
| breach as a minimum?
One half size larger
213
What type of transfer is a gas transfer always?
closed
214
How much of its strength has the steel in the LPG tank
lost as it reaches 1800 degrees Fahrenheit (982 degrees
Celsius)?
90%
215
Where must the first connection in all bonding operations
| start?
At the damaged unit
216
What is the primary concern in a fire situation when
determining the type of stress on a flammable gas
container?
Thermal
217
What can be used to help you understand what is causing you to take action?
Map of the scene
218
Where is the rupture disk piped to allow the release of
| vapors under normal operating conditions?
Vapor space
219
What is the first thing that needs to be done when a bung
| leak is encountered?
Stand the drum so that the opening is at the top
220
About how many gallons of LNG will vaporize when one
| gallon of water is sprayed on the LNG pool?
2
221
Within what distance of the failed container can BLEVEs of bulk containers and process vessels produce severe fire and fragmentation risks?
3000 feet (914 m)
222
What is a consideration if the container being offloaded
| is a liquid cargo tank truck?
Position of the baffle holes
223
Which type of fire is unlikely for an LNG storage tank?
Jet
224
What is the heart of fire protection systems protecting
| bulk storage facilities?
Reliable water supply
225
What should precede a successful offensive containment
| operation?
Reconnaissance
226
Which cargo tank truck should never be uprighted while
| loaded?
MC-306/DOT-406
227
What should be done when water streams being applied to exposures inside a diked area no longer produce steam at the point where water contacts the hot steel surface?
Shut down the water temporarily
228
How must emergency responders visualize the emergency to be able to produce good outcomes?
Chronological sequence of events
229
How many emergency responder line-of-duty deaths were caused by 16 major hazmat transportation related incidents from 1968-1978?
51
230
What amount of time does NFPA 11 recommend foam be applied to a flammable liquid spill fire?
15 minutes
231
What is NOT a key characteristic of alcohol-resistant
| AFFF?
Should be plunged into the fuel
232
Which OSHA standard covers hazardous waste operations and
| emergency response?
1910.120
233
What is the maximum spill size that many responders
| recommend performing neutralization on?
55 gallons
234
What function does offloading the container serve?
Reduce stress on the container
235
What is required to decrease the risk of fire spread from
| tank-to-tank at a bulk storage facility?
Spacing
236
Which statement about dispersants is NOT true?
They neutralize substances
237
What are considered the easiest to contain?
Dusts
238
```
What class foam do first responders use on flammable
liquids?
```
Class B
239
Since what year has vent and burn been accepted as a
| usable option?
1982
240
Which entries in the organization section of the ICS 208
| worksheet are mandatory?
5 & 8
241
What type of loading process is normally used when cargo tank trucks are being loaded with flammable liquids?
Bottom-loading
242
What is the most common ethanol blend being transported by rail today?
E95
243
What is the controlled release of a material to reduce and
control the pressure, and decrease the probability of a
violent container rupture?
Venting
244
Who historically performs successful technical rescues?
Operations-level responders
245
What is the number one mission at a hazmat incident?
Life Safety
246
What material is used to manufacture a salvage cylinder?
Carbon steel
247
With which containment process is there no increase in the volume of waste materials?
Vacuuming
248
What must you be able to control before extinguishing a
| pressure-fed flammable gas fire?
Fuel supply
249
Which statement about fluoroprotein foam in NOT correct?
Cannot be used for subsurface injection
250
What can be used to make the slide-in overpacking method easier and safer for the responders?
PVC pipes
251
What was involved in the Roseburg, Oregon incident on
| August 7, 1959?
Dynamite
252
What pH level of corrosives do federal and most state
regulations allow entry into storm drains when dilution is
being employed?
6 to 8
253
What is the second step taken to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene?
Place caution tape to limit scene access
254
How should the confined space be treated when air
| monitoring is within acceptable limits?
Contaminated
255
Which is intended to be a more permanent confinement
| method?
Retention
256
What concentration range with a flammable atmosphere is considered hazardous?
10 to 20%
257
What will happen to the operating pressure as soon as the water begins to flow?
Drops
258
What is used on the ground to control the movement of
| liquids, sludge, and solids?
Diking
259
Class B foam intended for hydrocarbon fires will not be
| effective for gasoline-ethanol mixtures above what level?
10%
260
What often leads to loss of site control?
Maintaining a weak perimeter
261
In which mode of operation is the goal to quickly control
| or mitigate a problem?
Offensive
262
What size should the patching device be in relation to the
| breach as a minimum?
One half size larger
263
How often should public protective actions be monitored?
Throughout the incident
264
What is the baseline for hazmat decision making and should be the option against which all strategies and tactics are compared?
What will happen if I do nothing?
265
What is NOT part of the essence of the risk evaluation
| process?
Determine political problems
266
Based on historical data, where will the cargo tank truck
| be resting in a rollover incident?
Side
267
Which of the following affects the effectiveness of the
| compressor during a gas transfer?
Ambient temperature
268
What should be the minimum accepted hazardous
classification rating of any electrical equipment used
around flammable liquids or vapors?
