SODA PART 1 Flashcards

(125 cards)

1
Q

Part I. Complete the statements. (#1-55)
The (1) __ is a brownish black, foul-smelling material that forms after the liquid particles of cigarette cool down

A) tar
B) acetone
C) formalin
D) nicotine

A
  1. A) tar
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2
Q

(2)__ is the actual person that puff the butt of cigarette, while (3)__ is the one who is involuntarily exposed to tobacco smoke. On the other hand, (4)__ is that which is filtered into the mouth & lungs, while the (5)__ is that which passes
directly unfiltered into the air.

A) active smoker
B) mainstream smoke
C) sidestream smoke
D) passive smoker

A
  1. A. ACTIVE SMOKER - is the actual person that puff the butt of cigarette
  2. D. PASSIVE SMOKER - is the one who is involuntarily exposed to tobacco smoke.
  3. B. MAINSTREAM SMOKE- is that which is filtered into the mouth & lungs
  4. C. SIDESTREAM SMOKE- is that which passes directly unfiltered into the air
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3
Q

A One-pack-year smoker is pouring (6)__ grams of tar into his lungs every year, and it takes (7)__ days after cessation of smoking for the undestroyed cilia to start functioning again.

A) 252
B) 225
C)2
D) 4

A
  1. B) 225
  2. D) 4
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4
Q

Smoking can lead to the complete cutoff of circulation & inflammation of the blood vessels in fingers & toes leading to a condition called (8)__ as well as (9)__, where there is loss of elasticity of the lung alveoli.

A) buerger’s Disease
B) phecomelia
C) emphysema
D) hydrocephalus

A
  1. A) buerger’s Disease
  2. C) emphysema
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5
Q

Alcohol is very soluble in (10)__, and has a (11)__ effect on central nervous system.

A) water
B) another alcohol
C) stimulant
D) depressant

A
  1. A) water
  2. D) depressant
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6
Q

12) ____ means a larger amount of alcohol must be consumed to provide the same response; (13) __ is a condition wherein a heavy drinker becomes resistant to other drugs, even when he is sober; while the condition where the body has already adjusted to the presence of alcohol leading to abnormal reactions during withdrawal, is called (14)____.

A) dependence
B) tolerance
C) cross-tolerance
D) addiction

A
  1. B) tolerance
  2. C) cross-tolerance
  3. A) dependence
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7
Q

A (15) ___ urine specimen will not generate a colored line in the specific test line region of the strip because of (16) __, while a (17)__ urine specimen will generate a colored line in the test line region because of the (18)__.

A) absence of drug competition
B) drug-positive
C) drug competition
D) drug-negative

A
  1. B) drug-positive
  2. C) drug competition
  3. D) drug-negative
  4. A) absence of drug competition
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8
Q

To serve as a procedural control, (19) __ will appear at the (20)__ line region.

A) a colored line
B) control
C) test
D) no colored line

A

19.A) a colored line
20. B) control

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9
Q

Which among the following commonly abused drugs, is the most (21),__ as well as the least (22)__ addictive?

A) Caffeine
B) Tobacco
C)) Alcohol
D) Marijuana

A

21.A) Caffeine
22. D) Marijuana

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10
Q

(23)__ participates by binding with the DNA binding site rich in (24) ____ residues to optimize its interaction with the hormone-receptor complex. Synthesis of (25) ____ and proteins is then initiated.

A) Zinc
B) cAMP
C) cysteine
D) mRNA

A

23.A) Zinc
24.C) cysteine
25.D) mRNA

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11
Q

In the Overnight Water Department Test, patients with ADH deficiency should cause a/an (26)____ effect on the plasma and a/an (27)____ effect on the urine.

A) concentrating
B) decreasing
C) increasing
D) dilutional

A
  1. A) concentrating
  2. D) dilutional
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12
Q

Given the following data of Juan de la Cruz - TT4 = 10μg/dL, RT3U = 21%, average normal RT3U value = 30% - the RT3U ratio of the patient is (28)__, while the FT4I value is (29)__.

