Shuffled Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is normally used for the notification process in a

chemical plant?

A

On-site public address system

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2
Q

What is the highest strategic priority for any IC?

A

Life safety

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3
Q

What is the biggest problem the IC manages by addressing site management?

A

People

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4
Q

Locations within what distance of the incident will be

rapidly overtaken by the hazmat?

A

1000 feet (304 m)

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5
Q

Who can be used to secure the perimeter inside the plant when operating on a private facility?

A

On-site security force

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6
Q

What should be the minimum number of alerting methods that should used during a full-scale evacuation?

A

two

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7
Q

Who is normally responsible for performing door-to-door

alerting?

A

Law enforcement

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8
Q

Within what amount of time must the EAS be available to

the President of the United States using normal activation procedures?

A

10 minutes

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9
Q

How many buildings are affected during a limited-scale

evacuation?

A

One or two

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10
Q

How many times more expensive is a full-scale evacuation than sheltering-in-place for the manufacturing sector?

A

Fifteen

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11
Q

How often will the vehicle have to stop to broadcast the

evacuation message when using a public address system on an emergency vehicle?

A

1000 feet (304 m)

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12
Q

1000 feet (304 m)

A

0.5 air exchanges per hour

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13
Q

In which situation is sheltering most effective?

A

Fast-moving toxic vapor cloud

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14
Q

How many people are estimated to have evacuated Manhattan

Island on 9/11?

A

300,000 to 1 million

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when protecting-in-place?

A

Turn HVAC systems to recycle

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16
Q

What should always be tested for when a sick building is

suspected?

A

Carbon monoxide

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17
Q

What creates concern when a person has been evacuated?

A

Lack of information

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18
Q

What will continue to arise when the IC launches into
tactical operations without first addressing basic site
management tasks?

A

Safety issues

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19
Q

What should be the first point of control when confronted

with an incident inside a structure?

A

Points of entry

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20
Q

What is the isolation perimeter between?

A

General public and cold zone

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21
Q

At which location are people a majority of the time on an

average day?

A

Home

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT what you would expect when you encounter sick building syndrome?

A

Many people throughout the building with symptoms

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23
Q

How much breathing air is typically in the cylinders of

the Emergency Breathing Apparatus?

A

5 to 10 minutes

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24
Q

What unit should assume command initially at the hazmat

incident?

A

First arriving

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25
Q

What is the minimum number of people that each member is being observed by in the Hot Zone?

A

one

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26
Q

What is the only practical and cost-effective way of
moving large numbers of people with critical
transportation needs?

A

Commercial motor coaches

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27
Q

What may be the most prudent course of action for

short-term releases?

A

Protect-in-place

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28
Q

Which statement about the command functions during the establishment of command by the first-arriving officer is NOT correct?

A

Select a movable location for the ICP

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29
Q

What zone should the emergency responders supporting the tactical hazmat response operation be located?

A

Warm and cold

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30
Q

Where is the most ideal way to approach the hazmat

incident scene?

A

Uphill and upwind

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31
Q

What is generally seen as the maximum amount of time an older building can provide a safe refuge when
protecting-in-place?

A

One hour

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct about what is needed before first responders can effectively perform rescue operations in a hazmat environment?

A

Have ICP staffed

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33
Q

What should an area with any measurable concentration of a contaminant be initially considered to be within?

A

Hot zone

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34
Q

Which of the alerting systems is the fastest at warning 25

percent of the population?

A

Siren/fixed response

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35
Q

Who is the best resource to use when establishing

isolation perimeters?

A

Law enforcement

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36
Q

With what minimum level of staffing can most Hot Zone

operations be accomplished?

A

Four

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37
Q

Where should the Area of Refuge be established when

civilians are exposed prior to responder arrival?

A

Hot zone

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38
Q

Which section is responsible for managing the staging

area?

A

Operations

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39
Q

How often should the IC consider issuing a written
progress report to be posted at the shelter when the
incident covers a period of days?

A

Two times a day

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40
Q

What grades is Wally Wise Guy designed to reach about

sheltering-in-place?

A

Kindergarten to fourth

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41
Q

What level incident will require the total evacuation of
all company personnel and the surrounding public to a
pre-designated location outside the immediate area?

A

III

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42
Q

Who is usually responsible for coordinating all personnel

accountability activities at the fixed facility?

A

Supervisors

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43
Q

How far short of the scene does staging typically occur as part of initial response operations?

A

One city block in the direction of travel

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44
Q

Which oxygen level reading would place the area into the Hot Zone classification?

A

19.5%

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45
Q

Who manages the Personalized Localized Alerting Network?

A

FEMA

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46
Q

What is the cost to individual households for a full-scale

evacuation?

A

Seven times the cost to shelter-in-place

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47
Q

What percentage of the population is it estimated will

need to shelter when evacuated?

