Skeletal System Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
A vertebra that takes on characteristics on both sides of a major division of the spine
A
Transitional Vertebra
2
Q
A transitional vertebra of C7-T1 is what?
A
An extra rib
3
Q
A transitional vertebra of T12-L1 is what?
A
rib articulating with transverse process
4
Q
A transitional vertebra of L5-S1 is what?
A
Expanded transverse process (unilateral or bilateral)
5
Q
Posterior defect of the spinal canal-failure to close properly
A
Spina Bifida
6
Q
A mild form of spina bifida in which there is a splitting of the bony neural canal at the L5-S1 level
A
Spina Bifida Occulta
7
Q
Large defects are associated with spinal cord abnormalities & lead to what?
A
Muscular abnormalities and lack of bladder or bowel control.
8
Q
Slight ________ of skin or tuft of _______ over the site of lesion/defect in Spina Bifida
A
dimpling/ hair
9
Q
Herniation of meninges from large defects in the lumbar or cervical spine
A
Meningocele
10
Q
Herniation of meninges & portion of spinal cord or nerve roots
A
Myelomeningocele
11
Q
What is the appearance of spina bifida
A
- Large bony defects, absence of laminae & increased interpedicular distance
2, Soft tissue mass posterior to spine
12
Q
Another name for Marble Bone Disease
A
Osteopetrosis
13
Q
A rare hereditary bone dysplasia in which failure of the resorptive mechanism of calcified cartilage interferes with the normal replacement by mature bone. Prevents bone marrow from forming (brittle bone-stress fx)
A
Osteopetrosis
14
Q
With Osteopetrosis, what do you need to do for technique
A
increase in technique due to generalized increase in bone density.
15
Q
Brittle Bone Disease
A
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
16
Q
Disorder of connective tissue with severe osteoporosis. Thin, defective cortices (low kvp). Its Characterized by multiple fractures (exuberant callus formation, bizarre deformaties).
A
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
17
Q
What disease of the bone sometimes may be confused with Child Abuse because of the presentation of multiple fractures in different stages of the healing process?
A
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
18
Q
Diminished proliferation of cartilage in the growth plate-Most common form of dwarfism
A
Achondroplasia
19
Q
What is the appearance of Achondroplasia?
A
- Progressive narrowing of interpedicular distance from superior to inferior (opposite of normal).
- Scalloping of posterior margins of lumbar vertebral bodies.
- Long bones appear short & thick
20
Q
Acetabulum does not completely form causing head of femur to become displaced superiorly and posteriorly. Ligaments & tendons / unilateral or bilateral. Mostly occurs in females
A
Congenital Hip Dysplasia
21
Q
What views are needed to demonstrate congenital hip dysplasia?
A
AP and bilateral frog leg (cleaves)
22
Q
Chronic systemic disease of unknown cause. Inflammation and overgrowth of synovial tissue. Periarticular soft tissue swelling, symmetric joint destruction & deformity.
A
Rheumatoid Arthritis
23
Q
In Rheumatoid Arthritis where is it most commonly found and in whom?
A
Small bones of hands and feet (crippling deformity).
Females/ avg age is 40 years
24
Q
How does Rheumatoid Arthritis begin?
A
As an inflammation of the synovial membrane that lines the joints.
25
Excessive exudate (fluid) causes what in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
proliferation of synovium
26
Rheumatoid Arthritis results in what?
a mass that causes erosion of articular cartilage and underlying cortex (development of ankylosis-bone fusion across joint).
27
In Rheumatoid Arthritis the destruction of cartilage causes what?
narrowing of joint space
28
Ulnar deviation in the hands is common in what disease?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
29
Progressive form of arthritis involving the spine and SI joints.
Ankylosing Spondylitis
30
To whom does Ankylosing Spondylitis often occur in?