Class 1, Division 2
269
What ground level has been established by the National
| Electrical Code for residential purposes?
<25 ohms
270
Which tactic is a chemical process confinement process?
adsorption
271
What are the conductive objects connected to when
| performing grounding?
The ground
272
What rule about the compatibility of Class B foams is
| misstated?
Different kinds of foam concentrates can be mixed during
| proportioning
273
How many escape routes should be planned during product
| removal operations?
Two
274
Where should the receiving tank be loaded when dealing
| with MC-331 cargo tank trucks in LPG service to minimize the pressure build up in that tank?
Spray fill
275
What does bonding and grounding give a pathway to travel to earth?
Static charge
276
Which item numbers on the ICS 208 worksheet lists the
| instruments that will be used to monitor for chemicals?
20-23
277
Which of the following is NOT an element in developing an effective plan of action by the IC?
Tactical objectives
278
What statement about the operational considerations during a pressure transfer is NOT correct?
Requires tank containing the product be vented and the
| receiving tank be airtight
279
What may be a reason to perform controlled burning at a
| reactive fire?
Large amount of contaminated runoff
280
What action is taken when operating in nonintervention
| mode?
Isolate the area
281
Fires involving ethanol mixtures in what range will assume the burning properties of a polar solvent?
10 to 15%
282
Who does NOT typically conduct the safety briefing?
Staging Officer
283
What should be tried if the leak on a pressurized
| container continues after the valve is closed?
Tighten packing nut on the valve
284
What happens when vapor is removed from an LNG tank?
It cools
285
How many gpm does an atmospheric storage tank from 100 foot to 150 foot diameter require for water cooling
operations?
1000 gpm
286
What is the primary concern in a fire situation when
determining the type of stress on a flammable gas
container?
Thermal
287
What must the IC be able to do first to begin the process
| of assembling a site safety and control plan?
Understand the nature of the problem
288
What concentration of alcohol-resistant AFFF is most
| commonly available?
3% hydrocarbon/3% polar solvent
289
What on the pressure vessel should cooling water be
| applied to?
All surfaces above the liquid level
290
What must occur before product removal operations can
| commence?
Incident stabilization
291
What percentage of the accidental discharge will an
emergency scrubber normally be capable of filtering or
neutralizing?
100%
292
What should the minimum angle of the diversion barrier be for a fast-moving spill?
60 degrees
293
What should be used to stop a chime leak?
Chemical Patch
294
What is used by most wreckers to life cargo tank trucks?
Nylon straps
295
What significant risk does an oxygen-enriched atmosphere present rescuers?
Increased risk of fire
296
Which tasks involve the "hands on" work?
Operational
297
What will affect the likelihood that the problem will be
| confined to its present size?
Quantity involved
298
What function does offloading the container serve?
Reduce stress on the container
299
Above what concentration do hydrogen peroxide hazards increase?
52%
300
What method is most commonly used for decontaminating personnel?
Dilution
301
How many wash-and-rinse stations are typically involved in technical decontamination?
One to three
302
Which type of contaminant may be removed from a vehicle on site and then the car be driven to an off-site car wash for a second, more thorough washing?
Vapors
303
What is the greatest challenge in a mass decontamination operation?
People management
304
What is the minimum ambient temperature that should be
maintained in the warm place that victims are moved to
after mass decon in cold weather?
70 degrees Fahrenheit (21 degrees Celsius)
305
How long should responders wait before entry to allow the aerosol to settle to significantly reduce the risk of
exposure?
30 to 60 minutes
306
Which one of the following is NOT one of the ways to
| reduce or eliminate contamination via mass decon?
Absorption
307
Which factor that influences permeation is NOT true?
High-viscosity solids permeate faster than gases
308
What level chemical splash protective clothing should
| responders use during mass decontamination operations?
Level B
309
What makes handling and disposal of contaminated PPE
| easier during technical decontamination?
Large trash bags
310
During which decontamination phase is the amount of the surface contaminant significantly reduced?
Gross
311
Which is an ideal substance for the neutralization of
| alkaline corrosives in emergencies?
Citric acid
312
What is the process of destroying all microorganisms in or on an object?
Sterilization
313
What should be used to establish a gross decon area in
| emergency decontamination operations?
water
314
Which type of decontamination usually involves using water or soap and water to decon a large number of people?
Mass
315
What is the smallest size particle that HEPA vacuums can
| capture?
0.1 microns
316
How long after rest and oral hydration should vital signs
be taken to ensure adequate recovery from the stress of
entry?
10 to 15 minutes
317
In what form are most flammable contaminants found?
Liquid
318
Who should be brought to the scene to assist with
decontamination when animals have been injured from
exposure to hazardous materials?
Veterinarian
319
What should be used on boots before stepping into decon showers?
Brushing
320
What is the maximum number of contaminated responders are allowed in a wash and rinse station at a time?
What is the maximum number of contaminated responders are
| allowed in a wash and rinse station at a time?
321
What should be cleaned second when performing
| decontamination of injured personnel?