A

35%

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48
Q

Which of the following should be used for security at an

evacuation shelter?

A

Police officer

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49
Q

What area must the IC gain control of when achieving

public protective actions objectives?

A

Beyond isolation perimeter

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50
Q

Which of the following specialized tanks consist of

seamless cylinders permanently mounted inside an open frame?

A

Tube modules

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51
Q

Where will the physical or chemical hazard statement be

located?

A

Side panel

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52
Q

At what temperature are products in a refrigerated storage tank stored?

A

Near boiling point

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53
Q

How many openings are usually found on closed head drums?

A

Two

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54
Q

In which type of packaging can spent nuclear fuel be

expected to be found?

A

Type B

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55
Q

What letter is used to indicate a leakage test on the

cargo tank?

A

K

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56
Q

Up to what maximum allowable working pressures can be found in non-pressure tank containers?

A

100 psig

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57
Q

What is located at the “B-end” of the railroad tank car

that is used as the initial reference point?

A

Hand brake wheel

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58
Q

What is the minimum number of required labels that must be displayed on or near the closure of the container on an
aircraft?

A

One

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59
Q

Which commodity accounted for the largest member of

fatalities between 2000 and 2009?

A

gasoline

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60
Q

What is the only reliable method to identify cylinder

contents?

A

DOT label

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61
Q

Which type of packaging is used to transport limited

quantities of smoke detectors?

A

Excepted

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62
Q

Which has little significance to responders?

A

EPA Establishment Number

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63
Q

What working pressure range is seen with the dome roof

tank?

A

2.5 to 15 psi

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64
Q

Which of the following is the title of the shipping paper

when transported by highway?

A

Freight bill

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65
Q

What can be used to determine the capacity of a pressure tank car?

A

Tank car marking

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66
Q

What should you do if you cannot identify the material?

A

Classify it

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67
Q

Where are the reporting marks and number generally found on the intermodal portable tank container?

A

Right-hand side (as you face it from either side) and on

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68
Q

What is transported in the pneumatically unloaded covered hopper car?

A

Dry, solid materials

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69
Q

What is used to provide emergency venting in the cone roof

tank?

A

Weak roof-to-shell seam

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70
Q

Where are pressure relief devices typically incorporated

on a portable tank or “tote”?

A

Container fill lid

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71
Q

What letter means the rail car is not owned by a railroad?

A

X

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72
Q

What color in the NFPA 704 marking system indicates the

reactivity of the material?

A

Yellow

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73
Q

What size range is seen in industrial high pressure

horizontal tanks?

A

1,000 to 120,000 gallons

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74
Q
What pressure range of the tank is indicated by the tank
marking T4 (74)?
A

<1.47 (21.3 psig) bar pressure test

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75
Q

What must a liquefied oxygen tank be over?

A

Concrete pad

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76
Q

What helps to identify the open floating roof tank?

A

Wind girder around the top of the tank shell and roof

ladder

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77
Q

What may be done to identify liquid lines on the high

pressure spherical tank?

A

Paint them

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78
Q

How many compartments are normally found in an intermodal

portable tank container?

A

one

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79
Q

Where may a wide band of corrosion-resistant paint be
found running vertically on the non-pressure tank car
transporting strong corrosives?

A

At the manway

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80
Q

How long are the contents of the cryogenic liquid tank car protected from ambient temperatures?

A

30 days

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81
Q

What is the maximum number of bottles allowed to be in

multi-cell packaging?

A

6

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82
Q

Where on the front label panel will the toxicity signal

word be found?

A

Center

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83
Q

What is primarily stored in the cone roof tank at petroleum storage facilities?

A

Combustible liquids

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84
Q

For which of the following is an exemption required if the

material is being transported in a “super sack”?

A

Liquid hazardous materials

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85
Q

What color will fire protection piping normally be

painted?

A

Red

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86
Q

What material is most often used to construct uninsulated

cylinder containers?

A

Steel

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87
Q

What do a vast majority of water treatment plants have on site in large quantities?

A

Chlorine

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88
Q

What color plate is used for the cargo tank truck

combination of MC-306 or DOT-406?

A

Red

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89
Q

Where do molten sulfur tank trucks frequently have a large breathing air cylinder attached?

A

Near the trailer’s ladder

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90
Q

What color candy-striped border on any cargo paperwork

will indicate the presence of hazardous materials?

A

Red

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91
Q

How long is the fire test that is conducted on Type C

packaging?

A

60 minutes

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92
Q

What letters before the four-digit identification number

can be used for domestic and international shipment?

A

UN

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93
Q

Which hazard zone is applied to the most toxic material?

A

Zone A

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94
Q

What type of heads are found on ton containers?

A

Concave

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95
Q

If a material being shipped is a mixture of four hazardous
materials, what is the minimum number of technical names that most predominantly contribute to the hazards of the mixture that must be listed on the shipping papers?

