SODA PART 2 Flashcards by Daniela Anamarie Bordon

State the patients’ condition with the following findings: Positive anti-HBc test; negative HBsAg and anti- HBs tests:

A) Negative for Hep B infection; Passive reaction to vaccination.
B) Resolved HBV Infection with Waning Anti-HBs
C) Persistent HBV Infection w/ Absent Detectable HBsAg
D) Isolated Anti-HBc during Window Period Following Acute Infection

D) Isolated Anti-HBc during Window Period Following Acute Infection

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An analysis for sodium is performed on an aliquot of 24- hour urine specimen. A sodium value of 122.5 mmol/L is read from the flame photometer display window. What is the amount of sodium in the 24- hour urine specimen if 1540 mL of urine are collected?

A. 79.5
B. 188.65
C. 1886.5
D. 188,650

B. 188.65

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Given the following controls for glucose in mg/dl for 10 days:

11.7 14.4 12.1 12.7 12.0 13.5 12.3 16.0 15.0 14.5
The standard deviation is ± __.

A) 3.0
B) 1.5
C) 13.4
D) 13.1

B) 1.5

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The ion-selective membrane used to measure potassium is made of:

A. High-borosilicate glass membrane
B. Polyvinyl chloride dioctylphenyl phosphonate ion exchanger
C. Valiomycin gel
D. Calomel

C. Valiomycin gel

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All of the following compounds contribute to the osmolality of plasma except:

A. Lipids
B. Creatinine
C. Drug metabolites
D. Glucose

A. Lipids

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A patient was challenged with a 75g glucose concentrate. His initial FBS was 100mg/dl. Which is the most expected Normal result for his Random Blood Sugar (RBS)?

A) 110mg/dl
B) 150mg/dl
C) 200mg/dl
D) 195 mg/dl

B) 150mg/dl

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The lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio is a determination that is frequently performed to assess

A. Arteriosclerosis
B) Hyperlipidemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Fetal lung maturity

D) Fetal lung maturity

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Which of the following situations is likely to cause an error when weighing with an electronic analytical balance?

A. Failure to keep the knife edge clean
B. Failure to close the doors of the balance before reading the weight
C. Oxidation on the surface of the substitution weights
D. Using the balance without allowing it to warm up for at least 10 minutes

B. Failure to close the doors of the balance before reading the weight

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What is the blood pH when the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco2) is 60 mm Hg and the bicarbonate level is 18 mmol/L?

A. 6.89
B. 7.00
C. 7.10
D. 7.30

C. 7.10

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Which of the following effects results from exposure of a normal arterial blood sample to room air?

A. Po2 increased Pco2 decreased pH increased
B. Po2 decreased Pco2 increased pH decreased
C. Po2 increased Pco2 decreased pH decreased
D. Po2 decreased Pco2 decreased pH decrease

A. Po2 increased Pco2 decreased pH increased

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A patient’s blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26; dco2 = 2.0 mmol/L; HCO3 -=29 mmo/L.
These results would be classified as:

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

C. respiratory acidosis

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In which condition would hypochloremia be expected?

A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. All of the above

C. Metabolic alkalosis

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Given the following serum electrolyte data, determine the anion gap: Na= 132 mmol/L; CI = 90 mmol/L; HCO3 -= 22 mmol/L

A. 12 mmol/L
B. 20 mmol/L
C. 64 mmol/L
D. Insufficient information

B. 20 mmol/L

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Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap?

A. Diarrhea
B. Hypoaldosteronism
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Renal failure

D. Renal failure

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Which of the following conditions is associated with increase ionized calcium (Ca1) in the blood?

A. Alkalosis
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Hyperalbuminemia
D. Malignancy

D. Malignancy

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Which of the following laboratory results is consistent with primary hypoparathyroidism?

A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus (Pi)
B. Low calcium; low Pi
C. High calcium; high Pi
D. High calcium; low Pi

A. Low calcium; high inorganic phosphorus (Pi)

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Which of the following conditions is associated with a low serum magnesium determination?

A. Addison’s disease
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Pancreatitis

D. Pancreatitis

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Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma potassium?

A. 1.5 mmol/L
B. 2.0 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
D. 3.5 mmol/L

C. 2.5 mmol/L

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Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium?

A. 150 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
C. 170 mmol/L
D. 180 mmol/L

B. 160 mmol/L

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When performing a sweat chloride collection, which of the following steps will result in analytical error?

A. Using in weighed gauze soaked in pilocarpine nitrate on the inner surface of the forearm 2
B. Using outweighed gauze soaked in saline on the outside of the arm
C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside of the arm exposed to air during collection
D. Rinsing the collected sweat from the gauze pad using chloride titrating solution

C. Leaving the preweighed gauze on the inside of the arm exposed to air during collection

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Which formula is most accurate in predicting plasma osmolality

A. Na + 2(CI) + BUN + glucose
B. 2(Na) + 2(CI) + glucose + urea
C. 2(Na) + glucose÷18) + (BUN ÷2.8)
D. Na + CI + K + HCO3

C. 2(Na) + glucose÷18) + (BUN ÷2.8)

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Which of the following results falls within the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?

A. Fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dl
B. Two-hour post-prandial plasma glucose of 160 mg/dL
C. Two-hour plasma glucose reading of 190 mg/dL flowing 75 oral glucose challenge
D. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dL and presence of symptoms

D. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dL and presence of symptoms

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Which statement regarding gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is correct?

A. It is diagnosed using the same oral glucose tolerance criteria as used in non-pregnancy
B. It converts to diabetes mellitus after pregnancy in 60%-75% of case
C. It presents no increased health risk to the fetus
D. It is defined as glucose intolerance originating during pregnancy

D. It is defined as glucose intolerance originating during pregnancy

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Which statement regarding glycated (glycosylated) hemoglobin (G-Hgb) is true?

