Study Guide Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

dermatome

A

area of the skin of the human anatomy that is mainly supplied by branches of a single spinal sensory nerve root. These spinal sensory nerves enter the nerve root at the spinal cord, and their branches reach to the periphery of the body

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2
Q

myotome

A

group of muscles that a single spinal nerve innervates

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3
Q

ecchymosis

A

a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising.

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4
Q

kyphosis

A

spinal disorder in which an excessive outward curve of the spine results in an abnormal rounding of the upper back. The condition is sometimes known as “roundback” or—in the case of a severe curve—as “hunchback.”

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5
Q

lordosis

A

excessive inward curvature of the spine

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6
Q

scoliosis

A

sideways curvature of the spine that occurs most often during the growth spurt just before puberty. While scoliosis can be caused by conditions such as cerebral palsy and muscular dystrophy, the cause of most scoliosis is unknown

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7
Q

heterotopic ossification

A

the abnormal growth of bone in the non-skeletal tissues including muscle, tendons or other soft tissue. When HO develops, new bone grows at three times the normal rate, resulting in jagged, painful joints

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8
Q

osteochondritis defects

A

focal area of damage that involves both the cartilage and a piece of underlying bone. These can occur from an acute traumatic injury to the knee or an underlying disorder of the bone

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9
Q

tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of the fluid-filled sheath (called the synovium) that surrounds a tendon, typically leading to joint pain, swelling, and stiffness

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10
Q

arthritis

A

swelling and tenderness of one or more of your joints. The main symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically worsen with age. The most common types of arthritis are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis

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11
Q

exostosis

A

a benign outgrowth of cartilaginous tissue on a bone

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12
Q

symptom

A

a physical or mental feature which is regarded as indicating a condition of disease, particularly such a feature that is apparent to the patient

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13
Q

sign

A

an object, quality, or event whose presence or occurrence indicates the probable presence or occurrence of something else

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14
Q

hyperesthesia

A

condition that involves an abnormal increase in sensitivity to stimuli of the sense. “When a non-noxious stimulus causes the sensation of pain the area will be termed hyperaesthetic”

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15
Q

anesthesia

A

administration of medication to allow medical procedures to be done without pain, and in some cases, without the patient being aware during the procedure

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16
Q

parathesia

A

n abnormal dermal sensation (e.g., a tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, or numb sensation on the skin) with no apparent physical cause. The manifestation of a paresthesia may be transient or chronic, and may have any of dozens of possible underlying causes

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17
Q

disclocation

A

joint disclocated not put back

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18
Q

subluxation

A

dislocated but pt back on own

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19
Q

cubital valgum

A

edical deformity in which the forearm is angled away from the body to a greater degree than normal when fully extended. A small degree of cubitus valgus (known as the carrying angle) is acceptable and occurs in the general population.

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20
Q

cubital varum

A

deformity of a limb in which part of it is deviated towards the midline of the body) is a common deformity in which the extended forearm is deviated towards midline of the body