A

Two

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96
Q

Which of the following is NOT a performance test conducted on nonbulk packaging?

A

Vacuum test

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97
Q

What is the portable bin designed to be moved with?

A

Forklift

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98
Q

What is in place when a pipeline crosses under a road?

A

Marker

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99
Q

Where are Dewars containers commonly found?

A

Laboratories

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100
Q

What route of transport are materials in Type C packaging moved?

A

Aircraft

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101
Q

Until what date can distributors continue to ship products

using older hazcom labels?

A

December 1, 2015

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102
Q

What determines proper placard and label(s)?

A

Hazard class

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103
Q

What hazard class is NOT primarily transported in the high pressure cargo tank truck?

A

Gasoline

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104
Q

What is the maximum allowed capacity for compressed gas in nonbulk packaging?

A

Water capacity of 1,001 pounds (454 kg)

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105
Q

Which of the following senses offers some protection at

the hazmat incident?

A

Vision

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106
Q

Which part of the railroad tank car marking “AAR 201T100C F-1” designates the type of material used in the tank
construction?

A

“C”

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107
Q

What percent active ingredients is indicated by the word

“Technical” with the product name?

A

70% to 99%

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108
Q

What is typically last in the product cycle for a liquid

petroleum pipeline?

A

Regular gasoline

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109
Q

Approximately what percentage of releases occur during

transport of chemicals?

A

25%

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110
Q

What color is the label that must be attached to the

package of materials that can only be transported on cargo aircraft?

A

Orange and black

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111
Q

Where on the driver’s side of the cargo tank truck will

the manufacturer’s specification plate be mounted?

A

Front third of the tank

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112
Q

What material is typically used to make the gastight outer

shell of the cryogenic liquid storage tank?

A

Carbon steel

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113
Q

Up to what amount of material may wooden boxes contain?

A

550 pounds

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114
Q

Which DOT standards apply to the specialized cryogenic

tank containers?

A

Spec 51

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115
Q

What is the outer shell of the cryogenic liquid cargo tank

truck filled with?

A

Insulation

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116
Q

Where is the specification marking stamped on the rail car where it is not readily visible?

A

Heads

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117
Q

What percentage of the total number of tank containers

worldwide do IM-101 and IM-102s account for?

A

Over 90%

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118
Q

Where is the dry caustic soda off-loaded of the dry bulk

tank truck?

A

Bottom

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119
Q

What will the first set of numbers on the railroad tank

car designate?

A

Class designation

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120
Q

What portion of the MC-331 specification tanks are painted a light reflective color?

A

Upper two-thirds

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121
Q

Where are values and fittings on the non-pressure tank

containers located?

A

In top spillbox

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122
Q

What color label would warn responders of transformers and equipment that is PCB-laden?

A

Black-on-yellow

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123
Q

Which is considered the workhorse of the chemical

industry?

A

Low pressure chemical cargo tank truck

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124
Q

How are the majority of radioactive material shipments

made?

A

Roadways

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125
Q

What color plate is used on a non-specification cargo tank truck?

A

Blue

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126
Q

What is the first clue for the recognition and

classification of any hazmats involved?

A

Occupancy and location

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127
Q

Up to what capacity of an oxidizer may be found in a

“composite IBC”?

A

500 gallons

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128
Q

What material is used to construct the frame of the

“composite IBC”?

A

Steel

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129
Q

What is the outer protective jacket on the cryogenic

cylinder made from?

A

Metal

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130
Q

What type of bottle is generally used for transport of

light sensitive and reactive materials?

A

Brown glass

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131
Q

What is the service pressure range of pressure tank

containers?

A

100 (6.8 bar) to 500 psi (34 bar)

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132
Q

Which of the following is the most common multi-purpose

configuration of the cargo tank trucks?

A

DOT-407 and DOT-412 units

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133
Q

What is used in the NFPA 704 marking system to indicate

materials that demonstrate unusual reactivity to water?

A

W with a line through it

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134
Q

What radioactive label will be found when the maximum

contact radiation level ranges from 50 mrem/hour to 200 mrem/hour?

A

Yellow III

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135
Q

What is the third most common hazard class?

A

Corrosive materials

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136
Q

Which identification method can be done the farthest

distance from the material?

A

Container shapes

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137
Q

Where is the discharge on “super sacks” often located?

A

Bottom

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138
Q

How are flexible intermediate bulk containers transported in open and closed transport vehicles?

A

On pallets

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139
Q

Which packing group indicates minor danger?

A

PG III

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140
Q

What is commonly found in a carboy?

A

Caustics

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141
Q

What is the inner containment vessel of Type A packaging made from?

A

Glass

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142
Q

From which part of the tank truck are compartments

sequentially numbered?

A

Front

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143
Q

What indicates how much radioactivity is present on the

radioactive label?