A. It has a sugar attached to the C-terminal end of the β-chain
B. It is a highly reversible aminoglycan
C. It reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8-to 12- week interval prior to sampling
D. It will be abnormal within 4 days following an episode of hypeglycemia

C. It reflects the extent of glucose regulation in the 8-to 12- week interval prior to sampling

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25. Which glucose method is subject to falsely low results caused by ascorbate or Vitamin C? A. Hexokinase B. Glucose dehydrogenase C. Trinder glucose oxidase D. Polarography

C. Trinder glucose oxidase

26. Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease). A. Glucose-6 phosphatase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. Glycogen syhthetase D. Β-Glucosidase

A. Glucose-6 phosphatase

27. Which of the following is likely to occur first in iron deficiency anemia? A. Decreased serum iron B. Increase TIBC C. Decrease serum ferritin D. Increased transferrin

C. Decrease serum ferritin

28. Which formula provides the best estimate of serum transferrin? A. Serum Fe/TIBC B. TIBC (μg/dL) X 0.70 = transferring in mg/dL C. Percent iron saturation X TIBC (μg/dL)/1.2 + 0.06 D. Serum Fe (μg/dL) X 1.25 = transferring (μg/dL)

B. TIBC (μg/dL) X 0.70 = transferring in mg/dL

29. Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? A. Β-Glucuronidase B. Uridine diphosphate (UDP)-glucuronyl transferase C. Bilirubin oxidase D. Biliverdin reductase

B. Uridine diphosphate (UDP)-glucuronyl transferase

30. Which condition is caused by deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile canaliculi? A. Gilbert’s disease B. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome

31. Which reagent is used in the Jendrassik-Grof method to solubilize unconjugated bilirubin? A. 50% Methanol B. N-butanol C. Caffeine D. Acetic acid

C. Caffeine

32. A biuret reagent requires preparation of a stock solution containing 9.6 g of copper II sulfate (CuSO4)/L. How many grams of CuSO4 * 5H2O are needed to prepare 1.0 L of the stock solution? Atomic weights: H = 1.0; Cu = 63.6; O = 16.0; S = 32.1 A. 5.4 g B. 6.1 g C. 15.0 g D. 17. 0 g

C. 15.0 g

33. Convert 10.0 mg/dL calcium (atomic weight = 40.1) to comparable units in the International System of Units (SI) A. 0.25 B. 0.40 C. 2.5 D. 0.4

C. 2.5

34. Convert 2.0 mEq/L magnesium (atomic weight = 24.3) to milligrams per deciliter. A. 0.8 mg/dL B. 1.2 mg/dL C. 2.4 mg/dL D.4.9 mg/dL

C. 2.4 mg/dL

35. How many milliliters of a 2000.0 mg/dL glucose stock solution are needed to prepare 100.0 mL of a 150.0 mg/dL glucose working standard? A. 1.5 mL B. 7.5 mL C. 15.0 mL D. 25.0 mL

B. 7.5 mL

36. In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. Falsely elevated urea values will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture is contaminated by A. Glucose B) Protein C) Ammonia D) Bacteria

C) Ammonia

37. Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors? A. Levy-Jennings B. Tonks-Youden C. Cusum D. Linear regression

A. Levy-Jennings

38. Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories? A. Levy-Jennings B. Tonks-Youden C. Cusum D. Linear regression

B. Tonks-Youden

39. Which plot will give the earliest indication of a trend? A. Levy-Jennings B. Tonks-Youden C. Cusum D. Linear regression

C. Cusum

40. A new tumor marker for ovarian cancer is evaluated for sensitivity by testing serum samples from patients who have been diagnosed by staging biopsy as having malignant or benign lesions. The following results were obtained: Number of malignant patients who are positive for CA-125 = 21 out of 24 Number of benign patients who are negative for CA-125 = 61 out of 62 What is the sensitivity of the new CA-125 test? A. 98.4% B. 95.3% C. 87.5% D. 85.0%

C. 87.5%

41. A laboratory is establishing a reference range for a new analyte and wants the range to be determined by the regional population of adults age 18 and older. The analyte concentration is known to be independent of race and gender. Which is the most appropriate process to follow? A. Determine the mean and standard deviation of the analyte from 40 healthy adults and calculate the ±2 standard deviation limit B. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and calculate the central 95th percentile C. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and use the lowest and highest as the reference range limits D. Measure the analyte in 60 healthy adults and 60 adults with conditions that affect the analyte concentration. Calculate the concentration of least overlap.

B. Measure the analyte in 120 healthy adults and calculate the central 95th percentile

42. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a falsely high creatinine clearance result? A. The patient uses the midstream void procedure when collecting his or her urine B. The patient adds tap water to the urine container because he or she forgets to save one of the urine samples C. The patient does not empty his or her bladder at the conclusion of the test D. The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the test and adds the urine to the collection

D. The patient empties his or her bladder at the start of the test and adds the urine to the collection

43. Given the following data, calculate the creatinine clearance. Serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL; urine creatinine = 120 mg/dL; urine volume = 1.75 L/day; surface area = 1.80 m2 A. Creatinine clearance = 16 mL/min B. Creatinine clearance = 117 mL/min C. Creatinine clearance = 126 mL/min D. Creatinine clearance = 168 mL/min

B. Creatinine clearance = 117 mL/min

44. Select the primary reagent used in the Jaffe method for creatinine. A. Alkaline copper II sulfate B. Saturated picric acid and NaOH C. Sodium nitroprusside and phenol D. Phosphotungstic acid

B. Saturated picric acid and NaOH

45. Urinary urea measurements may be used for calculation of: A. Glomerular filtration B. Renal blood flow C. Nitrogen balance D. All of the above

C. Nitrogen balance

46. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible for phenylketonuria (PKU)? A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tyrosine transaminase C. P-Hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid oxidase D. Homogentisic acid oxidase

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

47. A patient’s blood has the following results: Total protein= 3.3g/dL; Albumin= 1.1g/dL Compute for his A:G ratio: A) 1.3 B) 3:1 C) 1:2 D) 2:1

C) 1:2

48. Protein-losing enteropathy is usually seen in malabsorption syndrome and is evidenced by a serum electrophoretogram of: A. Low albumin only B. Low albumin and gamma globulin C) Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-1 and 2 globulins D) Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-2 globulin

