Standard Operating Procedures Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
How long is a Service Check valid for flight operations?
A
Flight must arrive at destination within 72 clock hours of the last Service Check.
2
Q
What must be verified in the Journey Log Book during an enroute stop?
A
Check if the Ramp Check Completed box is ticked for the calendar day.
3
Q
Who completes the cabin equipment check if no FA is onboard?
A
The Captain or their delegate using the Safety Equipment Checklist (ACF631CS).
4
Q
What checklist must be completed before applying AC electrical power?
A
The Configuration Safety Checklist using the QRH paper checklist if ECL is unavailable.
5
Q
What settings are confirmed during the Establishing Electrical Power checklist?
A
PTU, HYD 3A/3B/2B: AUTO; Gear: DN; Thrust levers: IDLE; ENG RUN: OFF; APU/EXT PWR: As required; EQUIP COOLING: AUTO.
6
Q
How should the APU be started according to SOP?
A
Select START for 3+ sec, allow switch to RUN, wait 5+ sec after APU ON before deselecting EXT power.
7
Q
Who normally performs the Walkaround Check and when?
A
The First Officer performs it before every departure.
8
Q
What must be done before starting the walkaround check?
A
Set PARK BRAKE ON, turn on NAV, LOGO, and WING INSP lights.
9
Q
How is the circuit breaker status verified?
A
Via the CB synoptic page on the INFO system.
10
Q
What is a mandatory safety precaution during the walkaround?
A
Wear reflective vests and stay visible to all vehicle operators.
11
Q
What should be checked on the nosewheel area?
A
Chocks, doors, well, lights, tire wear, nosewheel alignment, oleo, gear pin.
12
Q
What must be confirmed about the thrust reversers during walkaround?
A
They are stowed.
13
Q
How is the crew oxygen system tested?
A
Check flow using PRESS TO TEST lever and emergency flow selector.
14
Q
What document must match the ECL version?
A
The version listed in the TRI. If mismatched, refer to ATBs.
15
Q
When should the Ice Detector test be completed?
A
As part of the cockpit checks using the AVIONIC synoptic page.
16
Q
What must be visually checked on the aircraft structure?
A
Surfaces for damage, leaks, probe condition, antenna, and lights.
17
Q
When must the Preliminary Flight Compartment Check be completed?
A
On the Aircraft First Flight of Day (local time).
18
Q
How is the observer seat oxygen mask tested?
A
PRESS TO TEST lever is pushed and yellow cross confirms flow.
19
Q
What must be confirmed for the oxygen mask emergency flow?
A
Push emergency flow selector; yellow cross must show.
20
Q
What are the requirements for FDRAS testing?
A
Use emergency access code, press EMER ACCESS DENY, confirm locked, then use normal code to open.
21
Q
What should be checked in the On Board Library?
A
QRH, MEL, enroute charts, ASR Forms, reclearance card, and permits must be on board.
22
Q
What must be confirmed during the emergency equipment check?
A
Escape rope, hatch, fire extinguisher, gloves, crash axe, smoke hood, life vests, flashlights.
23
Q
How are crew oxygen masks tested?
A
Check mask seal, flow with PRESS TO TEST, and emergency selector; verify oxygen pressure on EICAS.
24
Q
What must be done if the ECL version does not match the TRI?
A
Refer to ATBs and complete affected checklists manually from ATBs.
25
What are the three types of periodic maintenance checks required for the A220?
Service Check, 'A' Check, and 'C' Check.
26
What is the most frequent periodic maintenance check on the A220?
The Service Check.
27
Which periodic maintenance check is typically more in-depth than a Service Check but less extensive than a 'C' Check?
The 'A' Check.
28
What periodic maintenance check is the most comprehensive on the A220?
The 'C' Check.
29
How long is a Service Check valid for the A220?
Flight must arrive at destination within 72 clock hours of the last Service Check.
30
What must be examined in the Journey Log Book at an en route station stop?
Verify if the Ramp Check Completed box is checked for the current calendar day.
31
When can Aircraft First Flight of Day items be skipped?
If FFOD checks have already been completed earlier in the day.
32
What must be verified regarding the Service Check before flight continuation?
Ensure the Service Check is or will be valid for the flight.
33
What checks must be completed at an en route station stop?
Emergency Equipment Check, Walkaround Check, Cockpit Check, and Preflight Scan.
34
How long is a Service Check valid for the A220?
Flight must arrive at destination within 72 clock hours of the last Service Check.
35
What must be examined in the Journey Log Book at an en route station stop?
Verify if the Ramp Check Completed box is checked for the current calendar day.
36
When can Aircraft First Flight of Day items be skipped?
If FFOD checks have already been completed earlier in the day.
37
What must be verified regarding the Service Check before flight continuation?
Ensure the Service Check is or will be valid for the flight.
