Specific tumours part 1 Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

Eosinophilic granulomas affect the ventral and lateral tongue. What dog breeds are predisposed?

A

CKCS

Husky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for canine and feline eosinophilic granulomas?

A

Steroids
Surgery
Radiotherapy + hypoallergenic diet (cat?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A dog has raised cauliflower, alopecic lesions. They are benign. What is the likely tumour?

A

Sebaceous adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A dog has a benign swelling in the perianal/thigh area. On cytology the cells look like hepatocytes. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Hepatoid gland tumour

Sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A FISS is associated with which vaccines?

A

FeLV

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do FISS metastasise? (route)

A

Haematogenous route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the 3-2-1 rule for biopsy investigation of a FISS?

A

Mass present for 3+ months post injection
>2cm in diameter
Growing 1 month after injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What margins are required for a FISS?

A

3-5cm

Refer - may require vertebrae!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can a FISS be prevented?

A

Vaccinate on a site of wide surgical excision (tail, limb)
Reduce inflammation at site
Do not over-vaccinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Epulides are non-metastatic lesions on the gingiva. What are the two types and which is invasive?

A

Acanthomatous ameloblastoma - invasive locally

Peripheral odontgenic fibroma - not invasive, slower growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What breed and age dogs are prone to fibrosarcomas?

A
Golden Retriever
Middle age (5-7)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are feline fibrosarcomas often found?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do fibrosarcomas metastasise to? They have low-moderate met risk

A

Lung

LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is a histiologically low grade, biologically high grade fibrosarcoma often found?

A

Caudal maxilla

Aggressive although benign histo appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What haematology changes may be seen with a haemangiosarcoma?

A

Low platelet count - coagulation problems
Anaemia
Shistocytes
Reduced TP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a histiocytoma? What does it look like?

A

Round cell tumour

Dome shaped, alopecia +/- ulceration

17
Q

What is the treatment for histiocytoma? What age is usually affected?

A

Nothing - tend to regress in a few weeks

Young animals

18
Q

A histiocytic sarcoma is a round tumour arising from histiocytes in the body. Give examples of where histiocytes are found. Is this tumour metastatic?

A

Lung, spleen, liver, bone, brain, joints
Highly metastatic
Tx with mulitmodal therapy

19
Q

Is leukeamia more common in cats or dogs?

20
Q

What are the 4 types of leukaemia?

A

Acute lymphoid leukaemia
Chronic lymphoid leukaemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Chronic myeloid leukaemia

21
Q

What is myelodysplastic syndrome a precursor to? In which animals?

A

Acute lymphoid leukaemia

FeLV positive cats

22
Q

In chronic myeloid leukaemia there is a proliferation of mature myeloid cells, usually neutrophils. What is a blast crisis?

A

Phase of myeloid leukaemia
>30% of circulating blood cells are blast cells
Cause tiredness, pyrexia, splenomegaly

23
Q

What is the treatment for acute leukaemia?

A

Multiagent chemo - CHOP, CEOP
Cytarabine infusions
(Px poor)

24
Q

Lymphoma can be B or T cell. Which has the better prognosis?

A
B = better
T = terrible
25
What are the stages of lymphoma?
Stage 1 = 1 LN or organ Stage 2 = involement of local LNs or tonsils Stage 3 = hepatic or spleen involement Stage 4 = manifestations in blood/bone marrow a = without systemic illness b = with systemic illness
26
What is the most common form of lymphoma?
Multicentric (generalised peripheral lymphadenopathy
27
Craniomediastinal lymphoma can be solitary or part of multicentric lymphoma. It can lead to hypercalcaemia and precaval syndrome. What is precaval syndrome?
Compression of vena cava | Swelling of head, neck and FLs
28
What is the most common form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?
Mycosis fungoides
29
Cutaneous lymphoma can be T cell or B cell. What is the difference?
T cell = epitheliotropic | B cell = non-epitheliotropic
30
The gold standard for lymphoma is discontinuous CHOP/CEOP (dogs) or high dose COP (cats). Give examples of rescue protocols
DMAC - dexamethasone, melphalan, actinomycin D, cytatarabine LPP - lomustine, procarbazine, pred Doxorubicin/epirubicin if not already used
31
What pathogen predisposes cats to lymphoma?
FeLV = 62X risk!!! | FIV
32
What drugs can be used for analgesia in palliative bone tumours?
Biphosphanates - pamidronate, zoledronate