A. Low albumin only

49. Enzymatic measurement of ammonia requires which of the following substrates and coenzymes? Substrate Coenzyme A. α-Ketoglutarate NADH B. Glutamate NADH C. Glutamine ATP D. Glutamine NAD+

A. α-Ketoglutarate NADH

50. Orders for uric acid are legitimate stat requests because: A. Levels above 10 mg/dL cause urinary tract calculi B. Uric acid is hepatotoxic C. High levels induce aplastic anemia D. High levels cause joint pain

A. Levels above 10 mg/dL cause urinary tract calculi

51. The term “biuret reaction” refers to : A. The reaction of phenolic groups with CuSO4 B. Coordinate bonds between Cu2+ and carboxyl and amino groups of biuret C. The protein error of indicator effect producing color when dyes bind protein D. The reaction of phosphomolybdic acid with protein

B. Coordinate bonds between Cu2+ and carboxyl and amino groups of biuret

52. Which of the following protein methods has the highest analytical sensitivity? A. Refractormetry B. Folin-Lowry C. Turbidimetry D. Direct UV absorption

B. Folin-Lowry

53. High serum total protein but low albumin is usually seen in: A. Multiple myeloma B. Hepatic cirrhosis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Nephritic syndrome

A. Multiple myeloma

54. Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin? A. Bromcresol green (BCG) B. Bromcresol purple(BCP) C. Tetrabromosulfophthalein D. Tetrabromphenol blue

B. Bromcresol purple(BCP)

55. At pH 8.6 proteins are______ charged and migrate toward the _____. A. Negatively Anode B. Positively Cathode C. Positively Anode D. Negatively Cathode

A. Negatively Anode

56. Which of the following stains is used for lipoprotein electrophoresis? A. Oil Red O B. Coomassie Brilliant Blue C. Amido Black D. Ponceau S

A. Oil Red O

57. Select the order of mobility of lipoproteins electrophoresed on cellulose acetate or agarose gel at pH 8.6. A. -Chylomicrons→pre-β→β→α + B. -β→pre-β→α→chylomicrons + C. -Chylomicrons→β→pre-β→α + D. -α→β→pre-β→chylomicrons +

C. -Chylomicrons→β→pre-β→α +

58. Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease? A. Apoprotein A-I B. Apoprotein B C. Apoprotein C-II D. Apoprotein E-IV

A. Apoprotein A-I

59. What is the most appropriate fasting procedure when a lipid study of triglycerides, total cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and LDL cholesterol tests are ordered? A. 8 hours, nothing but water allowed B. 10 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar or cream) allowed C. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed D. 16 hours, water, smoking , coffee, tea (no sugar or cream) allowed

C. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed

60. Which of the following methods for HDL cholesterol is the reference method? A. Manganese-heparin B. Magnesium-phosphotungstate C. Magnesium-dextran D. Ultracentrifugation

D. Ultracentrifugation

61. What is the purpose of the saponification step used in the Abell-Kendall method for cholesterol measurement? A. Remove phospholipids B. Reduce sterol molecules structurally similar to those of cholesterol C. Convert cholesterol esters to free cholesterol D. Remove proteins that can interfere with color formation.

C. Convert cholesterol esters to free cholesterol

62. The ideal properties of a quality control material are the following EXCEPT: A. should have matrix effects B. resembles appropriate human sample C. stable for prolonged periods of time D. Known analyte concentration

A. should have matrix effects

63. An International unit (IU) of enzyme activity is the quantity of enzyme that: A. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per liter B. Forms 1 mg of product per deciliter C. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per minute D. Forms 1μmol of product per liter

C. Converts 1 μmol of substrate to product per minute

64. Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase? A. Pernicious anemia B. Myocardial infarction C. Acute hepatitis D. Muscular dystrophy

A. Pernicious anemia

65. Following an acute MI (Myocardial infarction), activity of LD usually peaks: A. Within 1 day postinfarction and returns to normal after 3 days B. Twenty-four to 36 hours postinfarction and returns to normal after 3 days. C. Forty-eight hours postinfarction and returns to normal after 4 days D. Three days postinfarction and returns to normal after 1 week

B. Twenty-four to 36 hours postinfarction and returns to normal after 3 days.

66. In the Oliver-Rosalki method for CK, adenosine monophosphate (AMP) is added to the substrate in order to: A. Inhibit adenylate kinase B. Block the oxidation of glutathione C. Increase the amount of ADP that is available D. Block the action of diadenosine pentaphosphate

A. Inhibit adenylate kinase

67. A physician calls to request a CK on a sample already sent to the laboratory for coagulation studies. The sample is 2-hour-old citrated blood and has been stored at 4̊C. the plasma shows very slight hemolysis. What is the best course of action and the reason for it? A. Perform the CK assay on the sample because no interference is present B. Reject the sample because it is slightly hemolyzed C. Reject the sample because it has been stored too long D. Reject the sample because the citrate will interfere

D. Reject the sample because the citrate will interfere

68. If LD is prolonged up to 10-14 days, AST returns to normal on the ___, during Myocardial Infarct. A) 12th hour B) 24th hour C) 5th day D) 10th day

C) 5th day

69. In the Colorimetric Test for G6PD, a ___ ring is seen in deficient samples. A) yellow B) violet C) blue D) red

A) yellow

70. Select the products formed from the forward reaction of ALT: A. Aspartate and alanine B. Alanine and α-ketoglutarate C. Pyruvate and glutamate D. Glutamine and NAD +

C. Pyruvate and glutamate

71. Which statement accurately describes serum transaminase levels in Acute Myocardial Infarction? A. ALT is increased 5- to 10- fold after an acute MI B. AST peaks 24 - 48 hours after an acute MI and returns to normal within 4-6 days C. AST levels are usually 20-50 times the upper limit of normal after an acute MI D. Isoenzymes of AST are of greater diagnosic utility than the total enzyme level.