Open wounds
322
What detectable levels does decontamination, and cleaning of equipment and fixed facilities result in?
ppb
323
What should the Decon Leader use to ensure that important items are not overlooked?
Formal checklists
324
What is the chemical action involving the molecular
| breakdown of protective clothing material due to chemical contact?
Degradation
325
What is the first stop during technical decontamination?
Tool drop
326
What can be used to mark the location of the decon
corridor entrance in the Hot Zone during night time
incidents?
Colored light
327
If possible, how many decon members should staff each
| station that will require entry personnel be scrubbed?
two
328
Which is less likely to be a contaminant of animals?
Radiological release affecting a large area
329
What should be the last apparatus in the line up when
using a multiple engine/ladder apparatus response for mass
decontamination?
Aerial
330
With which of the following is secondary contamination a
| greater problem?
Liquids
331
Who is most often responsible for establishing the mass
decon corridor at a mass casualty scenario involving
hazmats?
First-due fire units
332
How many levels from the PPE being used by the Entry Team can the Decon Team usually operate safely in?
One level down
333
What flow rate does the "deluge" head on a safety shower deliver?
30 to 50 gpm
334
What regulation must be followed when marking and labeling hazardous waste containers at the scene?
DOT 215K
335
What is the minimum amount of time the water flush should last when performing emergency decontamination with corrosives that have made skin contact?
20 minutes
336
What ultimately speeds up hospital patient care during a
| hazmat incident?
Decontamination
337
What is the first rule of decontamination?
Avoid contamination
338
What is the last step taken during technical
| decontamination?
Proceed to the rehabilitation area
339
Which principle to prevent contamination is NOT correct?
Remove your respiratory gear as soon as possible
340
Which has been shown to be the most effective during mass decon operations?
High volume, low-pressure water streams
341
What percentage of contaminants can be removed by
undressing according to studies by the U.S. Army Soldier
and Biological Chemical Command?
80%
342
What is the most effective method of preventing employee chemical exposure at decontamination operations at a fixed facility?
Remove air contaminants at the source
343
Which of the following should chemical degradation NOT be used on?
Chemical protective clothing
344
To what level should the Decon Leader and the Decon Team be trained as per NFPA 472?
Hazardous Materials Technician level
345
Which disinfectants are the most practical for field use?
Chemical
346
Which statement about performing mass decontamination on nonambulatory victims is NOT correct?
Allow clothing to collect underneath the victim
347
What is the final step in isolation?
Packaging
348
What percent of the first reading will radiation levels be
| after the passage of 7 half-lives?
1%
349
At what level are permeation contaminants absorbed into a material?
Molecular
350
Which of the following methods has limited application for decontaminating personnel?
Absorption
351
What can be used to organize the decon area?
Tarps
352
Which term means that something is "dirty"?
Contamination
353
Approximately how many people should basic mass decon practice evolutions begin with?
20 to 40 people
354
Which type of decontamination is performed with or without the establishment of a decon corridor?
Emergency
355
What is the relationship between the hazard area and
outside the hazard area at fixed facilities to minimize
the spread of contaminants?
Negative pressure inside/positive pressure outside
356
What are the most common areas to be contaminated by
| direct contamination?
Gloves
357
What term is used to describe the ability of the
| biological material to cause disease?
Virulence
358
What is the process by which people, animals, the
environment, and equipment are subjected to or come in
contact with a hazardous material?
Exposure
359
What is the most important factor in eliminating
| radioactive material contamination problems?
Avoid contact with the material
360
What priority level should be assigned to ambulatory
| victims?
Priority 3
361
Initially what should be done with waste as a general rule
| at the hazmat scene during clean-up?
Contain it
362
What can be done to help keep a K-9 assigned to search and rescue settled during decontamination operations?
Keep the handler near
363
At which decon station will you need to physically contact your customer?
Doffing
364
How wide should the lane be that is created by apparatus for mass decon?
12 to 16 feet
365
Which of the following is heating NOT primarily used for
| during decontamination operations?
Personnel
366
What is the maximum amount of time that victims exposed to chemical warfare agents should be washed according to studies that have been conducted?
5 minutes
367
What is considered an ideal water temperature for use in
| mass decon operations?
70 degrees Fahrenheit (21 degrees Celsius)
368
Which emitters present both the possibility of becoming
airborne and creating high radiation levels near the
surface of the contaminated area?
Beta
369
Which statement about decontaminating equipment is NOT correct?
Any responder can supervise equipment clean-up operations
370
Which criteria for evaluating decontamination
| effectiveness is NOT correct?
Few personnel were exposed to concentrations above the
| TLV/TWA
371
What must be done before placing decontaminated hose back into service?
Pressure test
372
During what period of a pregnancy are embryotoxic
| contaminants most dangerous?
First eight to twelve weeks
373
What can be used to place inner gloves into when doffing them during technical decontamination?
Plastic bags
374
What should be kept separate during technical
| decontamination to protect it from damage?
Monitors
375
For which type of hazard is there currently no practical
way to determine the effectiveness of field
decontamination?
Etiological