A

Activity

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144
Q

What word must be on packages with materials that are
liquids at or above 212 degrees Fahrenheit (100 degrees
Celsius)?

A

HOT

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145
Q

What color is the supplemental label used on DOT

explosives?

A

Orange

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146
Q

What agency regulates packaging used for transporting

hazardous materials?

A

DOT

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147
Q

What do the first digits following the county code on the

intermodal tank container indicate?

A

size

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148
Q

Where are the cylinder valves, piping, and controls

typically located on the compressed gas trailer?

A

Back of the unit

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149
Q

What is the only reliable method to identify cylinder

contents?

A

Check the attached label

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150
Q

What factor is being addressed when a chlorine container is rotated to change a liquid leak into a vapor leak?

A

Magnitude

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151
Q

What is the minimum number of wreckers that will be
required for the uprighting operation of a transport and
tractor trailer combination?

A

Two

152
Q

Where may Command Officers have their actions and

decisions judged?

A

Court of public opinion

153
Q

Soft wood plugs are effective for holes that are under

what size?

A

3 square inches

154
Q

What constant is used to determine the storage tank area

during the pre-incident planning process?

A

.785

155
Q

What should the incident objectives be based upon?

A

Factual information

156
Q

What statement about the operational considerations during a pressure transfer is NOT correct?

A

Requires tank containing the product be vented and the

receiving tank be airtight

157
Q

What will the costs of making a mistake at a reactive

chemicals incident often be measured in terms of?

A

Lives

158
Q

What is the key concern when selecting a neutralizing

agent?

A

Biodegradability

159
Q

What type of fire exposure is present with a primary

exposure at the flammable liquid emergency?

A

Direct flame impingement

160
Q

Which type of rescue situation is removing a victim from a cooling tower?

A

High-angle rescue

161
Q

What is best suited when diking a substantial spill?

A

Bagged sand

162
Q

How many holes are normally required when performing vent and burn operations on a pressurized tank car?

A

2

163
Q

Which may be the most readily available chemical that can be used to improve the ground field?

A

Sodium chloride

164
Q

What is used to gain access to bulk liquid or gas tanks,

pipelines, or containers to accomplish product removal?

A

Hot tapping

165
Q

Which is an example of a fooler gas?

A

Anhydrous ammonia

166
Q

Where is the open end of the overpack drum placed when performing the V-roll method?

A

Under the rim of the leaking drum

167
Q

What was the common problem in the incidents at St.
Elizabeth de Warwick, Quebec in 1993; Burnside, Illinois
in 1997; and Albert City, Iowa in 1998?

A

Pressure-relief valves not functioning

168
Q

What is the resistance of a chemical to decomposition or

spontaneous change?

A

Stability

169
Q

Where should the neutralizing agent be applied to the

corrosive spill first?

A

Outermost edge

170
Q

Which mode of operation is being used when diking the

hazmat?

A

Defensive

171
Q

Which of the following is NOT a tactical priority for

managing a flammable gas fire?

A

Increase operating pressure of the line feeding the fire

172
Q

What is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together by means of a conductor?

A

Bonding

173
Q

What type of operations are confinement tactics?

A

Defensive

174
Q

What should the minimum angle of the diversion barrier be for a fast-moving spill?

A

60 degrees

175
Q

What is used to prevent the LNG from coming into contact with the outer shell/hull of LNG carriers?

A

Inner shell/hull

176
Q

How should the confined space be treated when air

monitoring is within acceptable limits?

A

Contaminated

177
Q

What type of fire responders treat an incident with large

quantities of strong oxidizers and organic peroxides?

A

Explosives

178
Q

What must the IC be able to do first to begin the process

of assembling a site safety and control plan?

A

Understand the nature of the problem

179
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that a victim can be

assumed able to survive in a toxic atmosphere above the PEL/TLV?

A

15 minutes

180
Q

What material is used to construct the majority of

MC-306/DOT-406 cargo tank trucks?

A

Aluminum

181
Q

What is the minimum number of pointed, long-handled

shovels needed when constructing a dike?

A

Three

182
Q

What can be used to estimate the flammable region of the vapor cloud of spilled LNG?

A

White cloud

183
Q

What should be used to stop a chime leak?

A

Chemical patch

184
Q

Who always has the final say on Go/No Go when entering a toxic atmosphere?

A

Person taking the risk

185
Q

What should be developed if contamination is found that

will require specialized clean up?

A

Written remedial action plan

186
Q

Within what time period did flashover of the entire 30,000 square foot (2787 square meter) vacant shopping center with reactive chemicals in Puyallup, Washington occur during the full-scale test fire?

A

2 minutes

187
Q

What is a useful guide and template for an IC to structure

mitigation efforts?

A

ICS 208

188
Q

What time period constitutes the present events the IC

will need to evaluate?

A

10-15 minutes in the future

189
Q

Which is a better respiratory option when working in a

confined space?

A

SAR

190
Q

How many firefighter line-of-duty deaths have occurred
responding to LNG incidents since 1941 in the United
States?

A

0

191
Q

What forms the interface between the hoisting equipment and the load?

A

Rigging

192
Q

What principle should be kept in mind when planning

leak-control tasks?

A

Keep It Simple, Stupid

193
Q

Within what distance from the vacuum truck, discharge of
the vacuum pump, or any other vapor source should strict
control of ignition sources be maintained?

A

100 feet

194
Q

What must be established to implement the IC’s general

game plan?

A

Tactical objectives

195
Q

What are the most difficult decisions responders must make

related to?

A

Life safety

196
Q

Using the rule of thumb, if you begin with a pH of 1 on a
10 gallon spill and want to use dispersion to bring it to
a pH of 7, how many gallons of water will you need to add?

A

10,000,000

197
Q

At what pressure can pressurized containers penetrate the skin?

A

5000 psi

198
Q

What is used to perform dilution?

A

Water

199
Q

What should be done if attempts to tighten the fusible

plug on a cylinder fails?

A

Cut plug off flush with the valve body

200
Q

Absorption is most effective on spill of less than what

amount?

A

55 gallons

201
Q

What is liquefied natural gas?

A

Methane in its liquid state

202
Q

What is removed initially when performing a gas transfer

using product displacement with compressors?

A

Vapors

203
Q

What is the first step taken when collecting and

processing evidence at the incident scene?

A

Photograph each piece as it was found

204
Q

What is used on the ground to control the movement of

liquids, sludge, and solids?

A

Diking

205
Q

Which type of dam is used to trap heavier-than-water

materials?

A

Overflow

206
Q

At what level are strategies developed?

A

Command

207
Q

Within what amount of time of direct flame impingement may BLEVE occur?

A

5 to 10 minutes

208
Q

According to the “Handbook of Compressed Gases” nearly how many types of compressed gases are commonly shipped annually?

A

200

209
Q

What type of alarm is normally tied to monitoring and

detection systems at bulk storage facilities?

A

Audible

210
Q

Which foam concentrate is dependent on the difference in surface tension between the fuel and the firefighting
foam?

A

Aqueous film-forming foam

211
Q

What is the minimum water application rate at the point of fire impingement during water cooling operations on a
pressure vessel?

A

500 gpm

212
Q

What size should the patching device be in relation to the

breach as a minimum?

A

One half size larger

213
Q

What type of transfer is a gas transfer always?

A

closed

214
Q

How much of its strength has the steel in the LPG tank
lost as it reaches 1800 degrees Fahrenheit (982 degrees
Celsius)?

A

90%

215
Q

Where must the first connection in all bonding operations

start?

A

At the damaged unit

216
Q

What is the primary concern in a fire situation when
determining the type of stress on a flammable gas
container?

A

Thermal

217
Q

What can be used to help you understand what is causing you to take action?

A

Map of the scene

218
Q

Where is the rupture disk piped to allow the release of

vapors under normal operating conditions?

A

Vapor space

219
Q

What is the first thing that needs to be done when a bung

leak is encountered?

A

Stand the drum so that the opening is at the top

220
Q

About how many gallons of LNG will vaporize when one

gallon of water is sprayed on the LNG pool?

A

2

221
Q

Within what distance of the failed container can BLEVEs of bulk containers and process vessels produce severe fire and fragmentation risks?

A

3000 feet (914 m)

222
Q

What is a consideration if the container being offloaded

is a liquid cargo tank truck?

A

Position of the baffle holes

223
Q

Which type of fire is unlikely for an LNG storage tank?

A

Jet

224
Q

What is the heart of fire protection systems protecting

bulk storage facilities?

A

Reliable water supply

225
Q

What should precede a successful offensive containment

operation?

A

Reconnaissance

226
Q

Which cargo tank truck should never be uprighted while

loaded?

A

MC-306/DOT-406

227
Q

What should be done when water streams being applied to exposures inside a diked area no longer produce steam at the point where water contacts the hot steel surface?

A

Shut down the water temporarily

228
Q

How must emergency responders visualize the emergency to be able to produce good outcomes?

A

Chronological sequence of events

229
Q

How many emergency responder line-of-duty deaths were caused by 16 major hazmat transportation related incidents from 1968-1978?

A

51

230
Q

What amount of time does NFPA 11 recommend foam be applied to a flammable liquid spill fire?

A

15 minutes

231
Q

What is NOT a key characteristic of alcohol-resistant

AFFF?

A

Should be plunged into the fuel

232
Q

Which OSHA standard covers hazardous waste operations and

emergency response?

A

1910.120

233
Q

What is the maximum spill size that many responders

recommend performing neutralization on?

A

55 gallons

234
Q

What function does offloading the container serve?

A

Reduce stress on the container

235
Q

What is required to decrease the risk of fire spread from

tank-to-tank at a bulk storage facility?

A

Spacing

236
Q

Which statement about dispersants is NOT true?

A

They neutralize substances

237
Q

What are considered the easiest to contain?

A

Dusts

238
Q
What class foam do first responders use on flammable
liquids?
A

Class B

239
Q

Since what year has vent and burn been accepted as a

usable option?

A

1982

240
Q

Which entries in the organization section of the ICS 208

worksheet are mandatory?

A

5 & 8

241
Q

What type of loading process is normally used when cargo tank trucks are being loaded with flammable liquids?

A

Bottom-loading

242
Q

What is the most common ethanol blend being transported by rail today?

A

E95

243
Q

What is the controlled release of a material to reduce and
control the pressure, and decrease the probability of a
violent container rupture?

A

Venting

244
Q

Who historically performs successful technical rescues?

A

Operations-level responders

245
Q

What is the number one mission at a hazmat incident?

A

Life Safety

246
Q

What material is used to manufacture a salvage cylinder?

A

Carbon steel

247
Q

With which containment process is there no increase in the volume of waste materials?

A

Vacuuming

248
Q

What must you be able to control before extinguishing a

pressure-fed flammable gas fire?

A

Fuel supply

249
Q

Which statement about fluoroprotein foam in NOT correct?

A

Cannot be used for subsurface injection

250
Q

What can be used to make the slide-in overpacking method easier and safer for the responders?

A

PVC pipes

251
Q

What was involved in the Roseburg, Oregon incident on

August 7, 1959?

A

Dynamite

252
Q

What pH level of corrosives do federal and most state
regulations allow entry into storm drains when dilution is
being employed?

A

6 to 8

253
Q

What is the second step taken to secure, characterize, and preserve the scene?

A

Place caution tape to limit scene access

254
Q

How should the confined space be treated when air

monitoring is within acceptable limits?

A

Contaminated

255
Q

Which is intended to be a more permanent confinement

method?

A

Retention

256
Q

What concentration range with a flammable atmosphere is considered hazardous?

A

10 to 20%

257
Q

What will happen to the operating pressure as soon as the water begins to flow?

A

Drops

258
Q

What is used on the ground to control the movement of

liquids, sludge, and solids?

A

Diking

259
Q

Class B foam intended for hydrocarbon fires will not be

effective for gasoline-ethanol mixtures above what level?

A

10%

260
Q

What often leads to loss of site control?

A

Maintaining a weak perimeter

261
Q

In which mode of operation is the goal to quickly control

or mitigate a problem?

A

Offensive

262
Q

What size should the patching device be in relation to the

breach as a minimum?

A

One half size larger

263
Q

How often should public protective actions be monitored?

A

Throughout the incident

264
Q

What is the baseline for hazmat decision making and should be the option against which all strategies and tactics are compared?

A

What will happen if I do nothing?

265
Q

What is NOT part of the essence of the risk evaluation

process?

A

Determine political problems

266
Q

Based on historical data, where will the cargo tank truck

be resting in a rollover incident?

A

Side

267
Q

Which of the following affects the effectiveness of the

compressor during a gas transfer?

A

Ambient temperature

268
Q

What should be the minimum accepted hazardous
classification rating of any electrical equipment used
around flammable liquids or vapors?

A

Class 1, Division 2

269
Q

What ground level has been established by the National

Electrical Code for residential purposes?

A

<25 ohms

270
Q

Which tactic is a chemical process confinement process?

A

adsorption

271
Q

What are the conductive objects connected to when

performing grounding?

A

The ground

272
Q

What rule about the compatibility of Class B foams is

misstated?

A

Different kinds of foam concentrates can be mixed during

proportioning

273
Q

How many escape routes should be planned during product

removal operations?

A

Two

274
Q

Where should the receiving tank be loaded when dealing

with MC-331 cargo tank trucks in LPG service to minimize the pressure build up in that tank?

A

Spray fill

275
Q

What does bonding and grounding give a pathway to travel to earth?

A

Static charge

276
Q

Which item numbers on the ICS 208 worksheet lists the

instruments that will be used to monitor for chemicals?

A

20-23

277
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element in developing an effective plan of action by the IC?

A

Tactical objectives

278
Q

What statement about the operational considerations during a pressure transfer is NOT correct?

A

Requires tank containing the product be vented and the

receiving tank be airtight

279
Q

What may be a reason to perform controlled burning at a

reactive fire?

A

Large amount of contaminated runoff

280
Q

What action is taken when operating in nonintervention

mode?

A

Isolate the area

281
Q

Fires involving ethanol mixtures in what range will assume the burning properties of a polar solvent?

A

10 to 15%

282
Q

Who does NOT typically conduct the safety briefing?

A

Staging Officer

283
Q

What should be tried if the leak on a pressurized

container continues after the valve is closed?