B. AST peaks 24 - 48 hours after an acute MI and returns to normal within 4-6 days

72. In which liver disease is the De Ritis ration (ALT:AST) usually greater than 1.0? A. Acute hepatitis B. Chronic hepatitis C. Hepatic cirrhosis D. Hepatic carcinoma

A. Acute hepatitis

73. Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease. A. GLD B. ALT C. AST D. γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT

D. γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT

74. Which isoenzymes of ALP are inhibited by L-phenylalanine? A. Intestinal and placental B. Bone and intestinal C. Liver and placental D. Renal and liver

C. Liver and placental

75. Given an arterial blood with pCO2 of 40mmHg and a total of CO2 of 30mmol/L. Determine the HCO3- concentration. A) 1.2mmol/L B) 28.8mmol/L C) 24 mmol/L D) 14.6 mmol/L

A) 1.2mmol/L

76. Bence Jones protein are also present in patients with these cancers A) multiple myeloma B) lymphoma C) Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia D) A & C only

D) A & C only

77. This statement DOES NOT refer to the Murphy-Pattee method: A) It is a Competitive Protein-Binding (CPB) Assay. B) Precipitation of proteins with alcohol to liberate the T4. C) It measures the hormonal iodide. D) TBG added w/ radioactive T4

C) It measures the hormonal iodide.

78. The reference method for lipase uses olive oil as the substrate because: A. Other esterases can hydrolyze triglyceride and synthetic diglycerides B. The reaction product can be coupled to NADH-generating reactions C. Synthetic substrates are less soluble than olive oil in aqueous reagents D. Triglyceride substrates cause product inhibition

A. Other esterases can hydrolyze triglyceride and synthetic diglycerides

79. A serum ALP level greater than twice the elevation of GGT suggests A. Misidentification of the specimen B. Focal intrahepatic obstruction C. Acute alcoholic hepatitis D. Bone disease or malignancy

D. Bone disease or malignancy

80. At levels ___, Digoxin becomes toxic. A. >2 ng/mL B) >1 ng/mL C) >2 mg/mL D) >0.2 ng/mL

A. >2 ng/mL

81. Select the main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function. A. Estriol (E3) B. Estradiol (E2) C. Epiestriol D. Hydroxyestrone

B. Estradiol (E2)

82. Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with: A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypocalciuria C. Hypophosphatemia D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Hypophosphatemia

83. Which is the most widely used screening test for Cushing’s syndrome? A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test B. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone C. Petrosal sinus sampling stimulation test D. Metyrapone stimulation test

A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

84. Which statement about the diagnosis of Addison’s disease is true? A. Patients with primary Addison’s disease show a normal response to ACTH stimulation B. Primary and secondary Addison’s disease can often be differentiated by plasma ACTH C. Twenty-four-hour urinary free cortisol testing is normal in Addison’s disease D. Pituitary ACTH reserves are normal in secondary Addison’s disease

B. Primary and secondary Addison’s disease can often be differentiated by plasma ACTH

85. Any person authorized, licensed or accredited to conduct drug examination or test, who issues false or fraudulent drug test results shall suffer the penalty of imprisonment and a fine ranging from A. 6-12 years with P100,000.00 - P500,000.00 fine B. 6-12 years with P10,000.00 - P50,000.00 fine C. 1-6 years with P10,000.00 - P50,000.00 fine D. 3-6 years with P100,000.00 - P500,000.00 fine

C. 1-6 years with P10,000.00 - P50,000.00 fine

86. Select the most appropriate single screening test for thyroid disease. A. Free thyroxine index B. Total T3 assay C. Total T4 D. TSH assay

D. TSH assay

87. A patient has an elevated serum T3 and free T4 and a very low serum TSH. What is the most likely cause of these results? A. Primary hyperthyroidism B. Secondary hyperthyroidism C. Euthyroid with increased thyroxine-binding proteins D. Euthyroid sick syndrome

A. Primary hyperthyroidism

88. A serum thyroid panel reveals an increase in total T4 3 normal TSH, and normal free T4̊. What is the most likely cause of these results? A. Primary hyperthyroidism B. Secondary hyprthyroidism C. Euthyroid with increased thyroxine-binding protein D. Sublinical hypothyroidism

C. Euthyroid with increased thyroxine-binding protein

89. The term pharmacokinetics refers to the: A. Relationship between drug dose and the drug blood level B. Concentration of drug at its sites of action C. Relationship between blood concentration and therapeutic response D. The relationship between blood and tissue drug levels

A. Relationship between drug doe and the drug blood level

90. Select the five pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration. A. Absortion, anabolism, perfusion, bioactivation, excretion B. Liberation, equilibration, biotransformation, reabsorption, elimination C. Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion D. Ingestion, conjugation, integration, metabolism, elimination

C. Liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

91. For drugs with first-order elimination, which statement about drug clearance is true? A. Clearance = elimination rate + serum level B. It is most often performed by the liver C. It is directly related to half-life D. Clearance rate is independent of dose

A. Clearance = elimination rate + serum leve

92. Which statement about EMIT is true? A. Enzyme activity is inversely proportional to drug level B. Formation of NADH is monitored at 340 nm C. ALP is the commonly used conjugate D. Assay use is restricted to seru

B. Formation of NADH is monitored at 340 nm

93. Which statement below regarding FPIA is true? A. Plane-polarize fluorescence is directly related to the drug level B. Β-Galactosidase is commonly used to label the antigen C. Separation of free and bound labeled antigen is not required D. Assays are based upon the double antibody sandwich method

B. Β-Galactosidase is commonly used to label the antigen

94. SITUATION: a urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form for drug testing. What would be a cause for rejecting the sample? A. Temperature after collection 95oC B. pH of 5.0 C. Specific gravity of 1.005 D. Creatinine level of 5 mg/d

D. Creatinine level of 5 mg/dL

95. Which of the following statements about blood alcohol measurement is correct? A. Symptoms of intoxication usually begin when the level exceeds 0.05% w/v B. The skin puncture site should be disinfected with isopropanol C. The reference method is based upon enzymatic oxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenase D. Gas chromatography methods require extraction of ethanol from serum