A) 2.10
B) 10.0
C) 7.0
D) 0.70

A
  1. D) 0.70
  2. C) 7.0
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13
Q

If (30)__ is used to differentiate many causes of hyperthyroidism, and (31)__ evaluates the response of patients to antithyroid drug therapy, then (32) __ is an indirect measure of the unsaturated binding sites on the thyroid hormone-binding proteins.

A) Resin T3 Uptake (RT3U) Test
B) Measurement of TSH
C) Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU) Test
D) T3 Suppression Test

A
  1. C) Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU) Test
  2. D) T3 Suppression Test
  3. A) Resin T3 Uptake (RT3U) Test
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14
Q

(33) __ values are collected during the period of maximal absorption of the drug, while (34)__ values are monitored by collecting blood just before the administration of a dose. The former usually depends on the (35)__ of the drug.

A) trough
B) peak
C) route of administration
D) elimination

A
  1. B) peak
  2. A) trough
  3. C) route of administration
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15
Q

About (36)__ % of cortisol is bound to CBG. Its levels are usually high between (37) __.

A) 4-8AM
B) 30-70%
C) 4-8PM
D) 83-90%

A
  1. D) 83-90%
  2. A) 4-8AM
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16
Q

Dexamethasone, being a synthetic ACTH analog, does not only act like the latter’s (38) ___ feedback, but also has similar functions to ACTH. Thus, in hypoadrenalism, if the defect is in the adrenal cortex there will be (39) ___ in plasma or urine cortisol, while if the defect is in the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, there will be (40) ___ plasma and urine cortisol.

A) positive
B) negative
C) increase
D) no change

A
  1. B) negative
  2. D) no change
  3. C) increase
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17
Q

When measuring catecholamines in the plasma, the most convenient method is (41) __, although (42) __ is the preferred method, using (43) __ as the anticoagulant.

A) High Performance Liquid Chromatography
B) Radioimmunoassay
C) Heparin
D) EDTA

A
  1. B) Radioimmunoassay
  2. A) High Performance Liquid Chromatography
  3. C) Heparin
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18
Q

The (44)__ is the most accurate method for lead determination, while the (45) __ may be used for lithium determination.

A. Flame Emission Photometry
B. UV Spectrophotometry
C. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
D. Visible spectrophotometry

A
  1. C. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
  2. A. Flame Emission Photometry
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19
Q

patients; for (47)___ poisoning, it is by detecting an increased serum osmolality, while (48) ___ intoxication is diagnosed by the presence of hyperosmolality without glycosuria. Among the alcohols, (49)__ is also known as wood
alcohol.

A) Isopropanol
B. 1,2 ethane-diol
C. Methanol
D. ethanol

A
  1. D. ethanol
  2. A) Isopropanol
  3. C. Methanol
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20
Q

The Reinsch test is a measurement for (50) ___. In this test, the metallic (51)__, in the presence of acid, will reduce #86 to its elemental form

A. arsenic
B. copper
C. iron
D. calcium

A
  1. A. arsenic
  2. B. copper
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21
Q

Acceptable blood lead concentrations in healthy persons without excessive exposure to environmental sources of lead is less than (52)__ for children and less than (53)__ for adults.

A. 1.0 μg/dL
B. 25 μg/dL
C. 10 μg/dL
B. 2.5 μg/dL

A
  1. C. 10 μg/dL
  2. B. 25 μg/dL
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22
Q

In an attempt to put an end to the illegal drug trade, the President repealed the Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 or RA (54)__ and provided for stiffer penalties for illegal drug possession and pushing in the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 or RA (55) ___.