Males 20-40 years of age
31
What appearance does this describe? Bilateral narrowing & fuzziness of SI joints. Calcification of bones of spine with ossification of vertebral ligaments (Polar spine/bamboo spine). Fusion of the vertebra
Ankylosing Spondylitis
32
Another name for Reiter syndrome
Reactive arthritis
33
Reiter syndrome is characterized by what 3 things?
arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis (eye infection)
34
Reiter syndrome is a variant of what?
rheumatoid arthritis
35
What disease is associated with bacterial infections of GI & genitourinary systems. Affects SI joints, heel & toes. Asymmetric involvement of SI joints. Basically a reaction to bacteria in the body.
Reiter Syndrome
36
Another name for degenerative joint disease
Osteoarthritis
37
What is a gradual deterioration of articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
Osteoarthritis
38
Osteoarthritis affects what joints?
weight bearing joints
39
What disease has this appearance-
Irregular narrowing of joint spaces due to thinning of cartilage (RA has even narrowing of joint space). Osteophytes (Bone spurs)
Osteoarthritis
40
Inflammation of the bursae
Bursitis
41
Bursitis is caused by?
repeated physical activity, trauma, rheumatoid arthritis, gout, or infection
42
What pathology is not visualized on images. But might be seen with deposits of calcification in adjacent tendon (calcific tendinitis).
Bursitis
43
Acute or chronic inflammation of bone & bone marrow caused by a pathogenic microorganism that was introduced by the bloodstream, adjacent infection or direct introduction (trauma/surgery).
Bacteria Osteomyelitis
44
What does Bacteria osteomyelitis affect?
Long bones and vertebra
45
What forms as an abcess which leads to an inflammatory reaction within bone causing an increase in bone pressure?
Bacteria Osteomyelitis
46
What is the acute stage of bacteria osteomyelitis?
Soft tissue swelling in affected area
47
What is the chronic stage of bacteria osteomyelitis?
Extensive bone destruction with irregular, sclerotic reaction throughout bone. Sequestrum (avascular dead bone). Involcrum (new bone).
48
Generalized or localized deficiency of bone matrix. Accelerated resorption of bone, decreased bone formation. Loss of bone mass and Density
Osteoporosis
49
With osteoporosis, what is fractures due to and how much bone density is lost?
due to porous, brittle bones. 50-70% bone density loss (lower kvp)
50
What pathology has the appearance of a picture frame where the density of vertebra decreases and the cortex appears as a dense thin line and is most evident in the spine and pelvis?
Osteoporosis
51
Insufficient mineralization of the adult skeleton with a lack of calcium in tissues and failure of bone tissue to calcify?
Osteomalacia
52
What pathology has the appearance:
Softening of bone- bending
loss of bone density
Cortex is thin making borders appear indistinct
Osteomalacia
53
Systemic disease of infancy and childhood that is a deficiency of vitamin D in diet or lack of exposure to sunshine and a deficiency in calcification.
Rickets/infantile osteomalacia
54
What pathology has the appearance of cupped or frayed metaphysis in long bones and is best seen in ribs, tibia, humerus, and wrist.
Rickets/infantile osteomalacia
55
Disorder in metabolism of purine (a component of nucleic acids) in which an increase in the blood level of uric acid leads to the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, cartilage, and kidney.
Gout
56
In whom and where does Gout usually occur?
Males. Most commonly affects 1st MTP jt.
57
What are early signs of gout?
Joint effusion and periarticular swelling
58
Clumps of urate crystals (Tophi) form along margins of articular cortex & erode underlying bone leading to small punched out defects @ joint margin (rat bite erosion) ....occurs in what pathology?
Gout
59
Osteitis deformans is another name for?
Pagets Disease
60
What pathology is the destruction of bone, followed by a reparative process, results in a weakened, deformed, and thickened bony structures that tend to fracture easily.
Pagets disease
61
What are the two stages of Pagets Disease?
Osteolytic stage (destruction) and Osteoblastic stage (abnormally soft and poorly mineralized material).
62
In whom and where does Pagets disease normally occur?
Men/ middle life (3% at 40 years)/elderly. Common site is Pelvis. Can also occur in femur, skull, tibia, vertebra, clavicles, and ribs.
63
What pathology has the appearance in the PELVIS of coarsening of trabeculae along iliac margins- thickening of pelvic brim cortical thickening with a coarse, thickened trabeculae pattern (picture frame pattern).
