superduperpyschopathology

Question 2

What are the criteria for delusional disorder?

Answer 2

1. 1 or more delusions that have occurred for greater than one
   month?
2. No marked impairment in functioning except for effects of
   delusion.

Question 3

A poor prognosis for people with schizophrenia is least associated with which of the following?

A. female gender

B. anosognosia

C. early age of onset

D. predominantly negative symptoms

Answer 3

a. female gender

Question 4

The most likely diagnosis for a client who had auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech for five weeks and odd behaviors and anhedonia for an additional seven months is:

A. major depressive disorder with psychotic features.

B. schizophreniform disorder.

C. schizoaffective disorder.

D. schizophrenia.

Answer 4

d. schizophrenia
the key part of his question is seven months, as schizophreniform is 1 month to 6 months, and there is no mood component.

Question 5

A person who abuses an amphetamine or other ________-enhancing drug may develop symptoms similar to those associated with schizophrenia.

A. ACh

B. dopamine

C. serotonin

D. GABA

Answer 5

b. dopamine

Drugs that amp you up get you dopamine.

Dopamine hyperactivity in the subcortical regions has been associated with positive symptoms.

Question 6

A high level of expressed emotion by family members toward patients with schizophrenia has been linked to:

A. caregiver burnout.

B. substance use by the patient.

C. a better prognosis.

D. an increased risk for relapse.

Answer 6

d. an increased risk of relapse

Basically, expressed emotion means high-emotion shitheads who are not sympathetic.

Question 7

As reported by I. I. Gottesman (1991), the concordance rate for schizophrenia is about ___% for monozygotic twins and ____% for dizygotic twins.

A. 50; 30

B. 50; 25

C. 48; 24

D. 48; 17

Answer 7

d. 48; 17

The key point is that there is a large discrepancy

Question 8

A reformulated version of the dopamine hypothesis proposes that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are due to:

A. dopamine hyperactivity in certain subcortical areas.

B. dopamine hypoactivity in certain subcortical areas.

C. dopamine hyperactivity in certain cortical areas.

D. dopamine hypoactivity in certain cortical areas.

Answer 8

d. dopamine hypoactivity in certain cortical regions.

this is tricky remember it’s hyper in subcortical for positive symptoms
its hypo for negative in cortical

Question 9

A person whose biological mother and father have both received a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about _____ times more likely to receive the same diagnosis as a person whose only biological relative with schizophrenia is his or her non-twin sibling.

A. 50

B. 16

C. 5

D. 2

Answer 9

c. 5

Question 10

Which of the following is considered the most effective antipsychotic drug for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?

A. haloperidol

B. chlorpromazine

C. clozapine

D. risperidone

Answer 10

c. clozapine

It is the first-line drug of choice

Question 11

Schizoaffective disorder is likely to be the appropriate diagnosis for a client if her psychotic symptoms have:— Tell me also about the diagnosis

A. always occurred with concurrent mood symptoms.

B. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her psychotic symptoms were absent.

C. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.

D. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least one month when her mood symptoms were absent.

Answer 11

c. occurred concurrently with mood symptoms except for a period of at least two weeks when her mood symptoms were absent.

Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive or manic episode for most of the duration of the illness but with the presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks without mood symptoms.

so basically, it’s like schizophrenia
-symptoms occur concurrently for more than a month
-duration greater than six months
-5 symptoms
1. hallucinations 2. delusions 3. grossly disorganized speech of behaviour 4. catatonic behaviour 5. negative symptoms.
must have 2, one must be in the top 3
plus a major manic depressive episode occurring concurrently
-but there must be a period of at least two weeks where you have no mood, but you get delusions or hallucinations.

Question 12

What are the diagnosis criteria for psychosis?

Answer 12

must have at least one of the following for a period greater than one day but less than a month
1. delusions
2. hallucinations
3 grossly disorganized speech or behaviour
4. catatonic behavior

Question 13

What are the diagnosis criteria for schizophreniform

Answer 13

Must have two of the following, and one must fall in the top 3
-must occur for a period greater than one month and duration less than six months.
1. delusions
2. hallucinations
3 grossly disorganized speech or behaviour
4. catatonic behavior
5. negative symptoms

Question 14

What is the diagnosis for schizophrenia

Answer 14

Must have two of the following, and one must fall in the top 3
-must occur for over one month and duration greater than six months.
1. delusions
2. hallucinations
3 grossly disorganized speech or behaviour
4. catatonic behavior
5. negative symptoms

Question 15

What is the best prognosis for schizophrenia

Answer 15

1. female
2. late onset
3. comorbid mood symptoms
4. positive symptoms
5. insight
6. other factors

Question 16

What is the diagnosis for intellectual disability, and how is it done?

Answer 16

1. clinical assessment and testing
2. Two or more standard deviations from the norm.

Question 17

In terms of cause, what is the primary cause in 85 percent of known cases. for ID

Answer 17

pre-natal in particular
Fragile X and downs syndromes

Question 18

ASD diagnosis?

Answer 18

1. deficits in social communication
2. deficits in social interaction
3. restrictive or repetitive behaviours.

Question 19

ASD best prognosis?

Answer 19

1. functional language by 5
2. lack of comorbidity
   3 IQ greater than 70

Question 20

ADHD, tell me about the diagnosis.

Answer 20

1. six or more symptoms of inattentive or hyperactivity
2. onset before the age of 12
3. across more than 2 contexts
4. can be inattentive, hyper, or combined.

