Spr 16- Test Two- Lymphoid, Musculoskeletal, Integument, Urinary Flashcards
(224 cards)
1
Q
What are the four stages of fracture healing
A
Hematoma, fibrocartilagenous callus, bony callus, remodeling
2
Q
Describe the Salter fractures
A
Straight, above (through plate and then upwards), lower (through plate then below), through, cRushing
3
Q
Signalment- craniomandibular osteopathy
A
Westie/scottie in first year (3-7m, stop 11-13m)
4
Q
craniomandibular osteopathy - describe
A
Excess bone growth at temporomandibular joint
5
Q
craniomandibular osteopathy- inheritance
A
Autosomal recessive
6
Q
Osteogenesis imperfecta- describe
A
problem with synthesis of matrix- especially type I collagen- leading to very brittle bones and fractures
7
Q
Describe osteoporosis
A
Loss of bone due to more resorption than formation leaving susceptible to fractures
8
Q
Causes of osteoporosis
A
Disuse, malnutrition, steroid use
9
Q
Describe osteopenia
A
precedes osteoporosis- decrease in the number of thin trabeculae
10
Q
Describe osteopetrosis
A
Increase in bone density due to defect in function of osteoclasts- failed bone remodeling
11
Q
Describe chondrodysplasia
A
Bone and cartilage dysfunction of development
12
Q
Chondrodysplasia breeds
A
Doxies, Corgis, Bassett hounds
13
Q
Name three metabolic bone diseases
A
Scurvy, Ricketts, Fibrous osteodystrophy
14
Q
Two main outcomes of scurvy
A
Peri-articular hemorrhage, osteochondrodysplasia
15
Q
Pathogenesis of scurvy
A
Low vitamin C leads to decreased lysine and proline hydroxylation causing impaired collagen synthesis leading to weak vessel walls and deformity of physeal cartilage which results in peri-articular hemorrhage and osteochondrodysplasia
16
Q
Disease of westies/scotties (MSkel)
A
craniomandibular osteopathy
17
Q
Describe fibrous osteodystrophy
A
Primary (adenoma or hyperplasia of PThy) or secondary (Ca:P from nutrition or kidney dz) causes bone issues (rubber jaw, fractures of long bones)
18
Q
Describe Ricketts
A
Decreased vitamin D and/or Phos leads to defect in endochondral ossification
19
Q
Achondroplasia is a type of, describe
A
Chondrodysplasia- bones dont grow to normal size- dwarfism
20
Q
Ricketts- signalment
A
Only young animals
21
Q
Name dysplasias that can cause fractures
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta, osteoporosis
22
Q
Describe hypertrophic osteoPATHY
A
Periosteal proliferation caused by an intrathoracic mass, NO joint involvement
23
Q
Problem with type I collagen synthesis is called
A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
24
Q
Describe hypertrophic osteoDYSTROPHY
A
Acute inflammation in primary spongiosa leading to necrosis of osteoblasts in metaphyses of young large breeds- non-infectious inflammation
25
Defect in function of osteoclast causes
Osteopetrosis- failure of bone remodeling leading to increased bone density
26
What is the radiographic finding of hyper' o'DYSTROPHY
Double physeal line in metaphysis parallel to normal physis line
27
Shifting leg lameness in large breed dog that resolves on its own
Eosinophilic panosteitis
28
Avascular necrosis of femoral head in small breeds before physeal closure
Legg- Perthes Disease
29
Inflammation of the bone and marrow contents regardless of cause
Osteomyelitis
30
Disease of defective endochondral ossification
Ricketts
