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RADT 255 Radiographic Pathology > Skeletal System Disorders > Flashcards

Skeletal System Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

bone consists of:

A

organic matrix with inorganic salts primarily calcium and phosphorous

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2
Q

outer fibrous membrane of bone containing a network of blood vessels transporting nutrients

A

periosteum

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3
Q

main shaft-like portion of bone

A

diaphysis

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4
Q

ends of bone

A

epiphysis

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5
Q

hollow, tube like structure within the diaphysis that holds marrow

A

medullary cavity

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6
Q

inner membrane of the bone

A

endosteum

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7
Q

bone consits of 2 highly specialized connective tissues:

A

bone and cartilage

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8
Q

dense bone within the haversian system

A

compact bone

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9
Q

name some compact bones

A

femur, tibia, carpal and tarsal bones

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10
Q

spongy web like arrangement of marrow filled spaces separated by trabeculae

A

cancellous bone

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11
Q

name some cancellous bones

A

facial bones, vertebral bodies

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12
Q

what type of cartilage is bone composed of

A

hyaline cartilage

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13
Q

purpose of osteoclasts

A

enlarge the medullary cavity

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14
Q

purpose of osteoblasts

A

form new bone on periosteum

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15
Q

bones that grow in size by the addition of osseous tissue to their outer surfaces

A

flat bones

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16
Q

at what age do bones begin to thin out

A

40

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17
Q

numbness in the upper extremities could be caused by which bone disorder

A

transitional vertebrae

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18
Q

transverse processes forming joints with the sacrum, leads to degenerative change in opposite hip

A

transitional vertebrae

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19
Q

posterior defect resulting in failure of the posterior elements to fuse properly

A

spina bifida

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20
Q

“marble bone” bone dysplasia resulting from a failure of resorption mechanism of calcified cartilage (increase in bone density)

A

osteopetrosis

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21
Q

insufficient mineralization of adult skeleton, resulting from excessive osteoid formation

A

osteomalacia

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22
Q

systemic infant disease caused by a deficiency of vitamin D or lack of exposure to sunlight

A

Rickets

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23
Q

increased levels of uric acid leading to a deposition of uric acid crystals in joints, cartilage, and kidneys cause by a malfunction of purine metabolism

A

Gout

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24
Q

bone disease categorized by “rat bite” sign

A

Gout

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25
Q

destruction of bone followed by a reparative process resulting in weakened, deformed and thickened bony structures

A

Paget’s Disease

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26
Q

bone disease categorized by mottled appearance or “cotton ball effect”

A

Paget’s Disease

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27
Q

benign projection of bone with a cartilaginous cap that arises in teen / childhood years

A

Osteochondroma

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28
Q

slow growing benign cartilaginous tumor arising in the medullary canal

A

enchondroma

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29
Q

tumor that arises at the distal end of the femur or proximal tibia of young adults after epiphyseal closure

A

giant cell tumor

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30
Q

tumor that often arises in the outer table of the skull, paranasal sinuses, and the mandible

A

osteoma

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31
Q

small round tumor surrounded by a large area of sclerotic tissue and cortical thickening, usually in femur or tibia

A

osteoid osteoma

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32
Q

fluid filled cyst with a wall of fibrous tissue

A

simple bone cyst

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33
Q

blood filled arteriovenous communications usually occurring in long bones

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

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34
Q

solitary, sharply demarcated areas of dense compact bone that occur most commonly in pelvis and upper femur

A

bone islands

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35
Q

appears as a mixed destructive and sclerotic lesion associated with a soft tissue mass, irregular periosteal reaction and classic “sunburst” pattern

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

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36
Q

often originates from cartilage or preexisting cartilaginous lesion, appears as granular calcifications within a mass

A

Chondrosarcoma

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37
Q

ill-defined areas of bone destruction that involves central portion of the shaft and associated with periosteal reaction parallel to the shaft

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

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38
Q

widespread malignancy of plasma cells associated with bone destruction, appears as punched out osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the skeletal system

A

multiple myeloma

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39
Q

most common malignant bone tumors spreading by means of blood stream or lymphatic vessels or by direct extension

A

bone metastases

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40
Q

chronic systemic inflammatory disease of small joints of the hands and feet

A

rheumatoid arthritis

41
Q

rheumatoid arthritis beginning in the SI joints, causing bilateral and symmetric involvement - progresses to L spine upward limiting movement

A

ankylosing spondylitis

42
Q

post infectious arthritis after venereal or GI infections, involves SI joints, heel and toes

A

Reiter’s Syndrome

43
Q

occurs in patients with psoriasis, affects distal interphalangeal joints of hands and feet producing asymmetrical destruction

A

Psoriatic arthritis

44
Q

narrowing of joint spaced caused by thinning of articular cartilage and development of bone spurs

A

osteoarthritis

45
Q

pyogenic organisms invade bone tissue usually after surgery or trauma, appears as widening of joint space from fluid and rapid destruction of articular cartilage

A

infectious arthritis

46
Q

arthritis categorized by erosion of margins of articular ends

A

tuberculous arthritis

47
Q

inflammation of the bone and bone marrow caused by an infectious organism introduced during surgery or trauma