Question 21

ADHD tell me about treatment?

Answer 21

For the preschool, littles we have parent training and behavioural intervention

for middle school, you have meds and behavioural intervention

for adults, you have meds and CBT

Question 22

ADHD: what is the greatest risk for adulthood?

Answer 22

Substance abuse?

Question 23

tic disorder: diagnosis

Answer 23

one or more motor or vocal tic
-before age of 18
-persistent greater than a year
-provisional less than a year

Question 24

tics onset

Answer 24

4-6
Peaks 10-12

Question 25

Tourettes diagnosis

Answer 25

At least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics.

Question 26

The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires an onset of symptoms before ____ years of age.

A. 7

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Answer 26

c. 12

Question 27

Neuroimaging studies have linked ADHD to a:

A. larger-than-normal entorhinal cortex.

B. smaller-than-normal entorhinal cortex.

C. larger-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

D. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

Answer 27

D. smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex.

Question 28

For a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder, the client must have which of the following?

A. at least one motor tic and one vocal tic.

B. at least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics.

C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.

D. multiple motor tics and multiple vocal tics.

Answer 28

C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.

Question 29

When assigning a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of intellectual disability to a child, the level of severity of the disorder is determined by considering the child’s:

A. adaptive functioning.

B. socioemotional functioning.

C. full-scale IQ score.

D. adaptive functioning and full-scale IQ score.

Answer 29

A. adaptive functioning.

Question 30

The most common comorbid disorder for specific learning disorder is:

A. major depressive disorder.

B. ADHD.

C. social anxiety disorder.

D. oppositional defiant disorder.

Answer 30

B. ADHD.
unless its psychosis or a biggy the answer is probably ADHD

Question 31

Which of the following is most associated with a better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder?

A. an IQ over 55

B. a sudden onset of symptoms

C. functional language skills by age five

D. brief duration of active-phase symptoms

Answer 31

C. functional language skills by age five

Question 32

The most effective intervention for children with childhood-onset fluency disorder is likely to be which of the following?

A. overcorrection

B. habit reversal training

C. stimulus control

D. stress inoculation training

Answer 32

B. habit reversal training

Question 33

ASD: what is the deal from a brain perspective

Answer 33

1. accelerated brain growth
2. too much serotonin flooding the brain.

Question 34

ADHD, what are the neurotransmitters associated

Answer 34

1. dopamine
2. norepinephrine

Question 35

ADHD’s most common comorbidity

Answer 35

ODD

Question 36

communication disorder diagnosis, treatment

Answer 36

Deficits in language, speech, and communication. Included in this category is childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering)
-habit reversal

Question 37

LD diagnosis

Answer 37

at least six months
reading, writing, math, most common dyslexia

Question 38

all personality disorders must have a duration of greater than a year what is the one that can’t be diagnosed until 18 years of age.

Answer 38

anti-personality disorders

Question 39

Cluster A(odd or eccentric) personality disorders include

Answer 39

1. paranoid
   2 schizoid
2. schizotypal

Question 40

Cluster B(dramatic, emotional, erratic) include

Answer 40

1. antisocial
2. borderline
3. histrionic
4. narcissistic

Question 41

Cluster C (anxiety, fear) includes

Answer 41

1. avoidant
2. dependent
3. obsessive-compulsive

Question 42

Paranoid personality disorder describe?

Answer 42

A pattern of distrust and suspiciousness
involves interpreting the motives of others as malevolent by four of seven symptoms:
-others are exploiting, harming, or deceiving him/her; is preoccupied -unjustified doubts about the loyalty and trustworthiness of others; is -reluctant to confide in others;
-reads demeaning content into benign remarks or events; -persistently bears grudges; perceives attacks on his/her character -quick to react with anger or a counterattack
-suspicious without justification about the fidelity of his/her spouse or sexual partner.

Question 43

Schizoid personality disorder describe?

Answer 43

Detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings with at least four of seven symptoms:
doesn’t desire or enjoy close relationships,
-almost always chooses solitary activities,
-has little or no interest in sexual relationships,
-takes pleasure in few activities,
-lacks close friends or confidants other than first-degree relatives, -appears to be indifferent to praise or criticism
-emotionally cold or detached or has a flat affect.

-social they don’t care

Question 45

Schizotypal Personality Disorder describe?

Answer 45

-pattern of social and interpersonal deficits involving acute discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships, distortions in cognition and perception, and eccentricities in behavior as indicated by at least five of nine symptoms.

-they feel weird around others, but no desire to do anything

Question 46

A person with __________ personality disorder is most likely to say she’d like to have friends but doesn’t spend time with people because she thinks she’s “not as good as other people” and fears that they’ll criticize and reject her.

A. avoidant

B. schizoid

C. borderline

D. histrionic

Answer 46

a. avoidant

Question 47

Emotion dysregulation has been identified by Linehan (1993) as a cause of which of the following personality disorders?

A. histrionic

B. borderline

C. antisocial

D. dependent

Answer 47

b. borderline

Question 48

The DSM-5 diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder cannot be assigned to a person who is less than _____ years of age.

A. 12

B. 15

C. 18

D. 21

Answer 48

c. 18

Question 49

Which of the following is the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis when a young man says he prefers being alone, doesn’t have any close friends, isn’t bothered by the negative things his co-workers sometimes say about him, and thinks he’s “pretty stable” because he rarely experiences strong positive or negative feelings when he’s around other people?

A. schizoid

B. schizotypal

C. paranoid

D. avoidant

Answer 49

a. schizoid

Question 50

A client is frequently late for therapy sessions and often avoids answering the therapist’s questions during sessions. A practitioner of dialectical behavior therapy would describe these behaviors as:

A. psychological reactance.

B. therapy-interfering behaviors.

C. emotional resistance.

D. a dialectical impasse.

Answer 50

b. therapy interfering behaviors

Question 51

Which of the following best describes obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they’re more pervasive in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B. Both disorders involve obsessions and compulsions, but they’re of a longer duration in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

C. Only obsessive-compulsive personality disorder involves mood-incongruent obsessions.

D. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions.

Answer 51

D. Only obsessive-compulsive disorder involves true obsessions and compulsions.

Question 52

Except for antisocial personality disorder at what age, and what is the rule for diagnosis

Answer 52

under 18 if symptoms have been present for over 1 year.

Question 53

Briefly describe borderline personality disorder

Answer 53

pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity as indicated by at least five of nine symptoms:
Engages in frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, has a pattern of unstable and intense interpersonal relationships that involve fluctuations between idealization and devaluation,
has an identity disturbance that involves a persistent instability in sense of self, is impulsive in at least two areas that are potentially self-damaging, has made recurrent suicide threats or gestures or engages in self-mutilating behavior, exhibits affective instability, experiences chronic feelings of emptiness, exhibits inappropriate intense anger, has transient stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms.

Question 54

What is the treatment for borderline?

Answer 54

Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), which is a type of cognitive-behavior therapy. It’s based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is due to emotion dysregulation, which is the result of a combination of biological and environmental factors.

Question 55

What is histrionic personality disorder

Answer 55

Think needy, overly emotional Karen’s who are superficial attention whores, who crave nurturance.

Question 56

What is a narcissistic personality disorder?

Answer 56

pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy as indicated by at least five of nine symptoms: has a grandiose sense of self-importance; is preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited success, power, beauty, and love; believes he/she is unique and can be understood only by special or high-status people; requires excessive admiration; has a sense of entitlement; is interpersonally exploitative; lacks empathy; is often envious of others or believes others are envious of him/her; exhibits arrogant behaviors and attitudes.

Question 57

What is avoidant personality disorder?

Answer 57

Think scared and unworthy.
social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation with at least four of seven symptoms: avoids occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact due to fear of criticism, disapproval, or rejection; is unwilling to get involved with people unless certain of being liked; shows restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of being ridiculed; is preoccupied with concerns about being criticized or rejected in social situations; is inhibited in new relationships because of feelings of inadequacy; views self as socially inept, unappealing, or inferior to others; is usually reluctant to engage in new activities because they may be embarrassing.

Question 58

What is dependent personality disorder?

Answer 58

Think scared of being alone, can’t do it on my own
Pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior and a fear of separation as indicated by at least five of eight symptoms: has difficulty making everyday decisions without advice and reassurance from others, needs others to assume responsibility for most areas of his/her life, avoids disagreeing with others due to fear of losing support or approval, has difficulty doing things alone, goes to excessive lengths to obtain nurturance and support, feels uncomfortable or helpless when alone, urgently seeks another relationship for care and support when a close relationship ends, is unrealistically preoccupied with fears of being left to care for him/herself.

Question 59

What is obsessive personality disorder?

Answer 59

Think of a rules and routines freak
A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control that severely limits flexibility, openness, and efficiency as indicated by at least four of eight symptoms: is preoccupied with details, rules, and schedules so the major point of an activity is lost; shows perfectionism that interferes with task completion; is excessively devoted to work and productivity to the exclusion of leisure activities and friendships; is overly conscientious, scrupulous, and inflexible about morality, ethics, or values; is unable to discard worn-out or worthless objects even when they don’t have sentimental value; is reluctant to delegate work to others unless they’ll do it his/her way; adopts a miserly spending style toward self and others; shows rigidity and stubbornness.

Question 60

Erectile disorder diagnosis?

Answer 60

Occurs for six months or more, 75% of the time.

Question 61

Treatment for erectile dysfunction?

Answer 61

Sensate focus, which is a gradual exposure therapy to reduce anxiety.

Question 62

Premature ejaculation treatment?

Answer 62

Sensate focus plus a SSRI or serotonin
diagnosis is Occurs for six months or more, 75% of the time.

Question 63

Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder diagnosis?

Answer 63

Diagnosis Occurs for six months or more, and hurts being penetrated.

Question 64

Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder Treatment?

Answer 64

Exercise, sensate focus

Question 65

Female Orgasmic Disorder Treatment?

Answer 65

CBT, sensate, masturbation

Question 66

Gender dysphoria: two models of care?

Answer 66

The dutch protocol blockers at 16 surgery at 18
the gender affirmation model which means if it’s 6 months of age then go for it.

Question 67

In terms of gender affirmation care, who does better?

Answer 67

well, the bullshit non-current evidence of APA says that it’s better aftercare and males do better.

Question 68

Paraphillic disorder treatment?

Answer 68

CBT and covert reconditioning(adverse reconditioning) and orgasmic reconditioning.

Question 69

Tell me all about paraphillic disorders.

Answer 69

Doing fucked up shit that gets you off.

1. Frotteuristic Disorder: rubbing up against non-consenting people
2. Transvestic Disorder: cross-dressing to get off.
3. Pedophilic Disorder: getting off on kids being 13 or under, and you have to be 16 or older.
4. Fetishistic Disorder: sex doll, couch.
5. Exhibitionistic Disorder: exposing oneself to non-consenting.

Question 70

Diagnosis for ODD?

Answer 70

1. angry/irritable
2. argumentative/defiant
3. vindictive
   4 loses temper, angry, resentful, annoys others, blames others.
   Greater than six months, 4 or more characteristics and in 30 percent of cases of conduct disorder, more males.

Question 71

Diagnosis for Conduct disorder?

Answer 71

At least 3 characteristics in 12 months, and one symptom in the past six months-violates rights of others and social norms
1. aggression to people and animals
2. destruction of property
3. deceitfulness or theft
4. serious violation of rules
-3 subtypes
1. child and adolescent under 10 and level mild/moderate and severe.

Question 72

Diagnosis for Intermittent explosive disorder?

Answer 72

-recurrent behavioural outbursts due to failure to control aggressive impulses
one of the following
1. verbal or physical aggression twice weekly for three months, no damage
2. three outbursts in 12 months that have caused damage
-must be non-proportional
must be six or older.

Question 73

Etiology conduct disorder?

Answer 73

-multiple biological and environmental factors
e.g. neurotransmitters, prenatal exposure to drugs, and bad parenting.
1. serotonin and dopamine are linked to increased aggression, reduced sensitivity to punishment, and increased risk-taking behaviours.
-cortisol and cardio response do not go up during stress.
-poorer coordination between emotional and physical
-

Question 74

Moffit describes types of antisocial behaviour in relation to CD. What are they?

Answer 74

1. life-course persistent type–which begins in childhood, think environmental and biological.
2. adolescence type— which is temporary and due to maturity gap.

Question 75

List the treatment types for conduct disorder that are parent-focused and describe them.

Answer 75

1. Parent-focussed interventions–age 2-18, teach better parenting.
2. kazdins parent management training operant conditioning reinforcing the right thing it’s best when combined with PSST
3. parent-child interaction therapy- (2-7) modify parent-child interactions and teach positive parent interactions.

Question 76

Describe child-focused intervention for Conduct disorder?

Answer 76

1. child-focussed(problem-solving skills training)—problem-solving
   skills, allows them to understand and feel, and problem-solve

Question 77

Describe family-focused intervention for conduct disorder?

Answer 77

functional family therapy
age 11-18
has an externalizing behaviour disorder and/or substance use problem or is at high risk for delinquency.
multidimensional family therapy
age 11-21
has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency.

Question 78

Does scared straight work?

Answer 78

Nope it actually makes things worse

Question 79

Why would one have multisystemic interventions for conduct disorder?

Answer 79

It’s for those 12-18 at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems.
-problematic behaviours are the result of multiple risk factors at individual, family, peer, school, and community levels and interventions must be provided at all levels.
-equally effective for all types.

Question 80

The treatment for a young man who has just received a diagnosis of a paraphilic disorder is most likely to include which of the following?

A. overcorrection and habit reversal training

B. habit reversal training and covert sensitization

C. orgasmic reconditioning and systematic desensitization

D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

Answer 80

D. covert sensitization and orgasmic reconditioning

Question 81

A young man who has just received a diagnosis of frotteuristic disorder is sexually aroused when he fantasizes about:

A. dressing in woman’s clothing.

B. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person.

C. a non-genital body part.

D. watching other people having sex.

Answer 81

B. rubbing up against a nonconsenting person.

Question 82

Which of the following is most likely to be an effective pharmacological treatment for premature ejaculation?

A. an MAOI

B. an SSRI

C. a beta-blocker

D. an anti-seizure medication

Answer 82

B. an SSRI

Question 83

Which of the following is considered to be the first-line treatment for female orgasmic disorder?

A. sensate focus

B. start-stop technique

C. orgasmic reconditioning

D. directed masturbation

Answer 83

D. directed masturbation

Question 84

To assign a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of pedophilic disorder to a client, the client must be at least _____ years old.

A. 20

B. 18

C. 16

D. 14

Answer 84

C. 16

Question 85

The development of sensate focus by Masters and Johnson (1970) was based on their assumption that most sexual problems are related to:

A. performance anxiety.

B. communication deficits.

C. dissatisfaction with sexual partners.

D. exposure to sexual trauma.

Answer 85

A. performance anxiety.

Question 86

What is PICA and diagnosis?

Answer 86

Pica involves persistent eating of non-nutritive, nonfood substances (e.g., paper, paint, coffee grounds) for at least one month that’s inappropriate for the person’s developmental level and is not a culturally or socially acceptable practice.

Question 87

What is anorexia nervosa and diagnosis?

Answer 87

This disorder involves a restriction of energy intake that causes a significantly low body weight for the person’s age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health.
1. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat or engage in behavior that interferes with weight gain
2. fucked up perspective on their weight, health, etc.
-measure by severity, in remission, or partial
-comorbidity, depression, anxiety, ocd
-can be binge-eating/purging, or starving.

Question 88

What is bulimia nervous diagnosis?

Answer 88

-recurrent episodes of binge eating that are accompanied by a sense of a lack of control, inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise), and self-evaluation that’s excessively influenced by body shape and weight. For the diagnosis, binge eating and compensatory behavior must occur at least once a week for three months or more.

**usually in normal weight range unlike anorexia nervosa

Question 89

What is enuresis?

Answer 89

which involves repeated voiding of urine into the bed or clothing, with urination either occurring two or more times a week for at least three consecutive months or causing significant distress or impaired functioning.

Question 90

treatment for enuresis?

Answer 90

-bed wetting alarm
-aniduretic hormone desmopressin

Question 91

Diagnosis for insomia disorder?

Answer 91

-dissatisfaction with sleep quality or quantity that’s associated with one or more of three symptoms: difficulty initiating sleep; difficulty maintaining sleep; early-morning awakening with an inability to return to sleep. For the diagnosis, the sleep disturbance must occur at least three nights a week, have been present for at least three months,

Question 92

Diagnosis for narcolepsy?

Answer 92

-an irrepressible need to sleep that causes sleep or daytime naps at least three times a week for three months or more. The diagnosis requires episodes of cataplexy (loss of muscle tone), hypocretin deficiency, or a rapid eye movement latency of 15 minutes or less as determined by nocturnal sleep polysomnography.

Question 93

Diagnosis for non-rapid movement sleep arousal disorders?

Answer 93

include sleepwalking and sleep terrors, which involve recurrent episodes of incomplete awakening from sleep that usually occur during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

Question 94

What is nightmare disorder?

Answer 94

Repeated occurrences of extended, extremely dysphoric, and well-remembered dreams that usually involve efforts to avoid threats to survival, security, or physical integrity. Nightmares usually occur during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep in the second half of a major sleep period.

Question 95

tell me about treatment for anorexia nervousa?

Answer 95

1. get to a healthy weight and address health concerns.
2. get them into treatment
3. identify goals.
   4 identify problems
4. CBTE
5. family support
6. address relapse
   ****not motivated to change

drugs that help include
antipsychotic olanzapine for getting weight
SSRT fluoxetine weight maintenance.

Question 96

treatment for bullimia nervousa

Answer 96

similar to anorexia
1. FBT outpatient
2. CBTE
3. fluoxetine
CBT and SSRI (fluoxetine is the best)
in person is better than telepsychology for treatment outcomes

Question 97

treatment for Sleep disorder?

Answer 97

multi-component cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates stimulus control or sleep restriction with sleep-hygiene education, relaxation training, and/or cognitive therapy

Question 98

Treatment for binge eating?

Answer 98

CBTE is the best
meds work but CBTE is the best and combining them don’t help
meds include fluoxetine, paroxetine, setraline.

Question 99

treatment for narcolepsy?

Answer 99

1. good sleep habits, taking daytime naps, and staying active.
2. meds that increase dopamine levels and serotonin (amphetamines and other psychostimulants)

Question 100

The presence of which of the following is required for a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

A. an apparent lack of interest in eating and food

B. recurrent episodes of binge-eating and purging

C. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat

D. extreme sensitivity to the sensory characteristics of food

Answer 100

C. an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat

Question 101

When the retrospective subjective reports of people with insomnia disorder about their sleep are compared to objective measures, the subjective reports tend to:

A. underestimate their sleep latency and overestimate total time they sleep each night.

B. underestimate their sleep latency and total time they sleep each night.

C. overestimate their sleep latency and underestimate total time they sleep each night.

D. overestimate their sleep latency and total time they sleep each night.

Answer 101

C. overestimate their sleep latency and underestimate total time they sleep each night.

Question 102

For a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, a person must exhibit characteristic symptoms for at least:

A. three weeks.

B. three months.

C. six weeks.

D. six months.

Answer 102

B. three months.

Question 103

The treatment of insomnia disorder ordinarily includes which of the following?

A. positive practice or sleep restriction

B. positive practice or habit reversal training

C. stimulus control or overcorrection

D. stimulus control or sleep restriction

Answer 103

D. stimulus control or sleep restriction

Question 104

Hypnopompic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur:

A. immediately before an episode of REM sleep.

B. immediately after an episode of REM sleep.

C. just after awakening from sleep.

D. just before falling asleep.

Answer 104

C. just after awakening from sleep.

Question 105

Sleepwalking and sleep terrors usually occur:

A. during Stage 1 or 2 sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.

B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

C. during REM sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.

D. during REM sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

Answer 105

B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

Question 106

When assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder, severity is determined by considering which of the following?

A. number of conduct problems

B. number of conduct problems and severity of harm to others

C. degree of guilt and empathy

D. number of conduct problems and degree of guilt and empathy

Answer 106

B. number of conduct problems and severity of harm to others

Question 107

According to Moffitt (1993), which of the following explains the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior?

A. a maturity gap

B. developmental delays

C. an adverse child-rearing environment

D. adolescent egocentrism

Answer 107

A. a maturity gap

Question 108

The symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are grouped in DSM-5 into three categories that include all of the following except:

A. argumentative/defiant behavior.

B. vindictiveness.

C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.

D. angry/irritable mood.

Answer 108

C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.

Question 109

A pattern of emotional dysregulation is characteristic of:

A. oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.

B. oppositional defiant disorder.

C. conduct disorder.

D. neither oppositional defiant disorder nor conduct disorder.

Answer 109

B. oppositional defiant disorder.

Question 110

The DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the last _____ months and at least one symptom in the last _____ months.

A. 6; 3

B. 12; 3

C. 12; 6

D. 18; 6

Answer 110

C. 12; 6

Question 111

Your new client’s aggressive behaviors seem to meet the diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder. To assign this diagnosis to the client, he must be at least _____ years old.

A. four

B. six

C. nine

D. twelve

Answer 111

B. six

Question 112

Which of the following therapies is based on Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model and is for adolescents 12 to 18 years of age who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems?

A. multidimensional family therapy

B. multisystemic therapy

C. parent-child interaction therapy

D. functional family therapy

Answer 112

B. multisystemic therapy

Question 113

What are the criteria for separation anxiety disorder?

Answer 113

3 of 8 symptoms
4 weeks for a child
6 months for an adult
-inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from attachment figures
-often develops after a stressful event.

Question 114

treatment of separation anxiety and co-morbidity’s

Answer 114

-school refusal
-CBT and parent training, which is best when combined together.

Question 115

Social anxiety disorder diagnosis-treatment?

Answer 115

Fear or anxiety reaction to at least one social situation in which the person may be exposed to scrutiny by others.
-at least six months
-CBT the best no difference between it and telepsychology.
-cognitive restructuring and exposure
CBT and SSRI first line of defence
-

Question 116

What is a panic disorder?

Answer 116

-Recurrent unexpected panic attacks with at least one attack being followed by one month or more of persistent concern about additional attacks or their consequences and/or a significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the attack.
-four of 13 symptoms: e.g., heart palpitations, sweating, nausea or abdominal distress, dizziness, fear of losing control or “going crazy,” fear of dying, paresthesia, derealization or depersonalization(surreal feeling).

Question 117

Treatment for panic disorder?

Answer 117

-CBT introceptive exposure—-deliberately exposing the person to the physical symptoms associated with panic attacks by, for example, having the person run in place, spin in a circle, or breathe through a straw.
-antidepressants work but have a high relapse rate when used alone.

Question 118

Agoraphobia diagnosis?

Answer 118

-fear or anxiety that occurs in at least two of five situations: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being in a crowd, and being outside the home alone
-six or more months
-fear is based upon the idea that if trouble comes, there is no way to get help or help would be unavailable.

Question 119

Describe some therapy ways to deal with fear.

Answer 119

-In vivo exposure: Directly facing a feared object, situation or activity in real life. For example, someone with a fear of snakes might be instructed to handle a snake, or someone with social anxiety might be instructed to give a speech in front of an audience. (can be grades or non-graded_
-Imaginal exposure: Vividly imagining the feared object, situation or activity. For example, someone with Posttraumatic Stress Disorder might be asked to recall and describe his or her traumatic experience in order to reduce feelings of fear.
-Virtual reality exposure: In some cases, virtual reality technology can be used when in vivo exposure is not practical. For example, someone with a fear of flying might take a virtual flight in the psychologist’s office, using equipment that provides the sights, sounds and smells of an airplane.
-Interoceptive exposure: Deliberately bringing on physical sensations that are harmless, yet feared. For example, someone with Panic Disorder might be instructed to run in place in order to make his or her heart speed up, and therefore learn that this sensation is not dangerous.

Question 120

Diagnosis for specific phobia?

Answer 120

-Intense fear of or anxiety about a specific object or situation accompanied by avoiding the object or situation or enduring it with intense distress.
-six or more months
-onset usually 10 twice as common in girls than boys
-

Question 121

Explain Mowrers two-factor theory regarding phobias

Answer 121

-it’s based upon classical and operant conditioning.

Question 122

What is the gold standard for the treatment of phobia’s

Answer 122

exposure and response prevention

Question 123

Which therapy for phobia’s is the best.

Answer 123

-Graded vs non graded(flooding) flooding may be better but client’s are more comfortable with graded.
-vr is the same as real
-in vivo is better than introceptive.
-Applied tension can be really helpful in terms of fainters.

Question 124

What is the diagnosis for GAD?

Answer 124

-Excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events or activities that occur on most days for at least six months.-three of the symptoms.

Question 125

What is going on in the brain for GAD?

Answer 125

Reduced connectivity between regions of the prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate cortex and the amygdala

Question 126

Treatment for GAD

Answer 126

CBT and SSRI
combined treatment best, CBT, SSRI, Motivational interviewing

Question 127

OCD diagnosis?

Answer 127

-Current obsessions and/or compulsions that are time-consuming (consume more than one hour each day) and/or cause significant distress or impaired functioning:
-90% have and anxiety or depression co-morbidity.

Question 128

OCD treatment?

Answer 128

CBT exposure therapy relapse prevention, in combination with an SSRI

Question 129

OCD-neurotransmitter?

Answer 129

-lower level of serotonin elevated levels in the caudate nucleus, orbitofrontal cortex.

Question 130

Body dysmorphic disorder diagnosis?

Answer 130

-a preoccupation with a perceived defect or flaw in physical appearance that’s not observable or appears to be minor to other people.

Question 131

The DSM-5 diagnosis of agoraphobia requires:

A. a duration of symptoms for at least 12 months.

B. a history of at least one expected or unexpected panic attack.

C. marked fear or anxiety in at least two different situations.

D. a fear of being negatively evaluated.

Answer 131

C. marked fear or anxiety in at least two different situations.

Question 132

The most common comorbid psychiatric disorder for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

A. a depressive or bipolar disorder.

B. an anxiety disorder.

C. a substance use disorder.

D. an impulse control disorder.

Answer 132

B. an anxiety disorder.

Question 133

A DSM-5-TR diagnosis of separation anxiety requires a duration of symptoms of at least __________ for children and adolescents and __________ for adults.

A. 2 weeks; one month

B. 4 weeks; three months

C. 4 weeks; six months

D. 6 weeks; four months

Answer 133

C. 4 weeks; six months

Question 134

Interoceptive exposure involves:

A. exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack.

B. exposing the individual in virtual reality to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

C. having the individual use applied relaxation during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

D. having the individual use applied tension during exposure to stimuli that elicit a panic attack.

Answer 134

A. exposing the individual to bodily sensations associated with a panic attack.

Question 135

Bill has just received a diagnosis of specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type. The most effective treatment for Bill is likely to be exposure and response prevention and:

A. a beta-blocker.

B. an anxiolytic.

C. applied relaxation.

D. applied tension.

Answer 135

D. applied tension.

Question 136

The treatment-of-choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is which of the following?

A. systematic desensitization

B. exposure and applied relaxation

C. exposure and response prevention

D. covert desensitization

Answer 136

C. exposure and response prevention

Question 137

Data from the Global Burden of Disease study indicate that which of the following is the most common mental disorder worldwide?

A. anxiety disorders

B. alcohol use disorder

C. schizophrenia

D. depression

Answer 137

A. anxiety disorders

Question 138

Research comparing the effectiveness of guided internet-delivered cognitive behavior therapy (iCBT) and face-to-face cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) as a treatment for adults with social anxiety disorder has found that:

A. guided iCBT is significantly more effective than face-to-face CBT in terms of symptom reduction.

B. face-to-face CBT is significantly more effective than iCBT in terms of symptom reduction.

C. guided iCBT and face-to-face CBT are essentially equivalent in terms of symptom reduction.

D. guided iCBT and face-to-face CBT are essentially equivalent in terms of symptom reduction only for adults with mild symptoms.

Answer 138

C. guided iCBT and face-to-face CBT are essentially equivalent in terms of symptom reduction.

Question 139

As described in the DSM-5-TR, the symptoms of a panic attack include all of the following except:

A. exaggerated startle reaction.

B. heart palpitations or an accelerated heart rate.

C. derealization or depersonalization.

D. fear of losing control.

Answer 139

A. exaggerated startle reaction.

Question 140

Which of the following would be most helpful for confirming that the correct DSM-5-TR diagnosis for a client is agoraphobia?

A. The client’s anxiety occurs in situations that remind him of the traumatic event that preceded the onset of his symptoms.

B. The client’s anxiety occurs only in unfamiliar situations or with unfamiliar people.

C. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being negatively evaluated by others.

D. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms.

Answer 140

D. The client’s anxiety is related to a fear of being unable to get help if he develops panic-like symptoms.

Question 141

Delirium what is it and diagnosis?

Answer 141

think delirious
(A) a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period of time (often hours to a few days), represents a change from baseline attention and awareness and tends to fluctuate in severity over the course of the day plus
(b) at least one additional disturbance in cognition (e.g., a memory or language impairment).

Question 142

What type of drugs may reduce delirium?

Answer 142

antipsychotics such as halperidol

Question 143

What is a major and mild neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 143

-Cognitive dysfunction that’s acquired rather than developmental.
-a significant decline from a previous level of functioning in one or more cognitive domains

Question 144

Alzheimer’s disease account for what percentage of NCD?

Answer 144

60-80 percent

Question 145

Diagnosis for Alzeimer’s?

Answer 145

1. meets criteria for NCD
2. insidious onset and gradual decline, 1 cognitive domain for mild, 2 for major.
3. related to a causative genetic mutation.
4. often related to chromosomal mutation.

Question 146

Prevalence rate for Alzheimer’s?

Answer 146

1. women higher than men
2. blacks, Hispanics, and whites.

Question 147

Causes of Alzheimer’s?

Answer 147

linked to chromosomal, neurotransmitter, and brain abnormalities

Question 148

Neurotransmitter associated with Alzheimer’s?

Answer 148

Reduced acetylcholine (ACh) and excessive glutamate are both known to be involved in learning and memory.

Question 149

Brain abnormalities with Alzeimer’s?

Answer 149

Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, which disrupt cell-to-cell communication

Question 150

What sense loss is associated with Alzeimer’s?

Answer 150

Rapid deterioration in the sense of smell during a period of normal cognition predicts the subsequent development of mild cognitive impairment or Alzheimer’s disease, with greater olfactory loss associated with greater cognitive impairment.

Question 151

List the treatment for Alzheimer’s?

Answer 151

-Cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine are used to reduce or stabilize memory loss, confusion, and other cognitive symptoms.
-Cholinesterase inhibitors include donepezil and rivastigmine and delay the breakdown of ACh, while memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and regulates glutamate activity.
-CBT
-atidepressants to reduce depression and anxiety
-antipsychotics to reduce aggression.
-

Question 152

Neurocognitive Disorder with Lewy Bodies?

Answer 152

its due to build up of protein in lewy bodies.

Question 153

What is the difference between NCD due to lewy bodies and alzheimer’s?

Answer 153

In LEWY the prominent early cognitive symptoms are deficits in complex attention and visuospatial and executive functions
In Alzheimer’s, the prominent early cognitive symptoms are deficits in learning and memory.

Question 154

Vascular neurognitive disorder are consistent with what?

Answer 154

stroke or other cerebrovascular event or by a prominent decline in complex attention and executive functioning; and there’s evidence of cerebrovascular disease from the individual’s history, a physical exam, or neuroimaging

Question 155

Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV Infection: diagnosis?