A. Symptoms of intoxication usually begin when the level exceeds 0.05% w/v

96. Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening? A. Whole blood B. Hair C. Serum D. Urine

A. Whole blood

97. A person with a very high BAC of .165 will have no measurable alcohol in the bloodstream after ____ hours. A) 10 B) 1.0 C) 1.1 D) 11

A) 10

98. Which of the following tumor markers is classified as a tumor suppressor gene? A. BRCA-1 B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) D. Nuclear matrix protein

A. BRCA-1

99. In general, in which of the following situation is the analysis of a tumor marker most useful? A. Testing for recurrence B. Prognosis C. Screening D. Diagnosis

A. Testing for recurrence

100. Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer? A. CA-15-3 B. CA-19-9 C. CA-125 D. CEA

C. CA-125

101. Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? A. Cathepsin –D B. CA-15-3 C. Retinoblastoma gene D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

B. CA-15-3

102. What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A. Diagnosis of liver cancer B. Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C. Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

D. Monitoring for recurrence of cancer

103. Which set of results for ER and PR is associated with the highest likelihood of a favorable response to treatment with estrogen suppression therapy ( tamoxifen)? A. ER positive, PR positive B. ER positive, PR negative C. ER negative, PR positive D. ER negative, PR negative

A. ER positive, PR positive

104. Which type of cancer is associated with the highest level of Alpha FetoProtein? A. Hepatoma B. Ovarian cancer C. Testicular D. Breast cancer

A. Hepatoma

105. Which for the following assays is recommended as a screening test for colerectal cancer in persons over 50 years old? A. CEA B. AFP C. Occult blood D. Fecal trypsin

C. Occult blood

106. Which of following substances is used to determine the risk of developing cancer? A. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGF-R) B. Squamous cell carcinoma antigen (scc) C. c-erb B- 2 gene D. p53

D. p53

107. A person has an elevated 24-hour urinary homovanilic acid (HVA) and vanillymandelic acid (VMA). Urinary metanephrines, chromogranin A, and neuron-specific enolase are also elevated but 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is within the reference range. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Carcinoid tumors of the intestine B. Pheochromocytoma C. Neuroblastoma D. Pancreatic cancer

C. Neuroblastoma

108. A 55 year old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. if the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery. A. Undetectable B. 1-3 ng/mL C. Less than 4 ng/mL D. Less than 10 ng/mL

A. Undetectable

109. A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4 hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which group of test could still be performed? A. Glucose, Na K, CI, TCO2 B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine C. Total and direct bilirubin B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine D. CK, ALT, ALP, ACP

B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine

110. A quantitative urine glucose level was determined to be 160 mg/dL by the Trinder glucose oxidase method. The sample was refrigerated overnight. The next day, the glucose was repeated and found to be 240 mg/dL using a polarographic method. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy? A. Poor precision when performing one of the methods B. Contamination resulting from overnight storage C. High levels of reducing substances interfering with the trinder reaction D. Positive interference in the polarographic method caused by hematuria

C. High levels of reducing substances interfering with the trinder reaction

111. A gastric fluid from a patient suspected of having taken an overdose of amphetamine is sent to the laboratory for analysis. The technologist should: A. Perform an EMIT assay for amphetamine B. Refuse the sample and request serum or urine C. Dilute 1:10 with H20 and filter; perform TLC (Thin-Layer Chromatography) for amphetamines D. Titrate to pH 7.0, then follow procedure for measuring amphetamine in urine

C. Dilute 1:10 with H20 and filter; perform TLC (Thin-Layer Chromatography) for amphetamines

112. Analysis of normal and abnormal quality controls performed at the beginning of the evening shift revealed a 22s error across levels for triglyceride. Both controls were within the 3 standard deviation limit. The controls were assayed again, and one control was above the 2 standard deviation limit. No further action was taken, and the patient results that were part of the run were reported. Which statement best describes this situation? A. Appropriate operating procedures were followed B. Remedial evaluation should have been taken but otherwise the actions were appropriate C. Remedial action should have been taken and controls repeated with a fresh aliquot; at least three of the patient samples should have been repeated D. the controls should have been run twice before reporting result

C. Remedial action should have been taken and controls repeated with a fresh aliquot; at least three of the patient samples should have been repeated

113. A 6 year-old being treated with phenytoin was recently placed on valproic acid for better control of seizures. After the patient displayed signs of phenytoin toxicity, including ataxia, a stat phenytoin was determined to be 15.0 mg/L (reference range 10-20 mg/L). A peak blood level drawn 5 hours after the last dose is 18.0 mg/L. The valprioc acid measured at the same time is within acceptable limits for all tests, but the accuracy of the results is questioned by the physician. What is the most appropriate next course of action? A. Repeat the valprioc acid level using the last specimen B. Repeat the phenytoin on both trough and peak samples using a different method C. Recommend measurement of free phenytoin using the last specimen D. Recommend that a second trough level be measured

C. Recommend measurement of free phenytoin using the last specimen

114. Pick the INCORRECT Fire Safety Classification: A) Class A Fire = plastic & wood B) Class B Fire = petroleum products C) Class C Fire = oxygen & fuel D) Class D Fire = Sodium & Potassium

C) Class C Fire = oxygen & fuel

115. A 5ml blood specimen was extracted at 6:00AM today by a Phlebotomist. The Medical Laboratory Scientist in charge of the Chemistry section today will report to duty at 8:00AM yet. Which of the following statements is INCONSISTENT with the condition: A) The level of glucose in the specimen can be made stable by adding 5mg NaFl at 6:00 AM. B) The anti-glycolysis function of any additive is insufficient with the presence of bacteria C) The level of glucose in the specimen will be 10mg/dl lower after the test is done. D) The level of glucose in the specimen is not affected by the efflux of K+.

D) The level of glucose in the specimen is not affected by the efflux of K+.