31
What does inflammation of primary spongiosis cause
Necrosis of osteoblasts and hypertrophic osteoDYSTROPHY
32
Why is osteomyelitis so bad
Tx difficult bc poor blood supply to bone makes it difficult to get Abx in, can become chronic if acute tx not successful
33
Name three examples of osteomyelitis
Fungal, bacterial, post-traumatic, surgery related
34
Name three common neoplasias of bone
Osteosarcoma, osteochondromatosis, multiple myeloma, chrondrosarcoma, chondroma
35
Osteosarcoma-
Malignant tumor of bone
36
Osteosarcoma- locations
Towards the knee, away from the elbow- does not cross joints
37
Osteochrondromatosis- describe
BENIGN neoplasia, proliferation of growth plate cartilage, multiple bony masses mostly in head and chest
38
Multiple myeloma- describe
Neoplasia of plasma cells, common in bones, malignant
39
What disease can be caused by surgery, penetrating wounds, fractures, hematogenous spread
Osteomyelitis
40
Define osteoma
Benign tumor of bone, very uncommon
41
Name the ways the joint responds to injury
Synovial hypertrophy and fibrillation, eburnation, osteophytosis of articular cartilage and bone
42
Define fibrillation
Joint rxn to injury/arthritis, forms vertical clefts in cartilage- dull, yellow-brown
43
Define eburnation
Polishing of exposed subchondral bone- bony formation over loss of cartilage
44
Define osteophytosis
body protuberances, bone trying to stabilize the joint
45
Presence of bence- joones proteins in urine indicates
Multiple myeloma
46
What are joint mice
Osteophytes or cartilage that break off and float in joint
47
Arthritis caused by aging lesion
Osteoarthritis
48
Name causes of chronic arthritis
Immune mediated, viral, untreated acute
49
Describe the lesion in osteoarthritis
Aging lesions: fibrillation, cartilage erosion, osteophytosis, eburnation, synovial hyperplasia
50
Describe the pathology of osteoarthritis
Decreased proteoglycan synthesis and increased metalloenzyme synthesis leads to a less viscous joint fluid from less proteoglycan in it
51
CAE is an example of
Immune mediated chronic inflammatory arthritis in goats
52
Describe osteochondrosis dissecans
Separation/cracking of an area of thickened cartilage where there should be bone, due to less endochondral ossification usually from decreased blood supply
53
Species with OCD, most common location
Pigs, dogs, horses- humoral head
54
Arthritis caused by wound or septicemia
Acute inflammatory arthritis
55
Osteochondrosis pathology, outcome
Abnormal differentiation of cartilage to bone; lameness, joint instability, joint mice
56
Joint neoplasia- name, describe
Synovial cell carcinoma- on joints of long bones
57
Difference between osteosarc and synovial cell carcinoma
Osteosarc does not involve the joints
58
DJD is an example of
Osteoarthritis
59
Shar pei fever is an example of
Immune mediated chronic inflammatory arthritis
60
IVDD- describe
Crack, tear or rupture of annulus fibrosis allowing inner nucleous pupposus to protrude
61
Types of IVDD
Type I- sudden, more common in chrondodystrophic breeds- NP calcified and pops out; Type II- gradual
62
Hip dysplasia- signalment
Large breed dogs
63
Hip dysplasia- describe
Degenerative, non-inflammatory deformation of the joint- subluxation of the femoral head
64
Elbow dysplasia- signalment
Large breed, GSD esp.