A

bacterial osteomyelitis

48
Q

characterized by poorly marginated destruction within vertebral body often associated with paravertebral abscesses

A

tuberculous osteomyelitis

49
Q

most common skeletal abnormality - disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied directly to the bone

A

fractures

50
Q

fracture with discontinuity between two or more fragments

A

complete fracture

51
Q

fracture that causes only partial discontinuity with a portion of the cortex intact

A

incomplete fracture

52
Q

fracture where overlying skin is in tact

A

closed fracture

53
Q

fracture where overlying skin is ruptured

A

open / compound fracture

54
Q

fracture runs at a 90 degree angle - direct blow

A

transverse fracture

55
Q

fracture runs 45 degrees to long axis - compression forces

A

oblique fracture

56
Q

fracture encircles the shaft - twisting motion

A

spiral fracture

57
Q

fracture with small fragments torn off from bony prominences - tension forces

A

avulsion fracture

58
Q

fracture with more than 2 fragments

A

comminuted fracture

59
Q

fracture consists of a segment of the shaft isolated by proximal and distal fracture lines

A

segmented fracture

60
Q

fracture with compaction of bone trabeculae, common in vertebral bodies and humeral and femoral heads

A

compression fracture

61
Q

fracture of the skull or tibial plateau where fragments are drawn inward

A

depressed fracture

62
Q

fracture caused by repeated injury - osteoclastic resorption followed by periosteal callus

A

stress or fatigue fracture

63
Q

bone fracture as a result of tumor, infection, or metabolic bone disease

A

pathologic fracture

64
Q

incomplete fracture of soft cancellous bone

A

greenstick fracture

65
Q

fracture without separation

A

undisplaced

66
Q

fracture with separation of bone fragments

A

displaced

67
Q

displacement of bone so that it is not in contact with its normal articular surface

A

dislocation

68
Q

fracture of partial dislocation

A

subluxation

69
Q

overall goal of reduction

A

restore function and stability

70
Q

fracture treatment manipulation of the affected area without surgical incision

A

closed reduction

71
Q

fracture treatment surgical repair; manipulation or insertion of hardware devices

A

open reduction

72
Q

fracture treatment immobilization with casts or splints

A

external fixation

73
Q

fracture treatment use of metal plates, rods or screws

A

internal fixation

74
Q

faulty healing of fracture; impairment of normal function

A

malunion

75
Q

takes longer than usual for a fracture to heal is called

A

delayed union

76
Q

fracture healing process has stopped and the fragments remain ununited

A

non-union

77
Q

transverse fracture through distal radius with posterior angulation with an avulsion fracture of ulnar styloid

A

Colles

78
Q

transverse fracture at the center of bone from thumb pulling

A

scaphoid fracture

79
Q

transverse fracture of the neck of the 5th metacarpal with palmar angulation

A

Boxer’s

80
Q

sign of elbow fracture is the displacement of normal fat pad

A

radial head fracture

81
Q

isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna associated with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow

A

Monteggia

82
Q

combination fracture of the shaft of the radius and posterior dislocation of the ulna at the wqrist

A

Galeazzi

83
Q

involves both malleoli with dislocation of the ankle joint (injury side is transverse fracture and opposing is spiral)

A

Pott’s

84
Q

involves posterior lip of tibia in addition to medial and lateral malleoli

A

Trimalleolar

85
Q

transverse fracture of the 5th metatarsal; an avulsion injury by stepping off curb or step

A

Jones’ fracture

86
Q

95% are anterior dislocations resulting from external rotation and abduction

A

shoulder dislocation

87
Q

spinal fracture / dislocation where the anterior and posterior columns remain intact

A

stable

88
Q

spinal fracture / dislocation where the anterior and posterior columns are disrupted

A

unstable

89
Q

comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas and involves both anterior and posterior arches causing displacement of the fragments

A

Jefferson fracture

90
Q

usually transverse and located at the base of the dens at its junction with its body

A

Odontoid fracture

91
Q

result of acute hyperextension of the head, fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the interior facet

A

Hangman’s fracture

92
Q

avulsion fracture of a spinous process in the lower or upper thoracic - AP will show double spinous process shadow

A

Clay Shoveler’s fracture

93
Q

anterior wedging or depression of superior end plate of vertebral bodies

A

compression fracture

94
Q

transverse fracture of a lumbar vertebrae associated with visceral injuries

A

seat belt fracture

95
Q

childhood disorder characterized by the proliferation of fibrous tissue within the medullary cavity

A

fibrous dysplasia

96
Q

cleft in the pars interarticularis that is situated between the superior and inferior articular processes

A

spondylolysis

97
Q

first degree spondylolisthesis

A

displacement of L5 to 1/4 of sacrum

98
Q

second degree spondylolisthesis

A

displacement of L5 to half of sacrum

99
Q

third degree spondylolisthesis

A

displacement of L5 to 3/4 of sacrum

RADT 255 Radiographic Pathology (15 decks)

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