116. The main advantages of fluorometric over spectroscopic methods of analysis are A) Decreased specificity and decreased sensitivity B) Decreased specificity and increased sensitivity C) Increased specificity and increased sensitivity D) Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity

C) Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

117. Which type of fire extinguisher should be used on an electrical equipment fire? A) Type A B)Type B C. Type C D. Type E

C. Type C

118.In the Hazards Identification System, four color- coded, diamond- shaped symbols are arranged to form a larger diamond shape. What type of hazard does the yellow diamond represent? A) Reactivity B)Health C. Flammability D. Universal

A) Reactivity

119. A known normal patient has an increased serum glucose level. He could have taken which of these drugs? A) Calcium & Penicillin G B) Ascorbic Acid & Acetaminophen C) Isoniazid & Cephalosporins D) Erythromycin & Vitamin B

B) Ascorbic Acid & Acetaminophen

120. You see the following wastes in the following bins: Kopico candy wrappers in the yellow bin, carbon paper in the black bin, plastic spoon in the red bin, and used gloves & empty Coke tin can in the green bin. The next thing to do: A) Nothing, those wastes are in their right places. B) Notify the garbage collector of the wrong disposal of some wastes. C) Transfer the wrongly disposed wastes into their correct bins. D) Pour alcohol unto the wrongly disposed wastes to disinfect them.

B) Notify the garbage collector of the wrong disposal of some wastes.

121. The Allen Correction or Dual Wavelength method A) Acorr = Apeak absorbance – 2 / (A Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & higher ) B) Acorr = (A Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & higher ) / 2 – Apeak absorbance C)Apeak absorbance = Acorr – (A Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & higher ) D) Acorr = Apeak absorbance – (A Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & higher ) / 2

D) Acorr = Apeak absorbance – (A Analyte-free serum absorbance; lower & higher ) / 2

122. What westgard rule is violated in the Levey –Jennings control chart above? (CHOLESTEROL) A. 7T B. 3:1s C. 1:2s D. no violation seen

C. 1:2s

123. What will you do next after looking at this particular control chart? (CHOLESTEROL) A. accept the run B. reject the run C. automatically repeat the control D. careful inspection of the data since this is just a warning signal

D. careful inspection of the data since this is just a warning signal

124. What westgard rule is violated in the Levey –Jennings control chart above? (SODIUM) A. 4:1s B. 3:1s C. 2:2s D. no rule is violated

D. no rule is violated

125. What is the next step after looking at the chart above? (SODIUM) A. accept the run B. reject the run C. repeat the control D. investigate the cause

A. accept the run

126. An out- patient was extracted at 6AM. Unfortunately, the Med Tech in charge has to answer an emergency call in the Emergency Room, and has to leave the first patient’s blood in the refrigerator with its temperature at 40c. If the patient’s fasting blood sugar yesterday was around 90mg/dl, how much do you expect it to be, if the Med Tech was able to come back & perform the test at 9AM? A) 80mg/dl B) 76mg/dl C) 84mg/dl D) 69mg/dl

C) 84mg/dl

127. A patient was subjected to an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test, and has the following blood results: Fasting plasma glucose is 135mg/dL, 1 ½ hour level of 270mg/dl, and a 2-hr glucose value of 110mg/dL. What is your diagnosis? A) diabetes mellitus B) normal C)gestational diabetes D)none of the above

A) diabetes mellitus

128. A patient’s HbA1c was 8%. Conclusion: A) patient’s Diabetes is well-controlled by his diet B) the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet C. Patient is having gestational diabetes D) his diet has nothing to do with this test

B) the diabetic patient is not controlling his diet

129. A 6 months pregnant patient has the following result for the 3 hour OGTT: fasting 100mg/dl; 1 hour 220mg/dl, 2 hours 200mg/dl, 3 hours 135mg/dl. Conclusion: A) patient is positive for Non-insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus B) patient is positive for juvenile Diabetes Mellitus C) patient is negative for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus D) patient is positive for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus

D) patient is positive for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus

130. “Good” cholesterol pertains to the following lipoprotein A.HDL B.LDL C.IDL D.VLDL

A.HDL

131. This abnormal lipoprotein accumulates in type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia A. Lpx Lipoprotein B. Lp (A) C.VLDL D. B-VLDL

D. B-VLDL

132. The reaction of formaldehyde with ammonium ion and acetylacetone to produce yellow-colored product diacetyl lutidine is the final step of what triglyceride method? A. Van Handel and Zilversmit reaction B. Hantzsch condensation reaction C) Standard colorimetric reaction D) Liebermann burchard reaction

B. Hantzsch condensation reaction

133. In severe liver disease the ratio of esterified cholesterol to total cholesterol is altered because the esterification of cholesterol by the liver is depressed. To quantitate cholesteryl esters, it is necessary to precipitate the free cholesterol by use of A) potassium hydroxide B) isopropyl alcohol C) sodium hydroxide D) digitonin

C) sodium hydroxide

134. The lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio is a determination that is frequently performed to assess A)Arteriosclerosis B) Hyperlipidemia C) Coronary artery disease D) Fetal lung maturity

D) Fetal lung maturity

135. In the Berthelot reaction, a blue-indophenol compound is formed that is proportional to the quantity of urea in the specimen being analyzed. Falsely elevated urea values will occur with this procedure when the reaction mixture is contaminated by A) Glucose B) Protein C) Ammonia D) Bacteria

C) Ammonia

136.Patient’s test for serum triglyceride this morning resulted to 250md/dl. Later in the afternoon, you remembered you didn’t remove the free glycerol. How much should his result be if only you did its removal? A) 182.5-195 mg/dl B) 82.5-95 mg/dl C) 105-110.5 mg/dl D) 215-110 mg/dl

D) 215-110 mg/dl

137. In determining the Lipid Profile, which procedure / computation is NOT acceptable: A) Determine first TAG, and total cholesterol HDL-cholesterol by chemical means B) Total-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - TAG C) VLDL-cholesterol = total cholesterol – infranatant-cholesterol D) LDL-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol – HDL-cholesterol