Pagets Disease
64
What pathology has the appearance in the SKULL of radiolucencies in destructive phase and cotton-wool appearance in reparative phase?
Pagets disease
65
A disorder that usually begins during childhood, is characterized by the proliferation of fibrous tissue within the medullary cavity. It gradually expands and weakens bone-loss of trabecular markings/widening of bone.
Fibrous Dysplasia
66
Where does Fibrous Dysplasia mostly occur?
Singe bone or bones of one extremity (adult). Throughout entire skeleton (children and mostly females). Long bones (femur and tibia), ribs and facial bones.
67
What pathology has the appearance of Well defined radiolucent areas depending on amount of tissue. They are completely radiolucent. Has a ground-glass or soap bubble density. Multiocular appearance. Irregular bands of sclerosis may cause cyst-like lesions
Fibrous Dysplasia
68
Another name for avascular necrosis (AVN) that is caused by loss of blood supply
Ischemic necrosis of bone
69
What is the most common site for Ischemic necrosis of bone?
Femoral head. Intially- bone appears denser. Structural failure- radiolucent subcortical band or crescent sign which represents fracture line. Progression- pattern of lytic and sclerotic areas with flattening of femoral head and new bone formation.
70
What is a benign projection of bone with a cartilaginous cap that arises during childhood or teens years in males?
Osteochondroma/exostosis
71
Where does osteochondroma/exostosis occur?
Occurs in epiphyseal plate and grows laterally- typically knee area. Cortex blends with normal bone and grows up and away from nearest joint. If cap becomes malignant- osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma.
72
What is a slow growing tumor composed of cartilage arising in medullary cavity that does not invade surrounding tissue and expands the cortical bone (thinning and scalloping of cortex-leads to fx. Its also has a radiolucent lesion with small calcifications.
Enchondroma
73
What does enchondroma effect?
Small bones of hands/feet.
74
What is another name for Giant Cell Tumor
Osteoclastoma
75
What begins as a lucent lesion in metaphysis and extends to subarticular cortex and does not involve joint.
Giant Cell Tumor or Osteoclastoma
76
Who and where gets Giant Cell Tumor or Osteoclastoma
20 to 40 years/ women/ distal femur or proximal tibia
77
What pathology has the appearance of multiple large bubbles separated by thin strips of bone (expands toward shaft).
Osteoclastoma or Giant Cell Tumor
78
What is a tumor of teenagers or young adults/males (3x more likely) that if found in the femur/tibia that originates from osteoblastic cells.
Osteoid Osteoma
79
What pathology has the appearance of small, round or oval, lucent center (nidus) surrounded by a large, dense sclerotic zone of cortical thickening.
Osteoid Osteoma
80
What is a wall of fibrous tissue filled with fluid (fluid filled lesion) that occurs in proximal humerus or femur?
Simple bone cyst
81
What pathology has the appearance of radiolucent with well-defined margins from normal bone surrounding lesion. Cyst may be surrounded by a thin rim of sclerotic bone. Oval configuration with long axis parallel to host bone.
Simple bone cyst.
82
What is another name of osteogenic sarcoma
Osteosarcoma
83
What is a highly aggressive neoplasm that is most often located in bone marrow. As tumor grows, it lifts periosteum from the cortical bone (Codmans triangle) and lays down spikes of new bone radiating from origin (Sunray or sunburst appearance).
Osteosarcoma
84
Where and whom does Osteogenic Sarcoma in?
Long bones (knee). Affects 10-25 years of age (75%). Older individuals with pagets disease or after high level radiation exposure to bone. Poor prognosis- lung mets
85
Pre-existing cartilaginous lesion (10%) or arises anew (90%). Osteochondroma/enchondroma. Develops later 35-60 years in men. Its grows more slowly/ metastasizes later.
Chondrosarcoma
86
What pathology has the appearance that affects long bones- originates in rib/scapula/vertebrae that contains calcifications within mass and destroys bone (Scalloping and cortical destruction).
Chondrosarcoma
87
What is a primary tumor arising in bone marrow of long bones that involves bone more diffusely with uniform thickening, lesions tend to be very extensive-involving entire shaft of bone and is extremely malignant
Ewing Sarcoma
88
Whom does ewing sarcoma affect?