A. 9156
B. 6245
C. 9165
D. 6425

A
  1. D. 6425
  2. C. 9165
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23
Q

Part II. Which does NOT belong to the group? (#56 -84)

56) Personal reasons for taking drugs:

A) peer pressure
B) experiment al
C) attention deficit disorder
D) low self esteem
E) none

A

E) none

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24
Q

57) Roles of family to prevent drug abuse:

A) parent-child communication
B) encouragement
C) assigning responsibilities
D) setting fine examples
E) none

A

E) none

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25
58) Roles of the church to prevent drug abuse: A) religious workshops B) importance of an individual in church C) involvement in church activities D) alert the conscience E) none
E) none
26
Toxic substances acquired during cigarette smoking: A) Arsenic B) Formaldehyde C) Acetone D) Nitrosamines E) none
D) Nitrosamines ( BASE SA QUIZ NI CASIO)
27
60) This type of cigarette is safe for the health: A) Infinite B) Filter C) Ultra Lights D)Menthol E) none
E) none
28
61) This type of alcohol is safe for the health: A) Wine B) Beer C) Whiskies D)Gin E) none
E) none
29
62) These are hallucinogens: A) Ecstasy B) LSD C) Marijuana D) Mescaline E) none
A) Ecstasy
30
63) Narcotics include: A) Codeine B) Phencyclidine C) Heroin C) Morphine E) none
B) Phencyclidine
31
64) Street names for Barbiturates: A) Gin B) yellow jackets C) blue heavens D) downers E) none
A) Gin
32
65) Phencyclidine street names: A) Angel dust B) rocket fuel C) buttons D) ozone E) none
C) buttons
33
66) Stimulants include: A) Caffeine B) codeine C) cocaine D) shabu E) none
B) codeine
34
67) The chemical caffeine is found in the following: A) Coffee B) cola C) tea D) cocoa E) none
D) cocoa
35
68) Amphetamine street names include: A) Eye opener B) lid popper C) pep pills D) sha E) none
D) sha
36
69) Mechanisms on how Hallucinogens affect the brain: A) It binds with serotonin receptor (5-HT2)in the brain B) Serotonin is blocked from the receptor sites C) Increased in free serotonin D) Free serotonin increased blood flow to eyes E) none
E) none
37
70) The following are included among the abused drugs: A) coffee B) cigarette C) alcohol D) cola E) none
E) none
38
71 ) It is necessary to collect this sample for drug testing A) clean-catch urine B) midstream urine C) first morning urine D) random urine
D) random urine
39
72) Steps necessary for the preparation of the patient for drug testing: A) men or boys should wipe clean their genitalia with a moist cloth or alcohol square B) women or girls need to wash the genital area with soapy water and rinse well C) patient may be asked to remove all his personal belongings D) patient may be asked to wear a hospital gown on top of his clothes
D) patient may be asked to wear a hospital gown on top of his clothes
40
73)The following should be strictly followed during the specimen collection for drug testing: A) patient should have no access to his personal items B) patient should have no access to water. C) he should not be allowed to dilute the sample D) he should allow a small amount of synthetic Urine to fall into the toilet bowl before collecting
D) he should allow a small amount of synthetic Urine to fall into the toilet bowl before collecting
41
74) Hair testing has the following features: A) a highly sensitive test B) as accurate as the confirmation drug test C) high considerable cost D) prolonged process
B) as accurate as the confirmation drug test
42
75) Perspiration Testing A) a patch which is worn on the skin for a period of time. B) detect the presence of drugs in the individual's blood C) used mainly to monitor inmates . D) requires a confirmation drug test
B) detect the presence of drugs in the individual's blood
43
76) Urine drug card or on-site drug testing has these features: A) easy-to-use B) extremely inexpensive C) 100% accuracy D) FDA-cleared testing
C) 100% accuracy
44
77) 2-Panel Drug Tests usually include these drugs: A) Marijuana and Cocaine B) Marijuana and Barbiturates C)Marijuana and Methamphetamine D) A or C
B) Marijuana and Barbiturates
45
78) 3-Panel Drug Tests A) Marijuana, Cocaine, Barbiturates B) Marijuana, Cocaine, Methamphetamine C) Marijuana, Cocaine, Opiates D) B or C
A) Marijuana, Cocaine, Barbiturates