A

Tighten packing nut on the valve

284
Q

What happens when vapor is removed from an LNG tank?

A

It cools

285
Q

How many gpm does an atmospheric storage tank from 100 foot to 150 foot diameter require for water cooling
operations?

A

1000 gpm

286
Q

What is the primary concern in a fire situation when
determining the type of stress on a flammable gas
container?

A

Thermal

287
Q

What must the IC be able to do first to begin the process

of assembling a site safety and control plan?

A

Understand the nature of the problem

288
Q

What concentration of alcohol-resistant AFFF is most

commonly available?

A

3% hydrocarbon/3% polar solvent

289
Q

What on the pressure vessel should cooling water be

applied to?

A

All surfaces above the liquid level

290
Q

What must occur before product removal operations can

commence?

A

Incident stabilization

291
Q

What percentage of the accidental discharge will an
emergency scrubber normally be capable of filtering or
neutralizing?

A

100%

292
Q

What should the minimum angle of the diversion barrier be for a fast-moving spill?

A

60 degrees

293
Q

What should be used to stop a chime leak?

A

Chemical Patch

294
Q

What is used by most wreckers to life cargo tank trucks?

A

Nylon straps

295
Q

What significant risk does an oxygen-enriched atmosphere present rescuers?

A

Increased risk of fire

296
Q

Which tasks involve the “hands on” work?

A

Operational

297
Q

What will affect the likelihood that the problem will be

confined to its present size?

A

Quantity involved

298
Q

What function does offloading the container serve?

A

Reduce stress on the container

299
Q

Above what concentration do hydrogen peroxide hazards increase?

A

52%

300
Q

What method is most commonly used for decontaminating personnel?

A

Dilution

301
Q

How many wash-and-rinse stations are typically involved in technical decontamination?

A

One to three

302
Q

Which type of contaminant may be removed from a vehicle on site and then the car be driven to an off-site car wash for a second, more thorough washing?

A

Vapors

303
Q

What is the greatest challenge in a mass decontamination operation?

A

People management

304
Q

What is the minimum ambient temperature that should be
maintained in the warm place that victims are moved to
after mass decon in cold weather?

A

70 degrees Fahrenheit (21 degrees Celsius)

305
Q

How long should responders wait before entry to allow the aerosol to settle to significantly reduce the risk of
exposure?

A

30 to 60 minutes

306
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the ways to

reduce or eliminate contamination via mass decon?

A

Absorption

307
Q

Which factor that influences permeation is NOT true?

A

High-viscosity solids permeate faster than gases

308
Q

What level chemical splash protective clothing should

responders use during mass decontamination operations?

A

Level B

309
Q

What makes handling and disposal of contaminated PPE

easier during technical decontamination?

A

Large trash bags

310
Q

During which decontamination phase is the amount of the surface contaminant significantly reduced?

A

Gross

311
Q

Which is an ideal substance for the neutralization of

alkaline corrosives in emergencies?

A

Citric acid

312
Q

What is the process of destroying all microorganisms in or on an object?

A

Sterilization

313
Q

What should be used to establish a gross decon area in

emergency decontamination operations?

A

water

314
Q

Which type of decontamination usually involves using water or soap and water to decon a large number of people?

A

Mass

315
Q

What is the smallest size particle that HEPA vacuums can

capture?

A

0.1 microns

316
Q

How long after rest and oral hydration should vital signs
be taken to ensure adequate recovery from the stress of
entry?

A

10 to 15 minutes

317
Q

In what form are most flammable contaminants found?

A

Liquid

318
Q

Who should be brought to the scene to assist with
decontamination when animals have been injured from
exposure to hazardous materials?

A

Veterinarian

319
Q

What should be used on boots before stepping into decon showers?

A

Brushing

320
Q

What is the maximum number of contaminated responders are allowed in a wash and rinse station at a time?

A

What is the maximum number of contaminated responders are

allowed in a wash and rinse station at a time?

321
Q

What should be cleaned second when performing

decontamination of injured personnel?

A

Open wounds

322
Q

What detectable levels does decontamination, and cleaning of equipment and fixed facilities result in?

A

ppb

323
Q

What should the Decon Leader use to ensure that important items are not overlooked?

A

Formal checklists

324
Q

What is the chemical action involving the molecular

breakdown of protective clothing material due to chemical contact?

A

Degradation

325
Q

What is the first stop during technical decontamination?

A

Tool drop

326
Q

What can be used to mark the location of the decon
corridor entrance in the Hot Zone during night time
incidents?

A

Colored light

327
Q

If possible, how many decon members should staff each

station that will require entry personnel be scrubbed?

A

two

328
Q

Which is less likely to be a contaminant of animals?

A

Radiological release affecting a large area

329
Q

What should be the last apparatus in the line up when
using a multiple engine/ladder apparatus response for mass
decontamination?