Children and young adults/males
89
What pathology has the appearance of ill-defined area of bone destruction involving a large central portion of shaft of long bone. Fusiform layered periosteal reaction (onionskin appearance) parallel to shaft. Moth eaten bone destruction
Ewing sarcoma
90
Widespread malignancy of plasma cells that infiltrate bone producing multiple osteolytic lesions throughout.
Multiple myeloma
91
Who does multiple myeloma affect?
40 to 70 years of age. Highly malignant.
92
What pathology has the appearance of swiss cheese on a lateral skull and diffuse, osteoporosis with discrete punched-out, osteolytic regions throughout skeletal system.
Multiple myeloma.
93
Most common malignant bone tumor
Bone Metastases
94
How is Bone Mets spread?
Bloodstream or lymphatic vessels or by direct extension
95
What are the most common primary tumors (mets)
Breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
96
What is the most common sites for bone mets
Spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, humerus and femur.
97
What is the appearance of mets?
Irregular, poorly defined lucent lesions or poorly defined increased densities depending on site of origin.
98
A fracture composed of more than 2 fragments
communited
99
An elongated triangular fragment detached from two other larger fragments of bone
butterfly
100
A segment of the shaft is isolated by proximal and distal lines of fracture.
segmental
101
Fatigue fracture. Response of bone to repeated stress
Stress fracture.
102
What are the most common sites of stress fractures?
2nd and 3rd metatarsals, calcaneus, tib/fib, femur, and ischial and pubic rami
103
What kind of fracture is first visualized 10-20 days after onset of symptoms and has a transverse or oblique thin line of radiolucency or callus formation without evidence of fracture line.
Stress fracture.
104
What kind of fracture occurs in bone at an area of weakness caused by a process such as a tumor, infection or metabolic bone disease. most common underlying- mets or multiple myeloma. Most often in spine, femur and humerus.
Pathologic fracture.
105
Incomplete fracture with the opposite cortex intact. Happens in infants and children.
Incomplete fracture (greenstick)
106
A fracture in which one cortex is intact with buckling of the opposite cortex
Torus (Buckle) - incomplete fracture
107
A deformation caused by a stress that is too great to permit a complete recovery of normal shape but less to produce a fracture
Bowing- incomplete fracture
108
Transverse fracture through distal radius with dorsal/posterior angulation. Associated avulsion fracture of ulnar styloid process. Usually caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. Most common fracture of the wrist.
Colles Fracture
109
A fracture with anterior angulation
Smiths fracture.
110
Isolated fracture of ulna shaft associated with anterior dislocation of radius at elbow
monteggia fracture
111
a combination of a fracture of radial shaft and dorsal/posterior dislocation of ulna at wrist.
Galeazzi Fracture
112
Fracture involving medial and lateral malleoli
Bimalleolar
113
Fracture involving the medial lateral and posterior malleoli
Trimalleolar
114
Fracture of both malleoli with ankle dislocation
Potts
115
most frequent injury to the foot. Transverse fracture at base of 5th metatarsal. Avulsion injury that results from plantar flexion and inversion of foot.
Jones fracture.
116
Communited fracture of ring of atlas (1st vertebrae) Involves anterior/posterior arches. Causes displacement of fragments
Jefferson Fracture
117
Located at base of dens (C2) at junction with body. Usually transverse fracture
odontoid process fracture
118
Results from acute hyperextension of head on neck. Fracture of C2 arch anterior to interior facet. Associated with anterior subluxation of C2 on C3. Results from MVA
Hangmans fracture
119
Avulsion fracture of a spinous process in lower cervical or upper thoracic spine.
Clay shovelers fracture
120
Transverse fracture of lumbar vertebrae often associated with significant visceral injuries
Seat belt fracture.
121
Cleft in pars interarticularis without displacement. Bilateral, 5th lumbar vertebra, predisposes to forward displacement of one vertebra on the other
Spondylolysis
122
Defect in the parts interacticularis with displacement
Spondylolithesis