B) Total-cholesterol = infranatant cholesterol - TAG

138. A patient’s blood has been standing for 2 hours, since the previous Med Tech on duty has left it beside the centrifuge by negligence. The next technologist performed the ammonia test which gives a result of 13.036 μg/mL. How much was its initial content and its actual interpretation? A)11.036 μg/mL, increased B)13.0 μg/mL, increased C) 13.0 μg/mL, normal D) 13.036 μg/mL, increased

B)13.0 μg/mL, increased

139. This method of protein determination is based on the ability of phosphotungstomolybdic acid to oxidize the phenolic structures of the amino acids tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and histidine. A) Coomassie Brilliant Blue Dye B) Lowry Protein Assay C) Folin- Ciocalteau Method

C) Folin- Ciocalteau Method

140. A 10 mL class A volumetric flask has an accuracy of ±0.2%. Express the ±0.2% tolerance in terms of milliliters. A. ±0.002 B. ±0.01 C. ±0.02 D. ±0.2

B. ±0.01

141. Protein-losing enteropathy is usually seen in malabsorption syndrome and is evidenced by a serum electrophoretogram of: A. Low albumin only B. Low albumin and gamma globulin C. Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-1 and 2 globulins D. Low albumin and gamma globulin, high alpha-2 globulin

A. Low albumin only

142. To correct for interfering nucleic acids, the protein concentration may be calculated using this formula: A) Protein(mg/mL) = (15.5 x A280) – (0. 67 x A260) B) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A280) – (0.76 x A260 C) Protein(mg/mL) = (0.76 x A280) – (1.55 x A260) D) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A260) – (0.76 x A280

B) Protein(mg/mL) = (1.55 x A280) – (0.76 x A260

143. A________ ______ level of free haptoglobin suggests hemoglobinuria or hemolysis: A)decrease in serum B) increase in serum C) decrease in urine D) increase in urine

A)decrease in serum

144. In anion-exchange chromatography, the order of elution is usually: A) α1-globulins α2-globulins,, β-globulins, and albumin. B) α2-globulins, albumin, β-globulins, and α1-globulins. C) β-globulins, α2-globulins, α1-globulins, and albumin. D) albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, and β-globulins.

C) β-globulins, α2-globulins, α1-globulins, and albumin.

145. The order of elution in Cation-exchange chromatography A) α1-globulins α2-globulins,, β-globulins, and albumin. B) α2-globulins, albumin, β-globulins, and α1-globulins. C) β-globulins, α2-globulins, α1-globulins, and albumin. D) albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, and β-globulins

D) albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, and β-globulins

146. It is the preferred method for AST/ALT assays. A) Karmen or Walker B)Frankel-Reitman C) Babson D) Tanzer and Gilvarg

A) Karmen or Walker

147. The effects of adneylate cyclase on CK determination may be minimized by: A) avoiding sample’s exposure to light B) using red top tubes without anticoagulant. C) using a sulfhydryl activator B) using red top tubes without anticoagulant. D) addition of diadenosine-5-pentaphosphate

C) using a sulfhydryl activator

148. LD2 and LD3 are the highest fractions, with high Aldolase and phosphohexose isomerase in this condition: A) Pulmonary Infarct B) Acute Hepatitis C) Metastalic Liver Cancer D) Myocardial Infarct

C) Metastalic Liver Cancer

149. Wroblewski-Cabaud method involved the following EXCEPT: A) the lactate produced is allowed to react with DNPH B) product is golden brown phenyl hydrazine solution C) it uses an alkaline pH D) absorbance measured at 440-525 nm

B) product is golden brown phenyl hydrazine solution

150. Ceruloplasmin contains which metal? A) Magnesium B) copper C) iron D) zinc

B) copper

TABLE: 151) 5'N- 152) LAP- 153) GGT- A) decreased B) normal C) increased D) no relationship

5'N- NORMAL LAP- NORMAL GGT- INCREASE

154. State the patient’s condition with the following findings: Negative HBsAg; retained increases in hepatic aminotransferase levels; low levels of HBV DNA; low to negative anti-HBs. A) Isolated Anti-HBc during Window Period Following Acute Infection B) Resolved HBV Infection with Waning Anti-HBs C) Persistent HBV Infection w/ Absent Detectable HBsAg D) Negative for Hep B infection; Passive reaction to vaccination.

C) Persistent HBV Infection w/ Absent Detectable HBsAg

155. The sample of choice for acid phosphatase assay: A) citrated plasma B) serum C) oxalated plasma D) heparinized plasma

A) citrated plasma

156. Indicator used in Amyloclastic Method for Amylase Assay. A) phenolphthalein B) Iodine C) fluoride D) thymolphthalein

B) Iodine

157. The level of this enzyme is a sensitive measure of overexposure to organophosphorus poisoning. A) True cholinesterase B) Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase C) Pseudo-cholinesterase D) Lipase

C) Pseudo-cholinesterase

158. In the Colorimetric Test for G6PD, a ___ ring is seen in deficient samples. A) yellow B) violet C) blue D) red

A) yellow

159. A potassium determination revealed a result of 5.8mmol/L. However, the Med Tech on duty noticed that the sample he used has some blood clots at the bottom of the tube. Determine the patient’s actual potassium level: A) hypokalemia B) normal C) hyperkalemia D) cannot be determined

C) hyperkalemia

160. A patient’s chloride determination, of sample labeled as “CSF”, resulted to 100mmol/L. Interpret the result. A) bacterial meningitis B) protein concentration in cerebrospinal fluid is low C) there are practically no proteinate anions in the CSF D) normal serum sample mistakenly labeled as CSF

A) bacterial meningitis

161. Urine/Serum Osmol Ratio of patients with Chronic Renal Insufficiency. A) >20mEq/L B) <20mEq/L C) <1.2mEq/L D) >1 mEq/L

A) >20mEq/L

162. Acute alcoholism leads to : A) Hypokalemia B) hypomagnasemia C) Hypophosphatasia D) A & B

B) hypomagnasemia

163. The ‘Menkes kinky hair syndrome’ is due to a genetic defect of this metal: A) copper B) magnesium C) manganese D) phosphates