38
What checks must be completed at an en route station stop?
Emergency Equipment Check, Walkaround Check, Cockpit Check, and Preflight Scan.
39
What is the purpose of the Configuration Safety and Establishing Electrical Power checklists?
To ensure airplane systems are safe for applying AC electrical power to the aircraft buses.
40
When should the Configuration Safety and Electrical Power checklists be completed?
At enroute stops if AC power has been removed or if there's doubt about safety.
41
Why must the Configuration Safety checklist be completed using the paper version from the QRH?
Because the ECL is not available until the batteries are turned on.
42
Where is the paper Configuration Safety checklist located?
In the Normal Checklists (NC) section of the QRH.
43
What does successful completion of the Configuration Safety checklist ensure?
That there is no danger to the airplane or personnel when applying AC electrical power.
44
What is the purpose of the Configuration Safety and Establishing Electrical Power checklists?
To ensure airplane systems are safe for applying AC electrical power to the aircraft buses.
45
When should the Configuration Safety and Electrical Power checklists be completed?
At enroute stops if AC power has been removed or if there's doubt about safety.
46
Why must the Configuration Safety checklist be completed using the paper version from the QRH?
Because the ECL is not available until the batteries are turned on.
47
Where is the paper Configuration Safety checklist located?
In the Normal Checklists (NC) section of the QRH.
48
What does successful completion of the Configuration Safety checklist ensure?
That there is no danger to the airplane or personnel when applying AC electrical power.
49
When can the Establishing Electrical Power checklist be accomplished using the ECL?
Once DU 2 is powered.
50
What should flight crew avoid doing when the FLT CTRL IN TEST (Advisory) message is displayed on EICAS?
Do not move flight controls or change AC power sources.
51
Where can more information be found regarding the FLT CTRL IN TEST advisory and related procedures?
In the Supplementary Techniques section on Flight Controls – Power Up Built-In Test (PBIT).
52
What is the first step in the APU start sequence?
Select START for a minimum of 3 seconds.
53
What should happen after selecting START for 3 seconds in the APU start sequence?
Allow the switch to return to the RUN position for the APU start.
54
What message appears during the APU start sequence?
The APU IN START status message.
55
How long must you wait after the APU ON message before deselecting External power?
A minimum of 5 seconds.
56
What action should be avoided during the APU start cycle to prevent interruption?
Do not change electrical system configuration (e.g., shutting down an engine or removing external power).
57
What should be done if the APU SHUTDOWN (Advisory) message appears during start?
Set the APU switch to OFF before starting a new cycle.
58
What should the EQUIP COOLING, INLET switch be set to during APU start?
AUTO
59
Who performs the Preliminary Flight Compartment Check and when?
The flight crew, on the Aircraft First Flight of Day (local time).
60
What is checked on the observer seat oxygen mask?
Ensure functionality by using the PRESS TO TEST lever and observing the yellow cross.
61
How is the emergency flow tested for the oxygen mask?
Push the emergency flow selector and verify the yellow cross appears.
62
What is the required setting for the oxygen mask during the check?
100%.
63
What must be verified about the document and elementary work pouches?
They must be sealed, and the document pouch must have a green tag.
64
How many landing gear pins must be on board?
Three.
65
What items must be confirmed in place during the check?
Hand mics.
66
What are the steps for performing the FDRAS test?
Ask crew to enter emergency access code, press EMER ACCESS DENY, confirm the door remains locked, then use normal access code to open the door.
67
When must the Emergency Equipment Check be performed?
When the flight deck is unoccupied for any period of time and on the flight crew's first flight on an aircraft during a duty period.
68
Who is responsible for performing the Emergency Equipment Check?
The flight crew.
69
Where do you check oxygen pressure for dispatch on the A220?
On EICAS, check CREW OXY levels for minimum dispatch pressure (see AOM 1.03.35).
70
What happens to headset microphones when mask stowage boxes are open?
They are inhibited.
71
How do you restore headset microphone function after the oxygen mask doors are closed?
Close the oxygen box doors and press the reset button.
72
Where do you access the Ice Detector test on the A220?
From the AVIONIC synoptic page, select AVIO, TEST − ICE DETECT.
73
What must be confirmed during the Ice Detector test?
Confirm the ICE (Caution) message appears, then confirm DONE is shown.
74
What does the minimum crew oxygen pressure on EICAS indicate?
The amount of oxygen required for an emergency descent and cruise at 10,000 ft, corrected for ambient temperature at 70°F (21°C).
75
What is the minimum oxygen dispatch pressure for 2 crew members in mountain regions?
950 psig.
76
What is the minimum oxygen dispatch pressure for 2 crew members in other regions?
900 psig.
77
What is the minimum oxygen dispatch pressure for 3 crew members in mountain regions?