46
79) 5-Panel Drug Tests A) Marijuana, Cocaine, Opiates, Amphetamine, Methamphetamine B) Marijuana, Cocaine, Opiates, Amphetamine, PCP C) Marijuana, Cocaine, Opiates, Amphetamine, Ecstasy D) A or B
C) Marijuana, Cocaine, Opiates, Amphetamine, Ecstasy
47
80) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique A) is manufactured by Roche Diagnostics B) uses an enzyme as the detection mechanism C) the easiest to fail D) the least accurate
A) is manufactured by Roche Diagnostics
48
81) Sources of potential false positive results A) environment B) foods C) prescription medications D) none
D) none
49
82) Consistent with Declared Medications means that A) the drug being tested is a prescribed medication B) the drug is produced by Clandestine Laboratory C) the drug’s concentration is high D) the test is interpreted as confirmed positive result
B) the drug is produced by Clandestine Laboratory
50
83) FALSE NEGATIVE results involve the following: A) inherent limitations of the testing kit in terms of sensitivity B) failing to detect that the drug class exceeds a specific level C) some drug types are present in extremely low levels D) inherent low specificity of testing kit
D) inherent low specificity of testing kit
51
84) The following statements refer to soda water: A) englishman Joseph Priestley invented soda water, or club soda, in 1767 B) Priestly was successful in developing a drink to prevent scurvy C) soda water is a beverage containing caffeine D) also used as a green cleaning agent to remove stains and polish surfaces.
C) soda water is a beverage containing caffeine
52
Part III. Choose the nearest answer (#85-136) 85 ) This is used as powerful analgesic acting by binding to mu receptors in the limbic system: A) Psilocybin B) codeine C) heroin D) morphine
B) codeine
53
86) This suppresses the need to eat, drink or sleep: A) methamphetamine B) shabu C) ecstacy D) heroin
B) shabu
54
87) Blood shot eyes may be seen in the users of this drug: A) Shabu B) Marijuana C) Coccaine D) Methamphetamine
B) Marijuana
55
88) Euphoria is an effect of these drugs: A) Hallucinogen B) Narcotics C) Sedatives D) Stimulants
A) Hallucinogen
56
89 ) This can cross the placenta and cause malformations in utero: A) Shabu B)Marijuana C) Coccaine D) Methamphetamine
C) Coccaine
57
90) The leading known cause of mental retardation in the United States, the FASD, is due to the abuse of this: A) cigarette smoking B) alcohol C) marijuana D) methamphetamine
A) cigarette smoking
58
91) It is the main excretory route for drugs and their metabolites. A)serum B) random urine C) plasma D) 24 hr total urine
B) random urine
59
92) For positive drug test, it should be confirmed with A) gas-chromatography B) flame photometry C) mass spectrometry D) A & C only
D) A & C only
60
93)Patient must catch about ___ of urine into the container A) 16-32ml B) 1 - 2 ounces C) 2-3 ounces D) A or B
B) 1 - 2 ounces
61
94) About __strands of hair are taken and dissolved in a series of solvents for drug testing. A) 60 B) 30 C) 50 D) 40
C) 50
62
95) The standard for the industry is to test ___inches, the amount of drug metabolites embedded inside the hair shaft. A) 1.5 B) 15 C) 20 D) 2.0
A) 1.5
63
96) This is a highly sensitive form of testing mainly used by the military. A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
C) Radio Immunoassay
64
97) In the definitive drug confirmation testing, this identifies the exact molecular structure of the compounds: A) gas-chromatography B) flame photometry C) mass spectrometry D) A & C only
D) A & C only
65
98) Hair provides a ___history of the donor’s drug use. A) 15-day B) 90-day C) 30-day D) 60-day
B) 90-day
66
99) Courts nationwide have upheld ___testing in civil and criminal cases. A) saliva B) urine C) hair D) blood
C) hair
67
100) In Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay, the presence of fluorescence means: A) that there was selective binding of antibodies to drugs and their metabolites. B) that there is absence of drugs and their metabolites. C) that there was selective binding of antibodies to the polarized substance in the kit. D) that there is absence of antibodies in the patient.
A) that there was selective binding of antibodies to drugs and their metabolites.
68