65
Elbow dysplasia- describe
Degen, non-inflamm, ununited anconeal process, fregmented medial coronoid process, OCD of elbow
66
Classify muscle injury
Distribution: Focal/multi-focal; Timeline: monophasic/polyphasic
67
Describe monophasic- what does this indicate
All muscle injuries at same time of progression - all acute, all chronic- indicates single insult
68
Describe polyphasic- what does this indicate
Varied chronicity of muscle injuries-- some more acute, some chronic- suggests ongoing, repeated issue
69
Examples of polyphasic mm. injury
Toxin, deficiency, trauma related to fracture
70
Name the 6 responses to muscle injury
hypertrophy, atrophy, degeneration, necrosis (calcification), regeneration (rowing of nucleus), fibrosis
71
Low PCV, normal CK
Hemoglobin
72
Normal PCV, CK elevated
Myoglobin
73
Cause of downer cattle -muscle damage
Circulation
74
Cause of malignant hyperthermia in pigs, name others from this category of muscle damage
Congenital (fainting goats, muscular dystrophy)
75
Cause of black leg -muscle damage
Myositis from clostridium
76
Cause of SLE, purpura hemorrhagica- muscle damage
Autoimmune myositis
77
What type of muscle damage is capture myopathy in exotics
Exertional myopathy
78
Name a nutritional myopathy cause of muscle damage
Malnutrition atrophy; vitamin E/selenium def. white muscle disease
79
What is monensin
Toxin causing muscle damage
80
What type of muscle damage would disuse be considered
Exertional myopathy
81
Cause of splayleg in pigs -muscle damage
Congenital
82
Equine anesthesia- type of mm. dmg
Circulation
83
Types of myositis form of mm. dmg.
Bacterial, parasitic, autoimmune
84
Equine rhabdomyolysis- type of mm. dmg.
Congenital- sporadic polysaccharide storage myopathy
85
Laryngal hemiplasia- mm dmg type
Denervation
86
Rhabdomyoma- mm dmg type
Neoplasia (also, rhabdomyosarcoma)
87
Lymphoma does what do the size of the spleen, thymus, LN, spleen,
Increases spleen- nodular/not bloody, increases LN, increases thymus
88
```
All of the following result in decreased size of the thymus and LN except
A. Parvovirus
B. Lymphoma
C. Corticosteroids
D. Canine distemper
E. A and D
```
Lymphoma
89
```
A uniformly enlarged dog spleen that bleeds on cut surface is most likely
A. Hemangiosarcoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Lymphoma
D. Congestion
E. Nodular hyperplasia
```
D. Congestion
90
```
An irregular dark red nodule in a spleen that bleeds on cut surface could be all the following except
A. Hemangiosarcoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Granulomatous splenitis
D. Hematoma
E. Nodular hyperplasia
```
C. Granulomatous splenitis
91
The most common form of lymphoma in dogs is
Multicentric
92
Right atrial lymphoma is most commonly found in
Cattle
93
```
Viral agents have been associated with lymphoma in
A. Cattle
B. Cat
C. Dog
D. A and B
E. A, B and C
```
E. A, B, C
94
```
All of the following often result in generalized (diffuse) splenomegaly EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Septicemic salmonellosis
C. Lymphoma
D. Hemangiosarcoma
E. Congestion
```
D. Hemangiosarcoma
95
```
Which of the following viruses causes systemic lymphoid atrophy? (2 pt.)
A. Canine parvovirus type 2
B. Canine distemper virus
C. Feline calicivirus
D. A, B
E. A, B, C
```
D
96
```
Thymoma is a neoplasm of? (2 pt.)
A. Thymic epithelial cells
B. Thymic lymphocytes
C. Thymic smooth muscle cells
D. Thymic macrophages
E.A and B
```
A
97
```
Which of the following are common sites for lymphoma in adult cattle with multicentric lymphoma? (2
pt.)
A. Lymph nodes
B. Abomasum
C. Heart
D. A, B
E. A, B, C
```
E
98
```
All of the following commonly present with bloody nodular splenic masses in dogs EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
A. Hematoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Hemangiosarcoma
D. Lymphoma
E. Splenic infarct
```
D. Lymphoma
99
```
Which of the following diseases or infections can result in generalized lymphadenomegaly? (2 pt.)
A. Multicentric lymphoma
B. Malignant catarrhal fever
C. Feline immunodeficiency virus
D. A, B
E. A, B, C
```
E. A, B, C
100
```
Retrovirus infection has been identified as a cause of lymphoma in? (2 pt.)
A. Dogs
B. Cats
C. Cattle
D. A,B,C,
E. B,C
```
D. A,B,C,
101
```
All of the following often result in generalized (diffuse) splenomegaly in dogs EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Septicemic salmonellosis
C. Lymphoma
D. Hematoma
E. Congestion
```
D. Hematoma
102
```
The most common distribution of lymphoma in cats is? (2 pt.)