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21
Q

cubital recurvatum

A

forarm bent backwards

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22
Q

genu valgum

A

knee bent out

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23
Q

genu varum

A

knee bent in

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24
Q

genu recurvatum

A

knee bent backwards

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25
insidious
proceeding in a gradual, subtle way, but with harmful effects
26
atrophy
of body tissue or an organ) waste away, especially as a result of the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution.
27
hypertrophy
the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells
28
hyperplasia
common preneoplastic response to stimulus. Microscopically, cells resemble normal cells but are increased in numbers. Sometimes cells may also be increased in size
29
hypoplasia
underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ. Although the term is not always used precisely, it properly refers to an inadequate or below-normal number of cells
30
stress (injury)
micro trauma over time
31
torsion force
twisting
32
shear force
body part goes in opposite direction
33
compression force
presses inward on an object
34
tensile force
resistance of a material to a force tending to tear it apart,
35
sprain
stretching or tearing of ligament
36
strain
tearing or stretching of muscle or tendon
37
neuropraxia
peripheral nerve injury, and is known as the mildest form of nerve injury. It is classified as a transient conduction block of motor or sensory function without nerve degeneration, although loss of motor function is the most common finding
38
neurotmesis
most serious nerve injury in the scheme. In this type of injury, both the nerve and the nerve sheath are disrupted. While partial recovery may occur, complete recovery is impossible
39
axonotmesis
njury to the peripheral nerve of one of the extremities of the body. The axons and their myelin sheath are damaged in this kind of injury, but the endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium remain intact.
40
What type of muscle condition accompanies an exaggerated lumbar lordosis – think cross pelvic (or lower-crossed) syndrome?
swayback
41
What are the five different Salter-Harris fractures?
``` Type 1: complete separation of epiphysis in relation to metaphysis w/o fx to the bone  Type 2: separation of growth plate and a small portion of the metaphysis  Type 3: fracture of the epiphysis  Type 4: fracture of a portion of epiphysis and metaphysis  Type 5: Crushing force, no displacement – risk of avascular necrosis ```
42
List and define the three periods of bone growth
formative- 5th-12th wk growth- til puberty consolidation- puberty to adulthood
43
List and describe the two different ossification centers of long bones including how each affects the bone growth
primary- from both ends of diaphysis | secondary- epiphyses
44
Know the different between implied and informed consent.
1
45
When does an on-the-field injury evaluation begin?
when injury occurs
46
Know the different components of a musculoskeletal assessment including the order in which they are performed and what is examined in each of the components.
HOPS H-SAMPLE S-OPQRSTI
47
What is a contraindication for performing ROM?
disruptive to healing process
48
What is a malingering athlete?
fabrication, intentional production, or significant exaggeration of physical or psychological symptoms or the intentional misattribution
49
In normal healthy tissue, which has the greatest ROM: AROM, PROM or RROM?
passive
50
What are the components of the manual muscle grading scale?
1
51
What is the difference between resistive ROM and manual muscle testing?
mmt is used in rehab to evaluate contractile units
52
Know the different physiological end-feel and what they mean.
1
53
What are some reasons you should have a venue-specific Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?
it goes for the facility and the people who work there will know the plan in detail. it works with the facility
54
What are the different components that should be included in an EAP?
emergency personnel and roles equipment and designates responsibility how to activae
55
HOPS
History Observation Palpation Special Tests
56
SAMPLE
``` Symptoms allergies medications previous medical history last oral intake events leading up to cc ```
57
OPQRSTI
``` onset provokes quality radiating symptoms severity time interventions ```
58
What type of stress tests are performed during an on-field evaluation? Which ones are not done during on-field evaluations?
for suspicions | only uniplanar tests
59
What are the four principles of splinting and why do we do each one?
leave how you found it | above and below joint
60
When is it okay to allow an athlete to participate in pain? (this is the hurt versus injured thought-process)
1
61
During an acute injury, what is your primary concern when taking care of an unconscious athlete?
breathing and heartbeat
62
Differentiate the components of an on-field versus off-field evaluation.
1
63
What are the three elements of evidence-based practice?
best research evident clinical expertise patient values
64
What is the difference between inter-rater and intra-rater reliability?
intra-youself | inter-everyone
65
What is sensitivity and specificity? Be able to distinguish and interpret both.
sensitivity-positive tp/tp+fn specificity-negative tn/tn+fp
66
What is a gold standard?
highest diagnostic accuracy
67
What does false positive, false negative, true positive and true negative mean?
1
68
What is a likelihood ratio and how do you interpret it?
1
69
What is efficacy as it related to a protocol?
1
70
What type of muscle contraction is the most damaging to muscle fibers?
eccentric
71
Know the grading scales for sprains and strains.
1
72
When is heterotopic ossification first detectable on a x-ray?
10-14 days
73
How do you prevent heterotopic ossification?
make sure deep muscle bruises heal properly
74
What type of x-ray is used to determine an injury to the acromioclavicular joint?
1
75
How is a bone scan performed?
Uses radionuclide which shows up on radiography to | show excessive bone activity
76
What diagnostic test is done to determine the function of motor and sensory nerves (this is not checking dermatomes, myotomes or DTRs)?
nerve conduction study
77
What diagnostic imaging test is best used to evaluate a torn glenoid labrum?
MRI
78
What is an isometric muscle contraction? Isotonic? Isokinetic?
isom-stays same lenght isot- isok-constant speed
79
What is the general term for the muscles that primarily function to support the body against gravity? What muscles are included in this group?
postural muscles
80
Know the three different body types: ectomorph, endomorph and mesomorph.
em- skinny guy edm- fat stores mm- more muscle
81
Describe the placement of a plumb line and how it would be aligned with the body for someone with good posture
1
82
What are the two landmarks used to determine leg length discrepancies?
ASIS | medial mallelus
83
Be able to describe the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) Model of Disablement.
1