101) Saliva testing can detect cannabinoids __ after the subjects had been smoking. A) 4-10 hours B) 6 hours C) 22 hours D) 5 min
A) 4-10 hours
69
102) ___testing is the most accurate confirmation of drug use. A) saliva B) urine C) hair D) blood
D) blood
70
103) It is manufactured by Abbott Laboratories A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay
71
104) It is primarily used in accident investigations or for health/life insurance medicals. A) saliva B) urine C) hair D) blood
D) blood
72
105) This immunoassay uses a radioactive isotope such as iodine instead of an enzyme. A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
73
106) Cannabinoids can be detected up to ___ after consumption by testing blood. A) 4-10 hours B) 6 hours C) 22 hours D) 5 min
B) 6 hours
74
107) Urine Drug Testing /Screening Test results can be obtained in ____. A) 4-10 hours B) 6 hours C) 22 hours D) 5 min
D) 5 min
75
108) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique gives a ___false positive rate. A) 3-4% B) 4-34% C) 0.4-3.4% D) 30-40%
B) 4-34%
76
109) It relies on the subjective judgment of a technician and requires considerable skill and training, thus it is not widely used. A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay
77
110) Immunoassays work on the principle of A) drug competition B) antigen-antibody interaction C) drug being the antigen D) all
B) antigen-antibody interaction
78
111) Antibodies are chosen which will bind selectively to A) testing kit enzymes B) drugs C) drug metabolites D) B & C
D) B & C
79
112) It is the cheapest, simplest to perform and the most widely used of the immunoassays. A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique
80
113) Cannabinoids are not detectable in the blood after ____. A) 4-10 hours B) 6 hours C) 22 hours D) 5 min
C) 22 hours
81
114) Testing of this/these specimens are confined to detecting current intoxication only A) saliva B) hair C) blood D) A or C
A) saliva
82
115) Alcohol is metabolized at the rate of _____of blood alcohol concentration (BAC) every hour. A) 1.5 B .015 C) 15. 0 D) .0015
B .015
83
116) These are the most precise & use as confirmation test for identifying and quantifying drugs or their metabolites in the urine. A) Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique B) Fluorescence Polarization Immunoassay C) Radio Immunoassay D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
D) Gas Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry
84
117) In the definitive drug confirmation testing, this involves separating the sample into its constituent parts: A) gas-chromatography B) flame photometry C) mass spectrometry D) A & C only
A) gas-chromatography
85
118) A total of about ___ of alcohol leaves through the breath, perspiration, and urine A) 10% B) 20% C) 5% D) 15%
A) 10%
86
119) A person with a very high BAC of .165 will have no measurable alcohol in the bloodstream after ____ hours. A) 10 B) 1.0 C) 1.1 D) 11
C) 1.1
87
120) Men with high levels of nicotine in their toenails are about __times more likely to develop lung cancer. A) 3.5 B) 4 C) 2.5 D) 5
A) 3.5
88
121) ___ does not show clear of nicotine even if you haven’t touched nicotine or tobacco in the past week. A) saliva B) urine C) hair D) blood
C) hair
89
122) Vitamin ___ helps increase the rate of metabolism of nicotine in the body. A) A B) B C) C D) D
C) C
90
123) Vitamin ___ is a major component of a fresh palm wine. A) A B) B C) C D) D
C) C
91
124) This country among others likewise call their coconut wine, “tuba”, similar to the name given here in the Philippines. A) China B) Gambia C) Guam D) Vietnam
C) Guam
92
125) This country among others call their coconut wine, “singer”. A) China B) Gambia C) Guam D) Vietnam
D) Vietnam
93
126) The concentration of Ammonia in the sidestream smoke is ___ more than that of the mainstream in cigarette smoke. A) 5x B) 3-4x C) 2-3x D) 50x
D) 50x
94
127) Among the following drinks, which has the least alcohol content? A) Beer B) Brandies C) Wines D) Rum
A) Beer
95
128) In the Overnight Water Department Test water is withheld from the patient for ___ hours. A) 12 B) 10 C) 6 D) 8
D) 8
96
129) RT3U is an in vitro indirect measure of the: A) unsaturated binding sites on the thyroid hormone-binding proteins B) binding affinity of the thyroid-binding proteins C) T4 conversion to T3 D) unbound active hormone