A. Multicentric
B. Alimentary
C. Thymic
D. Cutaneous
E. Solitary
```
B. Alimentary
103
Which of the following is a morphologic diagnosis of the spleen?
A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangiosarcoma
C. Chronic multi-focal granulomatous splenitis
D. Focal acute infarct
E. All of the above
C. Chronic multi-focal granulomatous splenitis
104
Order of epi layers- skin
B-S-G-C
105
Calcinosus cutis- T/F May lead to metaplastic bone in skin
T
106
Calcinosus cutis- T/F Mostly in cats
F
107
Calcinosus cutis- most common cause
Iatrogenic Cushings
108
Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Dorsal lumbo sacral
F
109
Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Accompanied by atropic dermatitis
T
110
Calcinosus cutis- Source of lesions
Dystrophic mineralization
111
Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Can be caused by SQ inj of Ca++
T
112
Calcinosus cutis- Distribution
Axilla/groin/dorsal neck
113
TEN- (toxic epidermal necrolysis)- distinguishes it from EM (erythema multiforme)
Has widespread epidermal detachment
114
TEN- Cause
Vasculitis causing ischemia
115
TEN- Type of necrosis
Coagulative
116
Can TEN ulcerate?
Yes
117
Which is not a lesion vasculitis- Thrombosis, ischemia, ulcers, edema, hemorrhage, bullae, atrophy, alopecia, hemorrhage, erythema, necrosis, crust
Bullae
118
Which of these is not a cause of vasculitis- RV, drug rxn, hypersensitivity III, erysipelothrix, hypersensitivity I, Rickettsials, neoplasia
Hypersensitivity I
119
Which of these do not cause nodular to diffuse dermatitis- pythium, atypical mycobacteria, rickettsials, foreign bodies, deep pyodermas, bacterial septicemia, multiple papules, demodex
Rickettsials (vasculitis), bacterial septicemia (vasculitis)
120
Red, white and blue lesions associated with what conditions
Dog food dermatitis, liver failure, DM, Zn deficiency, parakeratosis
121
What should you think of first when you see vesicular or pustular dematitis
Immune destruction (of intercellular adhesions)
122
Skin depigmenting lesions most commonly associated with what (non-cancer)
Interface dermatitis
123
Which condition do Rickettsials cause
Vasculitis
124
Name the mechanisms of vesicle/ bullae formation
BM dmg, hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, immune mediated destruction of intercellular adheasions, spongiosis
125
Alopecia, cutaneous infarcts, cutaneous ulcers, petechial hemorrhage are all lesions associated with what
Gross vasculitis
126
Name 4 causes of SLE
Vasculitis, vesicle/pustular, hydropic degeneration, interface dermatitis
127
What are the ddx for dermatitis with folliculitis/furunculosis
Staph bacterial, demodex, dermatophytes
128
Which cannot cause vesicle
BM dmg, marked acanthosis, hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, immune mediated destruction of intercellular adheasions, spongiosis
129
Name four causes of panniculitis
Vitamin E deficiency, ischemia, pancreatitis, fungi
130
Main lesion of ichthyosis
Hyperkeratosis
131
Which cannot caue bullae/vesicles
Friction, immune- mediated cell to cell adhesion destruction, structural defect of protein in BM zone, immune complex deposition within in walls of dermal vasculature, BM dmg, flea bite hypersensitivity, opportunistic fungi, enzymatic destruction
132
Red white and blue lesions can be caused by all but liver dz, diabetes, insulin secreting islet neoplasm, food allergy dermatitis, parakeratosis
Insulin secreting
133
Which cannot cause folliculitis
Staph, pythium, arthropod bite, dermatophyte, demodex
134
Name the 9 primary lesions
Macule, papule, wheal, vesicle, bulla, pustule, tumor, plaque, nodule
135
Interface dermatitis is caused by all but: dmg to basal layer or epidermis, dmg to some BM component, immune mediated factors, hormones, leukocytes surrounding vessels in superficial dermis, uveodermatologic syndrome
Leukocytes surrounding vessels in superficial dermis (correct would be surrounding derm-epiderm junction), hormones
136
Pemphigous complex dzs are classic examples of what types of lesions
Associated with blistering! Vesicular or pustular; acantholysis, hypopigmentation,
137
PF is what kind of disease, primary and secondary lesions
Autoimmune type II hypersensitivity; acantholysis: pustule --> acantholysis crusts
138
Atrophic dermatosis associated with what most often
Hormonal
139
Characteristics of atrophic dermatosis-
Epidermal, adnexal, varying degree of dermal atrophy, localized ischemia, alopecia- symmetric, comedones, telangiectasia
140
Vasculitis- type of hypersensitivity
III
141
Interface dermatitis can be cahracterized by clefts or vesicles or areas of hyperpigmentation
Clefts or vesicles at epi-derm junction
142
What is the loss of keratinocyte attachment in epidermis or follicular epithelium
Acantholysis
143
What is acanthosis
Hyperplasia of epidermal cells, usually s. spinosum
144
Which of these is notcharacterized by interface dermatitis- PF, SLE, VKH, erysipelothrix, TEN, EM
PF, erysipelothrix
145
Erysipelothrix is associated with
Vasculitis
146
Perivascular dermatitis most associated with
Hypersensitivity- very general condition
147
TEN vs EB difference
Epidermis DEAD in TEN, viable in EB (collagen structural defect)
148
What does PKD effect
Persian cats
149
How is PKD inherited
Autosomal dominant
150
Evidence of PKD renal dysfunction- age
3-10, 7 years fail
151
Pathogenesis of papillary necrosis
NSAIDs inhibits PGE2 which maintains vasodilation, without it, ischemic necrosis of the papillary region of medulla occurs
152
Glomerulonephritis- pathology
Circulating immune complexes have complement which are targeted by neutrophils which release enzymes and free radicals which damage BM leading to compromised filtration barrier. Or Ab can be formed against glomerular BM
153
Describe membranous GN
Thickened basement membrane of glomerulus
154
Describe proliferative GN
Increased number of mesangial cells
155
Shar pei dogs and abyssinian cats predisposed to
Systemic reactive amylodosis
156
Stain histo amyloid, stain gross tissue
Congo red, lugol iodine
157
Bacteria associated with embolic glomerulitiis
Horses- actino. equuli, Cattle: truperella, Pigs- erysipelothrix
158
Ischemic tubular nectosis is caused by
Hypoperfusion or hypotension (shock)
159
BM retention in the two types of tubular necrosis
Ischemic- NO; Toxic- yes
160
Pyelonephritis lesions- describe and location
Suppurative lesion in pelvis (can go totubules?interstitium); mostly medulla
161
Swine kidney worm
Stephanarus dentatus-
162
Dioctophyma renale- describe life cycle and lesion
Fish eating mammals, in fish/frogs, adults live in renal pelvis and destroy the parenchyma- goes from hemorrhagic to suppurative
163
Name 6 non-renal lesions associated with renal failure
Gastric ulcer, ulcerative stomatitis, mineralized intercostal pleura, uremic pneumonitis, parathyroid hyperplasia, anemia
164
Stephanarus dentatus- describe
Swine kidney worm, direct lifestyle, encysts in peri-renal tissue, communicates iwth pelvis and ureter to release eggs to urine
165
Primary tumor of pig kidneys
Nephroblastoma
166
Metabolic causes of recurrent UTI
Cushings, Diabetes, uroliths
167
TCC- location
Bladder neck and trigone
168
Enzootic hematuria cause
Bracken fern
169
Primary renal tumor of cattle
Renal adenocarcinoma
170
TCC- CS
dysuria/stranguria, hematuria, mimic UTI
171
Kidney size in acute renal fail
Enlarged
172
Metabolic acidosis- renal failure type
Acute
173
Primary renal tumor of dogs and cats
Renal adenocarcinoma
174
Potassium in chronic renal failure
normal to decreased (increased in acute)
175
Bracken fern dz, CS
- ENZOOTIC Hematuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder cancer
176
Canine distemper and parvovirus affect on LN
atrophy
177
BLV and FIV effect on LB
megaly
178
Extramedullary Hematopoeisis effect on spleen
Uniform, non-bloody megaly
179
Which pulp? antigen removal
Red (think filtered from blood)
180
Which pulp? acquired immunity
White
181
Malignant catarrhal fever- affect on LN
megaly
182
CID in foals and basset hounds- affect on LN
atrophy
183
Lymphoma- effect on spleen
can be gen/non or nodular/non
184
Thymitis- effect on thymus
Smaller!
