Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phenom Stuff > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for an engine start?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What wind speed requires the wheels to be chocked and gust locks installed?

A

25kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What mode must the transponder be set to on the ground?

A

STBY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the min battery voltage for an internal start?

A

24v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On an internal start how long should you allow between each engine start?

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the max taxiing speeds? (General, Icy and on ASP)

A

10kts on ASP and on Icy surfaces
20kts otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the taxi fuel figures for CWL runways?

A

26 - 40kgs
08 - 20kgs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what circumstances is a V1 speed not required?

A
  1. When operating from the main runway at Cranwell, Waddington or Coningsby (Dry or Wet) with WINGSTAB off for take off
  2. When AUW <=4500 for take off with a tailwind of =>5 kts
  3. When AUW <=4700 for take off with no tailwind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Engine AI should be set to ON prior to departure if it will be required below what height?

A

1500ft (to prevent any FADEC logic failures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Below what speed should a take off be aborted for any abnormality? (Low speed abort)

A

70 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Under what circumstances should a take off be rejected above 70kts?

A

CAS Message
Sign of FIRE
Undemanded loss of thrust
Loss of directional control
Any other situation the pilot considers merits an abort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are PFs duties on an aborted take off?

A

Retard both thrust levers to Idle
Use maximum braking to maintain directional control
Once stationary apply the parking brake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are PMs duties on an aborted take off?

A

Monitor the PFs actions
Call distance to go and groundspeed
Call ATC “Callsign stopping”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What direction should you turn in relation to wind in the event of a fire?

A

Headwind and Crosswind: Turn towards the fire to put the fire downwind

Tailwind: Turn away from the fire to put the fire downwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When can you assume two engine performance on a MID for meeting a required climb gradient?

A

When it is for noise abatement or ATC purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What category of aircraft is the Phenom?

A

Cat B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the max IAS for turning for a CAT B aircraft on a MID?

A

165 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the standard climb speed for the Phenom up to FL200?

A

180kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the standard climb speed for a Phenom between FL200 and FL300?

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the standard climb speed above FL300?

A

Mach 0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If operating with a Navlog, what performance climb can be used?

A

200kts to FL300 then Mach 0.55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For a One Engine Inoperative climb, what speed and power settings should be used after the Net Take Off Flight Path is complete?

A

Use Vfs on CON/CLB until all obstacles are cleared; once at a safe altitude, Vfs+10kts can be employed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At what altitude should both WSLD 1 and 2 be turned on?

A

FL150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the standard cruise technique on 45 sqn?