A) unsaturated binding sites on the thyroid hormone-binding proteins
97
130) The refrigerated centrifuge removes proteolytic enzymes that could breakdown this hormone during freezing and thawing process. A) ACTH B) TSH C) CRH D) ADH
A) ACTH
98
131) Normal %value for Uptake of labeled T3 in Resin T3 Uptake (RT3U) Test is: A) 70-75% B) 20-25% C) 25-35% D) 5-10%
C) 25-35%
99
132) It is considered the reference method for measuring steroids. A) fluorescence polarization immunoassay B) gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy C) enzyme-multiplied immunologic technique D) high performance liquid chromatography
D) high performance liquid chromatography
100
133) The principal end-product of dopamine metabolism is __. A) Vanillyl Mnadelic Acid B) Catechol-O-methyltransferase C) Homovanillic acid D) L- Monoamine oxidase
C) Homovanillic acid
101
134)Barbiturates peak absorbance 320nm and at 220nm is achieved by adjusting the pH with A. 0.45 mol/L NaCl B. 4.5 mol/L KOH C. 4.5 mol/L NaOH D. 0.45 mol/L NaOH
D. 0.45 mol/L NaOH
102
135) More sensitive for the diagnosis of Organophosphates & Carbamates poisoning: A. plasma pseudo cholinesterase level B. neural acetyl cholinesterase level C. eythrocyte acetyl cholinesterase level D. serum pseudo cholinesterase level
A. plasma pseudo cholinesterase level
103
136) The colorimetric method for Lead that uses diphenylthiocarbazone (dithizone) lead to formation of __ complex. A. Red B. violet C. yellow D. blue
A. Red
104
Part IV. Match or Interpret 137) Beer 138) Wine 139) Brandies 140) whiskies A) produced by brewing & fermentation of starches B) grapes, plums, apples with months & years of aging process C) distillation of grape, matured by aging in wooden casks D) distilled from fermented mash cereal grains
BEER- (A.) produced by brewing & fermentation of starches WINE- (B.) grapes, plums, apples with months & years of aging process BRANDIES- (C.) distillation of grape, matured by aging in wooden casks WHISKIES- (D.) distilled from fermented mash cereal grains
105
Interpret the following results for Nicotine Tests: 141) C- RED T- RED 142) C- RED T- FAINT LINE 143) C- RED T- NO COLOR 144) C- NO COLOR T- NO COLOR
141. B. NEGATIVE 142. B. NEGATIVE 143. A. POSITIVE 144. C. INVALID
106
Reference Values: 145) Prolactin in first trimester pregnancy 146) Prolactin in second trimester pregnancy 147) Prolactin in third trimester pregnancy A) <400 ng/mL B) <80 ng/mL C) <169 ng/mL
145. B) <80 ng/mL 146. C) <169 ng/mL 147. A) <400 ng/mL
107
Principles of general methods of drug analysis. A) Positive, Ames B) Positive, ELISA C) Negative, ELISA D) Negative, EMIT 148) Solid-phase-anti-drug + serum + drug-enzyme complex + substrate → no color change. 149) Serum + anti-drug + drug-enzyme complex → anti-drug-drug-enzyme. Add substrate, there will be no color change. 150) Sample + anti-drug + drug-substrate complex → anti-drug-drug + drug-substrate complex. Addition of the enzyme β-galactosidase results in the breakdown of the drug-substrate complex to form a fluorescent compound. 151) Solid-phase anti-drug + serum + drug-enzyme complex + substrate → color change.
148.B) Positive, ELISA 149.D) Negative, EMIT 150.A) Positive, Ames 151.C) Negative, ELISA
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Specimens of choice in the measurement of Poisons: A) serum B) whole blood C) random urine sample D) capillary or arterial blood 152) Methanol 153) ethylene glycol 154) ethanol 155) arsenic 156) carbon monoxide
152. A) serum 153. C) random urine sample 154. D) capillary or arterial blood 155. C) random urine sample 156. B) whole blood
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157) Beer 158) Rum 159) Liqueurs A) 40-55% alcohol B) 4-6% alcohol C) 15-30% alcohol
157.Beer -B) 4-6% alcohol 158.Rum -A) 40-55% alcohol 159. Liqueurs- C) 15-30% alcohol
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160) To maintain a normal pH 7.4 in plasma, it is necessary to maintain a A. 10:1 ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide B. 20:1 ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide C. 30:1 ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide D. 10:1 ratio of dissolved carbon dioxide to bicarbonate
B. 20:1 ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide
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161) If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to the air for an extended period of time, which of the following changes will occur? A. Po2 and pH increase; Pco2 decrease B. Po2 and pH decrease; Pco2 increase C. Po2 increase; PCO2 and pH increase D. Po2 decrease; Pco2 and pH increase
A. Po2 and pH increase; Pco2 decrease
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162) Sealed heparinized arterial blood was left at room temperature for 2 hours. The most likely changes in Po2 (mm Hg), Pco2 (mm Hg), and pH, respectively, are A. Increase, increase, and increase B. Decrease, decrease, and decrease C. Decrease, increase, and decrease D. Decrease, decrease, and increase
C. Decrease, increase, and decrease
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163)The bicarbonate ion concentration may be calculated from the total CO2 and Pco2 blood levels by using which of the following formulas? A. 0.03 × (Pco2 – total CO2) B. (total CO2 + 0.03) × Pco2 C. 0.03 × (total CO2 –Pco2) D. Total CO2 - (0.03 × Pco2)
D. Total CO2 - (0.03 × Pco2)
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164) Given the following information, calculate the blood pH. - Pco2 = 44 mm Hg -Total CO2 = 29 mmol/L A. 6.28 B. 6.76 C. 7.42 D. 7.36
C. 7.42
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165) A patient is admitted with signs of tetany. His calcium is 9.5 mg/dl. What other parameter should be tested? A. Serum Osmolality B. Cu C. Mg D. Chloride
B. Cu
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166) Ionized calcium levels may be altered by: A. Hyperventilation B. Exposure of specimen to air C. Prolonged venous stasis D. All of the above
D. All of the above
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167) Total iron-binding capacity is a measure of: A. Serum Fe concentration plus saturated Fe-binding capacity B. Serum Fe concentration plus unsaturated Fe-binding capacity C. Serum ferritin concentration D. Serum Fe minus the latent Fe-binding capacity
A. Serum Fe concentration plus saturated Fe-binding capacity
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168) The biggest analytical problem in performing trace metal analysis is: A. Getting a large enough sample from children B. Eliminating external contamination C. Having enough sensitivity to get reliable results D. Overcoming matrix interferences
D. Overcoming matrix interferences
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169) This level of AFP could be a clue for Hepatoma. A) over 500 nanograms/milliliter B) over 500 nanograms/liter C) over 50 nanograms/milliliter D) over 500 milligrams/milliliter
A) over 500 nanograms/milliliter
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170) Bence Jones protein are also present in patients with these cancers A) multiple myeloma B) lymphoma C) Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia D) A & C only
D) A & C only
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171) This is not elevated in patients with medullary thyroid carcinoma, and serves to help discriminate between this tumor and other hyperthyroid diseases. A) Histaminases B) thyroglobulin C) diamine oxidase D) calcitonin
A) Histaminases
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172) Cancer cells may have an abnormally high percentage of their cells that is in: A) G1 phase B) S phase C) G0 phase D) G2 phase
B) S phase
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173) This is an excellent screening test for detecting iron deficiency anemia and for monitoring the therapy. A) Zinc Protopophyrin/Heme Ratio B) Cyanmethemoglobin/ Heme Ratio C) TIBC/transferrin ratio
C) TIBC/transferrin ratio
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174) Given the following results, identify the probable anemia: Serum Iron low; TIBC/Transferrin high; UIBC High; %Transferrin Saturation Low; Ferritin low A) Hemolytic Anemias B) Iron Deficiency C) Iron Poisoning D) Chronic Illness
B) Iron Deficiency
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175) Interpret this protein electrophoresis result. A) multiple myeloma B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Polyclonal gammopathy D) antiprotease deficiency
B) Nephrotic syndrome