1300 psig.
78
What is the minimum oxygen dispatch pressure for 3 crew members in other regions?
1200 psig.
79
What must be verified in the FMS regarding the Electronic Checklist (ECL)?
The ECL part number must match the version listed in the TRI.
80
What should be done if the ECL part number does not match the TRI?
Check the ATBs for any updated checklist(s) and accomplish affected checklists from the ATB.
81
Can other ECL and QRH checklists be used if the part number mismatch is found?
Yes, all other ECL and QRH checklists may be used normally.
82
How long should you wait after the previous flight's 'in' event before proceeding with FMS setup?
Wait at least five minutes.
83
What should be checked if there's doubt about the timing after the previous flight's 'in' event?
Check that the data on the FLIGHT PROFILE page has cleared.
84
What must be completed if datalink is unavailable during setup?
The Manual Init Page 1/2 must be completed.
85
What is the function of LSK 6R during FMS setup?
It provides active advisories for SOP-sequenced pages and takes the crew to the appropriate page, removing the active advisory.
86
What message indicates a flight plan has been uploaded to the FMS?
DL FPLN UPLOADED FMS message on the coupled side HSI.
87
Where is the flight plan initially loaded after uplink?
Into the Secondary Flight Plan (SEC).
88
What must be done with the SEC flight plan to complete the uplink process?
It must be selected, Activated, and Executed.
89
When should the FMS source (XFR button on FCP) not be switched?
From the time a flight plan uplink is requested until it is Activated and Executed.
90
How long does a flight plan uplink typically take?
Between 2–5 minutes.
91
What happens if a flight plan uplink is not received within 5 minutes?
The system will timeout, and if the uplink arrives afterward, it will fail, requiring a new request.
92
What tool is normally used by the crew for Take-Off Performance Analysis?
The ACARS WAT take-off performance tool.
93
When should ACARS T/O WAT 'AUTO' selections not be used?
When prohibited by limitations or other requirements such as the MEL or NOTAM.
94
What does the take-off performance tool automatically select?
The appropriate thrust and flap settings to meet accelerate-stop and obstacle clearance requirements.
95
What must be input by the crew for the performance tool to generate results?
Conditions within the required length and 100 ft width being used for take-off.
96
When must the cowl anti-ice system be ON for take-off?
When OAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture is present at or below 1500 ft AGL, or the runway is contaminated.
97
When must the wing anti-ice system be ON for take-off?
When OAT is 5°C or below and visible moisture is present at or below 1500 ft AGL, or the runway is contaminated.
98
What should the crew do if ACARS is not functioning?
Use the PERF Tool in S4A Suite or contact Flight Dispatch for the ACARS T/O WAT REPORT.
99
How is the WAT REPORT delivered if ACARS is unavailable?
It may be sent by Dispatch via the station, providing a printed copy to the crew.
100
What happens if the weight in the WAT request is outside TOW limits?
An ACARS error message 'TOW OUT OF LIMITS. NEW PERFORMANCE REQUIRED' will be sent.
101
Can derated thrust or reduced thrust (FLEX) be used on wet runways?
Yes, if wet runway performance data is used.
102
When is use of derated or FLEX thrust prohibited?
When windshear or downdraft warnings are forecast, anti-skid or autothrottle systems are inoperative, autothrottle is disengaged, or anti-icing is in use.
103
Can FLEX be used from derated takeoff thrust settings (TO-1, TO-2, TO-3)?
No, FLEX from derated takeoff thrust is prohibited.
104
Is FLEX or derated thrust allowed on contaminated runways?
No, both FLEX and derated thrust are not permitted on runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice.
105
What is considered a limitation during a derated thrust take-off?
The take-off thrust setting parameter. Thrust levers should not be advanced.
106
Is derated thrust operation allowed with APR DISARM?
No, it is prohibited.
107
What is the risk of advancing thrust levers during a derated thrust take-off?
It may cause a loss of directional control on the ground, especially after engine failure.
108
Should climb derates be canceled using climb thrust under normal conditions?
No, unless operationally required, as it may lead to long-term engine degradation.
109
What is a derated takeoff on the A220?
A takeoff using a lower certified thrust setting such as TO-1, TO-2, or TO-3.
110
What is a FLEX takeoff on the A220?
A takeoff using reduced thrust calculated by assuming a higher-than-actual OAT.
111
Can derated takeoff be used on contaminated runways?
No, derated thrust is not permitted on runways contaminated with snow, ice, slush, or standing water.
112
Can FLEX takeoff be used when anti-ice is in use?
No, FLEX is not permitted if wing and/or cowl anti-icing are in use.
113
Is it permitted to combine FLEX with derated thrust on the A220?
No, FLEX from TO-1, TO-2, or TO-3 is prohibited.
114
What systems must be operational to use FLEX takeoff?