A) copper

164. Toxicity to the dust of this metal results in basal ganglia damage and produce both psychological and neurological effects. A) nickel B) magnesium C) manganese D) phosphates

C) manganese

165. These ions exhibit diurnal variations. A) cobalt & copper B) magnesium & molybdenum C) phosphates & iron D) zinc & iodine

C) phosphates & iron

166. Which statement is TRUE regarding regulation of ions: A) In hypercalcemia, there is hypophosphatasia, which in turn may be seen in hyperparathyroidism. B) In hypocalcemia, there is hypophosphatasia, which in turn may be seen in hyperparathyroidism. C) In hypercalcemia, there is hyperphosphatasia, which in turn may be seen in hyperparathyroidism. D) In hypocalcemia, there is hypophosphatasia, which in turn may be seen in hypoparathyroidis

A) In hypercalcemia, there is hypophosphatasia, which in turn may be seen in hyperparathyroidism.

167. A 2 weeks old female patient’s test for serum copper has a result of 100μg/dL. How much is her serum copper level in μmol/L? A) 17.5 μmol/L B) 51. 7 μmol/L C) 15. 7 μmol/L D) 1.57 μmol/L

D) 1.57 μmol/L

168. A 25 y.o female patient has the following test results: TIBC 300μg/dL; serum iron 45 μg/dL. Interpret her % transferrin result. A) Normal B) increased C) decreased D) can’t be determined

B) increased

169. Given an arterial blood with pCO2 of 40mmHg and a total of CO2 of 30mmol/L. Determine the HCO3- concentration. A) 1.2mmol/L B) 28.8mmol/L C) 24 mmol/L D) 14.6 mmol/L

A) 1.2mmol/L

170. Cyfra 21-1 171. P-glycoprotein 172. Ferritin 173. Beta2-microglobulin A A) rapid cell turnover B) membranes of drug-resistant cells C) iron metabolism and erythropoiesis D) non-small cell lung cancer

170. Cyfra 21-1 ANS: D) non-small cell lung cancer 171. P-glycoprotein ANS: B) membranes of drug-resistant cells 172. Ferritin ANS: C) iron metabolism and erythropoiesis 173. Beta2-microglobulin A ANS: A) rapid cell turnover

174. C-Peptide 175. Bence Jones protein 176. Thyroglobulin 177. Tissue polypeptide antigen A) insulinoma B) thyroid carcinoma C) urinary free immunoglobulin light chains D) marker of cellular proliferation

174. C-Peptide ANS: A) insulinoma 175. Bence Jones protein ANS:C) urinary free immunoglobulin light chains 176. Thyroglobulin ANS:B) thyroid carcinoma 177. Tissue polypeptide antigen ANS: D) marker of cellular proliferation

Interpret the following results for Nicotine Tests: A) positive B) negative C) invalid 178. C- COLORED T- COLORED 179. C- COLORED T- FAINT LINE 180. C-COLORED T- NO COLOR 181 . C- NO COLOR T - NO COLOR

178. B. NEGATIVE 179. B. NEGATIVE 180. A. POSITIVE 181. C INVALID

Patients with normal ADH responses should not have weight losses greater than 182)__ and the decrease in water intake should 183) __ the release of ADH. A) 3% B) stimulate C) 5% D) inhibit

182.A) 3% 183.B) stimulate

Melatonin has a/an 184)__ effect with/to Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone on the pituitary-gonadal axis, in that 185)__ level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads. A) decreased B) similar C) opposite D) Increased

184.C) opposite 185.A) decreased

Prolactin levels are highest in the 186)__, but 187)__ also if the patient is under stress. A) increases B) morning C)decreases D) midnight

186. B) morning 187. A) increases

FSH stimulates the growth of follicle, while 188)___ stimulates it to become a corpus luteum. The follicle cells produce 189)__, which in turn has a positive feedback effect on the secretion of 190)__. A) GnRH B)progesterone C) LH D) estrogen

188. C) LH 189. A) GnRH 190.D) estrogen

191. In the definitive drug confirmation testing, this identifies the exact molecular structure of the compounds: A) gas-chromatography B) flame photometry C) mass spectrometry D) A & C only

D) A & C only

192. Hair provides a ___history of the donor’s drug use. A) 15-day B) 90-day C) 30-day D) 60-day

B) 90-day

193. A person with a very high BAC of .165 will have no measurable alcohol in the bloodstream after ____ hours. A) 10 B) 1.0 C) 1.1 D) 11

A) 10

194. It is considered the reference method for measuring steroids. A) fluorescence polarization immunoassay B) gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy C) enzyme-multiplied immunologic technique D) high performance liquid chromatography

D) high performance liquid chromatography

195. The principal end-product of dopamine metabolism is __. A) Vanillyl Mnadelic Acid B) Catechol-O-methyltransferase C) Homovanillic acid D) L- Monoamine oxidas

C) Homovanillic acid

196. Barbiturates peak absorbance 320nm and at 220nm is achieved by adjusting the pH with A. 0.45 mol/L NaCl B. 4.5 mol/L KOH C. 4.5 mol/L NaOH D. 0.45 mol/L NaOH

D. 0.45 mol/L NaOH

197. The colorimetric method for Lead that uses diphenylthiocarbazone (dithizone) lead to formation of __ complex. A. Red B. violet C. yellow D. blue

A. Red

A) Negative, Ames B) Positive, EMIT C) FPIA Negative D) FPIA Positive Result, 198. Anti-drug + Serum + drug-fluorescein complex → free drug-fluorescein complex . Irradiate with polarized light, & there will be a decreased polarization. 199. Serum + anti-drug + drug-enzyme complex → anti-drug-drug + free drug-enzyme complex. Add substrate, there will be a color change. 200. Sample + anti-drug + drug-substrate complex → anti-drug-drug –substrate. Addition of the enzyme β- galactosidase → fluorescence is decreased or absent.

198. D) FPIA Positive Result, 199. B) Positive, EMIT 200. A) Negative, Ames

SODA PART 2 Flashcards

(182 cards)