A

Long Range Cruise (best compromise on range and speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is a danger of using max cruise speed?
At lower altitudes Vmo can easily be exceeded?
26
When should a fuel log be maintained?
1. On transit or on navigation sorties exceeding 1 hours 2. Whenever it is deemed necessary by the aircraft commander
27
What speed must be maintained when operating at SAT BELOW -56°?
Mach 0.4
28
What covers the extra fuel in the case of an en route engine failure?
The 5% contingency fuel (but on long journeys with few en route diversations extra contingency fuels may be required)
29
What is the standard descent speed?
200kts
30
What height should a stabilised call be made in the visual circuit?
Between 400ft and 200ft
31
What height should the stabilise call be made on a standard approach?
200ft
32
What are the criteria for making a stabilised call?
1. Established on runway centreline 2. Maintaining the desire approach path 3. Speed is between Vref and Vref+20 (with stable thrust) 4. Appropriate trim in all 3 axes 5. Ac in the briefed landing configuration
33
What are the short final checks carried out by PF?
Clearance- The appropriate ATC clearance has been received ALT SEL- The appropriate missed approach altitude has been set Checks Complete- All checklistd have been completed (If MAP is not applicable, set something appropriate like SALT or a climb out restriction)
34
What height must you be at to ingress/ egress from either pilot seat?
1000ft AGL
35
What is the min speed for the final turn?
Vref f3 + 15kts and applies till wings level
36
What is the final turn speed bugged as?
Vap
37
What is the missed approach climb speed?
150kts
38
What technique should be used for non precision approaches?
CDFA and DDH/DDA
39
What is the procedure for achieving 'best speed' if required by ATC?
1. Select gear in the usual position and descend on the approach at 160kts 2. At 4nm from touchdown reduce speed, select F3 and fly a standard profile flown from that point.
40
What speed should holds be flown up to FL140?
170kts
41
What does WINGSTAB do to required LDA and Vref?
Significantly increases
42
With WINGSTAB on, what changes are made to the warnings/ anti stall system?
1. There is no increase speed aural warning 2. The stall audio and stick pusher activate at a lower AoA
43
What is visible moisture defined as?
Visible moisture is defined as clouds, fog/ mist with a visibility =<1610m, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals
44
On a missed approach, where you need to turn WINGSTAB back on, when should you turn it on?
For a missed approach, select the WINGSTAB ON when above 150 and before entering icing conditions.
45
What is the tyre limiting speed?
139kts
46
What is the normal flap setting for landing?
F3 (Ffull available at ac commanders discretion)
47
What are the landing distance limits for a touch and go?
Dry Runway - LDA > 4500ft or 1372m Wet Runway - LDA > 5200ft or 1582m
48
What is the max tailwind component for a touch and go?
5kts
49
When landing past cables, what must you treat the cable as?
An inset runway threshold (you must cross it at 50ft Vref)
50
What are the minimums for landing on a runway with a cable?
Minimum cloudbase: 300ft Minimum visibility: 2km The cable must be visually acquired prior to any touchdown
51
What flap setting must be used for an asymmetric approach?
F3
52
If landing off a simulated approach, what factor must you multiply F3 factored landing distance by to get the LDR?
1.07
53
What is the TOGA time limit?
5 minutes
54
What is the procedure for initial take offs to avoid busting TOGA limits?
The initial take off must continue to climb to at least 1500ft on the RadAlt and the FADEC annunciation must he out of TO mode
55
How many TOGA events can be used per engine on a single sortie? (Assuming they the initial take off doesn't include an EFATO)
10
56
How many TOGA events per engine can be used on a single sortie if the initial take off includes an EFATO?
8
57
What are the different TOGA event values?
One Event: Touch and Go; OEO Go Around; stall in the final turn; stall in the approach configuration Four events: Simulated asymmetric Go Around; SEFATO following a touch and go or low approach with the FADEC in GA mode Zero events: A SEFATO following a touch and go or low approach where the FADEC is in CLB mode
58
What calls should be made by the PM when approaching any cleared FL/ Alt/ Ht?
1000 to go Approaching level (at 200-300ft to the cleared level)
59
What heights/ altitudes should altimeters be checked in the climb?
Altimeters should be checked at FL100/ 10000ft and ever 5000ft above
60
What heights/ altitudes should altimeters be checked in the descent?
Every 5000ft above FL100/10000ft and every 1000ft below. SALT should also be acknowledged by the crew.
61
On an instrument approach, when should altimeters be cross checked?
1000ft agl
62
When the PM calls 1000ftQFE/ XXXXft QNH.. now , what should the PF include in their acknowledgement?
Range to touchdown, current RADALT height and confirmation that the ALT S is set.
63
What are the standard calls from the PM on the final descent profile?
200 to DH 100 to DH Decision (for a DH/ DA) or Approaching MDH (MDA)
64
What isnthe default altimeter setting at UK civil airfields for 45 sqn?
QNH
65
What is the minimum oxygen to be carried for local training flights?
Enough for all passengers and crew to be on oxygen for 30 minutes. Approx 1050 psi
66
What is the normal minimum oxygen pressure for ac departing on landaways and overseas flights?
1590 psi
67
What range is recommended on the MFD in MAP mode for departures and arrivals?
30 or 50 nm
68
En route, what range should be used on the MFD MAP mode?
50 nm
69
The radar must be in STANDBY if there is any chance of scanning personnel within what range?
3 metres (12 ft)
70
Major weather returns (such as active CB cells) should be avoided by what distance?
At least 10nm
71
When operating below SALT, what should be minimised?
Flt deck communications
72
In the Phenom, when should TA only be selected?
1. During stalling exercises 2. As lead ac when flying in a formation 3. In the visual circuit
73
If you have MA trainees on board, what changes are made to your timelines?
Crew brief 10 mins earlier than usual Out brief 10 mins earlier than usual as a whole crew
74
If using Type II or Type IV de-icing fluids, crews must ensure that Vr is greater than what speed?
100kts
75
Why must you not spray deicing fluid onto or forward of the windshield?
It might run back on take off and degrade visibility
76
At what temperature does the most severe ice formation occur?
TAT of -5 degrees C
77
What should crew avoid excessive use of in hot weather?
Brakes
78
In strong winds or gusty approaches, what margin might crews add to their Vap?
The rule of thumb is half the gust factor
79
In strong winds or gusty approaches, what adjustment might crews make to Vref?
Vref should not be adjusted for gusts
80
If you have to fly into a storm, what speed should be used?
Max speed of 230 kts < FL280 > 0.59M
81
What is the procedure if you suspect severe windshear?
1. Disconnect the autopilot 2. Set max thrust 3. Ensure the wings are level and select 15° nose up attitude and decelerate to the top of the yellow speed band
82
When does EDM arm?
When pressure altitude is greater than 25,500ft with AP engaged
83
When does EDM activate?
With the CAB ALTITUDE HI warning
84
How do you deactivate EDM?
Disengage the autopilot
85
In an Emegency Descent, what actions can assist the Altitude section of the MIs?
a. CWS - Consider using to expedite initial descent b. ALT SEL - 3 winds ccw (not below MSA) c. FLC - Press d. SPD SEL - 3 winds cw

Phenom Stuff (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions