Spring 25: Exam 1

Question 1

Radiation quantity refers to radiation _____________.

A. penetrability
B. beam attenuation
C. intensity
D. energy

Answer 1

C. intensity

Question 2

Radiation quality refers to x-ray beam _____________.

A. energy and beam attenuation
B. intensity and filtration
C. filtration and energy
D. energy and penetrability

Answer 2

D. energy and penetrability

Question 3

Radiation quantity is measured in _____________.

A. mGya/mAs
B. half-value layer
C. kVp
D. mAs

Answer 3

A. mGya/mAs

Question 4

Which factors are considered the prime exposure factors?

A. kVp, SID, and SOD
B. mAs, focal-spot size, and filtration
C. mAs, SOD, and filtration
D. kVp, SID, and mAs

Answer 4

D. kVp, SID, and mAs

Question 5

Which factors are considered secondary exposure factors?

A. kVp, mAs, and filtration
B. kVp, focal-spot size, and SOD
C. mAs, SOD, filtration
D. focal-spot size, filtration, and distance

Answer 5

D. focal-spot size, filtration, and distance

Question 6

Which exposure factor controls patient radiation dose?

A. kVp
B. Focal-spot size
C. SID
D. mA

Answer 6

D. mA

Question 7

As mAs increases, x-ray intensity ______________.

A. increases at the same rate
B. decreases at the same rate
C. increases twice as much
D. decreases twice as much

Answer 7

A. increases at the same rate

Question 8

The Square Law states that one can compensate for a change in _____ by changing the mAs by the factor __________.

A. SID; SOD squared
B. SID; inverse of the distance squared
C. SOD; SID squared
D. SOD; inverse of the distance squared

Answer 8

C. SOD; SID squared

Question 9

Radiation quality is measured in _____________.

A. half-value layer
B. mAs
C. mGya/mAs
D. kVp

Answer 9

A. half-value layer

Question 10

Patient factors include which factors?

A. Pathology
B. Body composition
C. Anatomical thickness
D. All of the options

Answer 10

D. All of the options

Question 11

Which group of factors includes kVp, mAs, and SID?

A. Patient factors
B. Image-quality factors
C. Exposure technique factors
D. All of the options

Answer 11

C. Exposure technique factors

Question 12

The ability to image small objects that have high subject contrast is known as ________.

A. exposure technique factors
B. contrast resolution
C. visibility
D. spatial resolution

Answer 12

D. spatial resolution

Question 13

Radiographic technique may be described by identifying which group(s) of factors?

A. Image-quality factors
B. Exposure technique factors
C. Patient factors
D. All of the options

Answer 13

D. All of the options

Question 14

Which group of factors includes anatomical thickness and body composition?

A. Exposure technique factors
B. Patient factors
C. Image-quality factors
D. All of the options

Answer 14

B. Patient factors

Question 15

Which group of factors includes image receptor (IR) response and contrast resolution?

A. Exposure technique factors
B. Image-quality factors
C. Patient factors
D. All of the options

Answer 15

B. Image-quality factors

Question 16

Which group of factors includes grids, focal-spot size, and filtration?

A. Patient factors
B. Exposure technique factors
C. Image-quality factors
D. All of the options

Answer 16

B. Exposure technique factors

Question 17

Which group of factors includes spatial resolution and distortion?

A. Patient factors
B. Image-quality factors
C. Exposure technique factors
D. All of the options

Answer 17

B. Image-quality factors

Question 18

The ability to distinguish between and image similar tissues is known as ________.

A. contrast resolution
B. exposure technique factors
C. spatial resolution
D. visibility

Answer 18

A. contrast resolution

Question 19

Distortion is reduced by positioning the anatomical part of interest in a plane _________ to that of the image receptor.

A. vertical
B. parallel
C. perpendicular
D. upright

Answer 19

B. parallel

Question 20

To obtain a magnified radiograph, the _______ is increased while the ______ is held constant.

A. OID; SID
B. SID; SOD
C. SOD; OID
D. SID; OID

Answer 20

A. OID; SID

Question 21

Destructive condition pathologies include which of the following:

1. Atrophy
2. Emphysema
3. Atelectasis
4. Pneumothorax
5. Pneumonia

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. 1, 2, and 4
f. 2, 3 and 4
g. 2, 3 and 5
h. All of the above

Answer 21

e. 1, 2, and 4

Question 22

Which of the following is an important condition required for technique charts to be effective?

a. All technologists should use the same mAs setting.
b. Equipment must be calibrated to perform properly.
c. The chart should not be revised once it has been used.
d. One technique chart should be used for all radiographic units.

Answer 22

b. Equipment must be calibrated to perform properly.

Question 23

When using AEC with digital imaging systems, assuming all other factors are correct, selecting the minus 2 density on a PA chest image results in __________.

a. increased quantum noise
b. increased brightness in the lung area
c. appropriate brightness in the lung area
d. A and C

Answer 23

d. A and C

Question 24

What type of exposure technique system uses a fixed mAs regardless of part thickness?

a. Manual
b. AEC
c. Fixed kVp
d. Variable kVp

Answer 24

d. Variable kVp

Question 25

AEC devices work by measuring __________. a. radiation that exits the patient b. radiation that is absorbed by the patient c. attenuation of primary radiation by the patient d. radiation leaving the tube

Answer 25

a. radiation that exits the patient

Question 26

Which of the following is a system that allows the radiographer to select a particular button on the control panel that represents an anatomic area and displays a preprogrammed set of exposure factors? a. Anatomically programmed technique b. mAs readout c. Automatic exposure control d. Phototiming

Answer 26

a. Anatomically programmed technique

Question 27

A radiographic technique calls for 82 kVp at 400 mA, 200 ms, and an SID of 90 cm. What is the mAs? a. 8 b. 4 c. 40 d. 80

Answer 27

d. 80

Question 28

When using film-screen, what happens when an outside detector is selected for an AP thoracic spine? a. The spine will be too dark. b. The spine will have excessive contrast. c. The spine will have insufficient density. d. The spine will have insufficient contrast.

Answer 28

c. The spine will have insufficient density.

Question 29

When utilizing technique charts, guessing patient thickness is an appropriate method of measurement. a. True b. False

Answer 29

b. False

Question 30

Once a predetermined amount of radiation is transmitted through a patient to the AEC detector, which of the following occurs? a. The x-ray exposure terminates. b. The x-ray exposure increases. c. The x-ray exposure decreases.

Answer 30

a. The x-ray exposure terminates.

Question 31

A primary goal of an exposure technique chart is to __________. a. extend the life of the x-ray tube b. improve the radiographer’s accuracy c. increase the patient work flow and department throughput d. produce quality images consistently

Answer 31

d. produce quality images consistently

Question 32

The purpose of anatomically programmed techniques is to __________. a. prevent overexposure and underexposure of radiographs, which sometimes happen when AEC is used. b. determine which AEC detectors should be used for a particular examination. c. present the radiographer with a preselected set of exposure factors. d. override AEC when the radiographer has made a mistake in its use.

Answer 32

c. present the radiographer with a preselected set of exposure factors.

Question 33

Why is it important to keep exposure time as short as possible? a. To minimize patient exposure. b. To minimize motion blur. c. To increase work flow. d. To keep the s-value from being to low.

Answer 33

b. To minimize motion blur.

Question 34

An examination requires 78 kVp/150 mAs at 100 cm SID. If the distance is changed to 180 cm, what should be the new mAs setting? a. 486 mAs b. 83 mAs c. 46 mAs d. 270 mAs

Answer 34

a. 486 mAs

Question 35

Radiographic technique charts from books, pamphlets, and manufacturers should not be used as printed. a. True b. False

Answer 35

a. True

Question 36

Which exposure variable is controlled by the automatic exposure control device? a. Seconds b. kVp c. Focal spot size d. mA

Answer 36

a. Seconds

Question 37

The purpose of the backup timer is to __________. a. determine the exposure time that is used. b. produce consistent levels of exposure on all radiographs. c. limit unnecessary x-ray exposure. d. ensure a diagnostic exposure each time AEC is used.

Answer 37

c. limit unnecessary x-ray exposure.

Question 38

Which statement concerning both AEC and anatomically programmed techniques is true? a. The use of both requires the radiographer to be less responsible for accurate centering of the anatomic part. b. The individual judgment and discretion of the radiographer is still necessary when using these systems. c. The skilled use of both requires less knowledge of exposure factors on the part of the radiographer. d. The tasks involved with practicing radiography generally are made more difficult with these systems.

Answer 38

b. The individual judgment and discretion of the radiographer is still necessary when using these systems.

Question 39

How does body habitus affect the selection of technical factors? a. Body habitus has no affect on selection of technical factors. b. The larger the patient or body part, the higher the kVp and mAs will be. c. The larger the patient or body part, the lower the kVp and mAs will be. d. None of these.

Answer 39

b. In general, the larger the patient or body part, the higher the kVp and mAs will be.

Question 40

Which of the following statements about using AEC during digital imaging is true? a. Adjusting the density controls affects the exposure to the IR. b. Adjusting the backup time affects image brightness. c. Adjusting the kVp value affects image brightness. d. Adjusting the mA value affects image brightness.

Answer 40

a. Adjusting the density controls affects the exposure to the IR.

Question 41

Which one of the following statements comparing ionization chamber AEC systems with phototimers is true? a. Ionization chamber systems measure radiation before it interacts with the IR. b. Phototimers measure radiation before it interacts with the IR. c. Ionization chamber systems are accurately called phototimers. d. Phototimers are more modern.

Answer 41

a. Ionization chamber systems measure radiation before it interacts with the IR.

Question 42

When using AEC with digital imaging systems, assuming all other factors are correct, selecting the center chamber on a PA chest image results in __________. a. increased exposure in the lung area. b. increased quantum noise in the image. c. decreased exposure in the lung area. d. appropriate exposure in the lung area.

Answer 42

a. increased exposure in the lung area.

Question 43

How many detectors are typically found in an AEC system? a. Four b. Three c. One d. Two

Answer 43

b. Three

Question 44

The most common cause for repeating images done with film-screen and AEC is inaccurate: a. backup mAs selection b. centering c. alignment of the tube and image receptor d. kVp selection

Answer 44

b. centering

Question 45

Minimum response time refers to __________. a. the shortest exposure time possible when an AEC device is used. b. exposure time minus the amount of time the AEC detectors spend measuring the radiation. c. the difference in exposure times between AEC systems and electronic timers. d. the proper exposure time needed for an optimal exposure when an AEC device is used.

Answer 45

a. the shortest exposure time possible when an AEC device is used.