A

Aerial

330
Q

With which of the following is secondary contamination a

greater problem?

A

Liquids

331
Q

Who is most often responsible for establishing the mass
decon corridor at a mass casualty scenario involving
hazmats?

A

First-due fire units

332
Q

How many levels from the PPE being used by the Entry Team can the Decon Team usually operate safely in?

A

One level down

333
Q

What flow rate does the “deluge” head on a safety shower deliver?

A

30 to 50 gpm

334
Q

What regulation must be followed when marking and labeling hazardous waste containers at the scene?

A

DOT 215K

335
Q

What is the minimum amount of time the water flush should last when performing emergency decontamination with corrosives that have made skin contact?

A

20 minutes

336
Q

What ultimately speeds up hospital patient care during a

hazmat incident?

A

Decontamination

337
Q

What is the first rule of decontamination?

A

Avoid contamination

338
Q

What is the last step taken during technical

decontamination?

A

Proceed to the rehabilitation area

339
Q

Which principle to prevent contamination is NOT correct?

A

Remove your respiratory gear as soon as possible

340
Q

Which has been shown to be the most effective during mass decon operations?

A

High volume, low-pressure water streams

341
Q

What percentage of contaminants can be removed by
undressing according to studies by the U.S. Army Soldier
and Biological Chemical Command?

A

80%

342
Q

What is the most effective method of preventing employee chemical exposure at decontamination operations at a fixed facility?

A

Remove air contaminants at the source

343
Q

Which of the following should chemical degradation NOT be used on?

A

Chemical protective clothing

344
Q

To what level should the Decon Leader and the Decon Team be trained as per NFPA 472?

A

Hazardous Materials Technician level

345
Q

Which disinfectants are the most practical for field use?

A

Chemical

346
Q

Which statement about performing mass decontamination on nonambulatory victims is NOT correct?

A

Allow clothing to collect underneath the victim

347
Q

What is the final step in isolation?

A

Packaging

348
Q

What percent of the first reading will radiation levels be

after the passage of 7 half-lives?

A

1%

349
Q

At what level are permeation contaminants absorbed into a material?

A

Molecular

350
Q

Which of the following methods has limited application for decontaminating personnel?

A

Absorption

351
Q

What can be used to organize the decon area?

A

Tarps

352
Q

Which term means that something is “dirty”?

A

Contamination

353
Q

Approximately how many people should basic mass decon practice evolutions begin with?

A

20 to 40 people

354
Q

Which type of decontamination is performed with or without the establishment of a decon corridor?

A

Emergency

355
Q

What is the relationship between the hazard area and
outside the hazard area at fixed facilities to minimize
the spread of contaminants?

A

Negative pressure inside/positive pressure outside

356
Q

What are the most common areas to be contaminated by

direct contamination?

A

Gloves

357
Q

What term is used to describe the ability of the

biological material to cause disease?

A

Virulence

358
Q

What is the process by which people, animals, the
environment, and equipment are subjected to or come in
contact with a hazardous material?

A

Exposure

359
Q

What is the most important factor in eliminating

radioactive material contamination problems?

A

Avoid contact with the material

360
Q

What priority level should be assigned to ambulatory

victims?

A

Priority 3

361
Q

Initially what should be done with waste as a general rule

at the hazmat scene during clean-up?

A

Contain it

362
Q

What can be done to help keep a K-9 assigned to search and rescue settled during decontamination operations?

A

Keep the handler near

363
Q

At which decon station will you need to physically contact your customer?

A

Doffing

364
Q

How wide should the lane be that is created by apparatus for mass decon?

A

12 to 16 feet

365
Q

Which of the following is heating NOT primarily used for

during decontamination operations?

A

Personnel

366
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that victims exposed to chemical warfare agents should be washed according to studies that have been conducted?

A

5 minutes

367
Q

What is considered an ideal water temperature for use in

mass decon operations?

A

70 degrees Fahrenheit (21 degrees Celsius)

368
Q

Which emitters present both the possibility of becoming
airborne and creating high radiation levels near the
surface of the contaminated area?

A

Beta

369
Q

Which statement about decontaminating equipment is NOT correct?

A

Any responder can supervise equipment clean-up operations

370
Q

Which criteria for evaluating decontamination

effectiveness is NOT correct?

A

Few personnel were exposed to concentrations above the

TLV/TWA

371
Q

What must be done before placing decontaminated hose back into service?

A

Pressure test

372
Q

During what period of a pregnancy are embryotoxic

contaminants most dangerous?

A

First eight to twelve weeks

373
Q

What can be used to place inner gloves into when doffing them during technical decontamination?

A

Plastic bags

374
Q

What should be kept separate during technical

decontamination to protect it from damage?

A

Monitors

375
Q

For which type of hazard is there currently no practical
way to determine the effectiveness of field
decontamination?

A

Etiological