185
Splenic infarct- spleen effect
Bloody, nodular
186
Metastatic neoplasm- effect on spleen
non bloody nodular
187
Thymic hemorrhage- effect on thymus
Larger
188
Name bloody nodular spleen conditionS
Splenic infarct, incomplete contraction, Hematoma, hemangioma/sarcoma, hyperemic hyperplasia,
189
Causes of thymic hypoplasia
CID, aging/involution, thymitis
190
Granulomatous splenitis- spleen effect
Nodular non bloody
191
Viral dz, glucocorticoids - effect on thymus
Atrophy
192
Incomplete splenic contraction- spleen effect
Bloody nodular
193
What is a leukemia
neoplasm of lymphocytes and hematopoetic cells from bone marrow
194
Torsion- effect on spleen
bloody, generalized
195
Splenic abscess- spleen effect
Nodular, nonbloody
196
Thymoma vs thymic lymphoma
Thymoma- epithelial cells, no metastasis (Goats); T-lymphoma- tumor made of all neoplasic lymphocytes, metastasizes
197
Cattle lymphoma- type, locations
Multicentric- LN, RA, abomasum
198
B cell lymphoma from
Gamma herpes virus
199
Cause of cattle lymphoma
BLV
200
Bacteremia effect on spleen
Generalized NON bloody
201
Liver blood flow
Portal vein, hepatic artery --> sinusoids --> central/hepatic vein -> CaVC -->RA
202
Bile blood flow
Opposite liver- hepatocytes to canaliculi --> portal vein --> bile ductules --> gall bladder
203
Zones 1-3
Portal, midzonal, centrilobular (periacinar)
204
Intrinsic toxicity-
Substance always toxic
205
Unpredictable toxicity- name
Idiosyncratic toxins
206
Chloroform/CCl4 damage- liver
centrilobular
207
Pyrrolidizine alkaloid damage- liver
periportal
208
Alfatoxins- liver dmg
midzonal
209
Random/multifocal liver damage from
Hematogenous spread
210
Hypoxia pattern of damage
centrilobular
211
Steroid effect on liver
midzonal
212
Toxins that do not need metabolizing - type of damage
periportal
213
Amyloidosis effect on liver
megaly
214
Common older dog liver neoplasia
Hepatic nodular hyperplasia
215
PSS effect on liver
micro
216
CHronic hepatocellular damag with secondary fibrosis- effect on liver
micro
217
Benign neoplasm of hepatocytes
Hepatoma
218
Define hepatocellular carcinoma
Rare, 1 enlarged liver lobe
219
Hepatitis effect on liver
megaly
220
Name three metastasizing liver neoplasms
Biliary carcinoma, lymphosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma
221
Describe the metastasis of biliary carcinoma
To LN and lungs
222
Toxins that require activation will cause what liver damage
centrilobular
223
Serum sickness in horses causes what liver damage
Massive
224
Bone marrow involvement- cattle lymphoma type
Thymic