Autothrottle and anti-skid systems must be operational; FLEX is not allowed if these are inoperative.
115
What is the main advantage of using either derated or FLEX takeoff?
To reduce engine wear and fuel consumption when full thrust is not needed.
116
Can derated thrust takeoff be used with the autothrottle disengaged?
Yes, but FLEX requires autothrottle to be engaged.
117
What is the required position for the L&R GEN and APU GEN switches before power-up?
They must be pushed out with no lights illuminated.
118
How do you confirm that the GEN switches are properly pushed out?
By using a tactile feel to ensure they are in the pushed-out position.
119
How should VHF radios be configured during preflight on the A220?
VHF 1 should be on the left side CTP, and VHF 2 on the right side CTP.
120
What is the requirement for FPV CAGE during any phase of flight?
FPV CAGE must be OFF; it shall not be caged during any phase of flight.
121
What should the HDG setting be during preflight setup?
HDG should be set to MAG (Magnetic).
122
How many Display Units (DUs) should be powered and configured as required during setup?
All five (DU 1 to DU 5).
123
Which display should each crew member have up on their respective DU whenever possible?
A MAP (on DU 2 or DU 3).
124
For ground operations (e.g., pushback and taxi), which map display mode should the Captain use?
The full screen MAP.
125
Where do you select MAP overlay items such as VSD, TERR, TFC, and WX?
From the OVLY dropdown menu.
126
Where do you select MAP symbol items like NEAREST ARPTS, MISSED APPR, RNG, ALT SEL, ETA, SPEED, ALT, etc.?
From the SYMBOL dropdown menu.
127
For RVSM operations, what is the maximum allowable difference between Captain’s and First Officer's altitude display and field elevation?
75 feet.
128
During the RVSM altimeter crosscheck, what does the Captain check and call?
PFD and STBY altimeters.
129
During the RVSM altimeter crosscheck, what does the First Officer check and call?
Their PFD altimeter.
130
What should be used for crosschecking altimeter accuracy during RVSM setup?
Known field elevation.
131
During preflight, what do the Captain and First Officer check and call regarding headings?
Both check and call their HSI headings.
132
When does the Captain call the Standby Compass heading?
On the First Flight of the Day (FFOD) only.
133
What must be verified about the heading indication on the PFD during preflight?
That the heading is in Magnetic, not True (T not displayed on PFD).
134
What must be checked during the rudder trim check?
Ensure the rudder trim operates properly in both left and right directions by observing position indication movement on EICAS.
135
How do you verify the rudder trim 3-second protection?
Confirm that the 3-second trim protection is functioning properly during the rudder trim operation.
136
What trim movements should be selected during the check?
Select both left and right trim directions.
137
Where should the Captain navigate to perform the sidestick check?
FLT CTRL synoptic page.
138
How should the sidestick be moved during the check?
Through the full range in both axes: Aileron Left/Right and Elevator Up/Down.
139
How should the sidestick be released during the check?
From full deflection in roll and from the soft stop in pitch.
140
What visual indicator confirms correct sidestick operation?
The blue dot must move with the sidestick and return to the center of the cross.
141
What must be the state of HYD pumps for the sidestick check?
HYD pumps must be in AUTO or OFF.
142
When should the sidestick check not be performed?
If the FLT CTRL IN TEST (Advisory) message is displayed.
143
What is the general method for FMS programming on the A220?
Use the anticipated route, runway, and SID; verify with OFP and clearance.
144
Who reads and verifies the route, clearance, and performance information?
The PF (Pilot Flying).
145
Who loads the route, clearance, and performance data into the FMS?
The PM (Pilot Monitoring).
146
Which FMS page does NOT need to be executed before moving on?
The PERF DEP page.
147
What procedure is used before executing a change during FMS programming?
The 'CONFIRM / EXECUTE' challenge and response method.
148
What message confirms a successful wind uplink to the FMS?
A DL WINDS PARTIAL UP FMS message on the coupled side HSI.
149
What must pilots do after the DL WINDS PARTIAL UP FMS message is received?
No further pilot action is necessary; winds and temperatures are loaded automatically.
150
What should be done if wind/temp uplink is unavailable?
Manually input winds using information from the OFP.
151
Can FPLN UPLINK and FPLN-WIND/TEMP REQ be selected simultaneously?
No, they cannot be selected at the same time.
152
Which wind data is uplinked to the aircraft by default?
Only cruise level winds; climb and descent winds remain blank and must be manually input if needed.
153
What entry must be made by the PM regarding passengers during setup?
Enter the NUMBER OF PAX.
154
Why is entering the NUMBER OF PAX important in the FMS?
It is used to adjust the bleed schedule.
155
Who should be included in the NUMBER OF PAX entry?
All passengers, including flight attendants.