Answer 155

Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV Infection:
-damage to subcortical areas of the brain and include forgetfulness, impaired attention and concentration, cognitive slowing, psychomotor retardation, clumsiness, tremors, apathy, and social withdrawal.

Question 156

neurocognitive disorder due to Prion disease diagnosis?

Answer 156

The criteria for major or mild NCD, symptoms have an insidious onset followed (in most cases) by a very rapid progression of impairment, and symptoms include motor features associated with prion disease, or there’s biomarker evidence of the disease (e.g., characteristic lesions on an MRI). The most common type is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

Question 157

Frontotemporal Neurocognitive Disorder onset?

Answer 157

earliest onset prior to 65.
-however, does not have significant impact on learning, memory, or perceptual motor functioning.
different variants.
behavior, language,

Question 158

Identifying the temporal sequence of the onset of motor and cognitive symptoms is most useful for distinguishing between NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and:

A. NCD due to HIV infection.

B. NCD with Lewy bodies.

C. NCD due to prion disease.

D. vascular NCD.

Answer 158

B. NCD with Lewy bodies.

Question 159

The DSM-5 requires the presence of which of the following for a diagnosis of delirium?

A. disorientation to time and place

B. impaired attention and awareness

C. a perceptual disturbance

D. impaired memory

Answer 159

B. impaired attention and awareness

Question 160

Beth, a 68-year-old retired physician exhibits impaired attention and judgment, seems disoriented, and has short-term memory loss that she doesn’t seem to be aware of. Her husband tells you that she “just hasn’t seemed the same” for the past year or so and that the changes he’s noticed have occurred gradually. Beth’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?

A. major depressive disorder (pseudodementia)

B. persistent depressive disorder

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

D. neurocognitive disorder due to Prion’s disease

Answer 160

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

Question 161

Early memory loss associated with NCD due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of which of the following in the hippocampus, cortex, and basal forebrain?

A. epinephrine

B. norepinephrine

C. GABA

D. ACh

Answer 161

D. ACh

Question 162

Which of the following is not one of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the behavioral variant of frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder?

A. dietary changes

B. loss of empathy

C. ataxia

D. apathy

Answer 162

c. ataxia, which means
condition that affects muscle coordination and can cause clumsy movements, balance problems, speech difficulties and more

Question 163

Research has found that, on the Revised NEO Personality Inventory, people with Alzheimer’s disease often obtain:

A. high scores on neuroticism and conscientiousness.

B. low scores on neuroticism and conscientiousness.

C. high scores on neuroticism and low scores on conscientiousness.

D. low scores on neuroticism and high scores on conscientiousness.

Answer 163

C. high scores on neuroticism and low scores on conscientiousness.

Question 164

Neurocognitive disorders that are due to prion disease most often have a:

A. very rapid progression of impairment.

B. gradual and steady progression of impairment.

C. stepwise progression of impairment.

D. fluctuating course with plateaus of impairment.

Answer 164

A. very rapid progression of impairment.

Question 165

reactive attachment disorder diagnosis?

Answer 165

(a) a persistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers as demonstrated by a lack of seeking or responding to comfort when distressed
(b) persistent social and emotional disturbances that include at least two of the following: minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others; limited positive affect; unexplained irritability, sadness, or fearfulness when interacting with adult caregivers.
history of extreme insufficient care that is believed to be responsible for the person’s symptoms
-onset of symptoms must have been before 5 years of age, and the person must have a developmental age of at least nine months.

Question 166

Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder diagnosis?

Answer 166

-persistent pattern of behavior that’s characterized by inappropriate interactions with unfamiliar adults as demonstrated by at least two of four symptoms:
reduced or absent reticence in approaching or interacting with strangers, overly familiar behavior with strangers, diminished or absent checking with adult caregivers after being separated from them, willingness to accompany a stranger with little or no hesitation.

Question 167

PTSD diagnosis?

Answer 167

-symptoms greater than one month
-distress or impaired functioning
-due to exposure
4 types, avoidance, intrussion-intrusive thoughts, negative changes in mood or cognition, alterations in arousal and activity.

Question 168

What brain abnormalities have been linked with PTSD?

Answer 168

-Hyperactive amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex
-hypoactive ventromedial prefrontal cortex, and a reduced volume of the hippocampus
-reduced activity in the ventromedial prefrontal that reduces inhibitory top-down control of the amygdala, resulting in an exaggerated fear response
-

Question 169

What neurotransmitters have been associated with PTSD?

Answer 169

Increased levels and activity of dopamine, norepinephrine, and glutamate and decreased levels and activity of serotonin and GABA (Sherin & Nemeroff, 2011).

Question 170

Treatment for PTSD?

Answer 170

CBT, exposure therapy, EMDR, ART

Question 171

What are the treatment outcomes for PTSD for telepsychology and in-person?

Answer 171

Relatively the same. but the therapeutic alliance is unknown.

Question 172

What are the drugs recommended for PTSD?

Answer 172

SRIs fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline and the SNRI venlafaxine.

Question 173

acute stress disorder diagnosis?

Answer 173

-exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation.
-The person must also have at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance, arousal), and symptoms must have lasted for three days to one month and cause significant distress or impaired functioning.

Question 174

prolonged grief disorder diagnosis?

Answer 174

exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation. The person must also have at least nine symptoms from any of five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance, arousal), and symptoms must have lasted for three days to one month and cause significant distress or impaired functioning.

Question 175

Dissociative amnesia diagnosis?

Answer 175

nability to recall important personal information that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness and causes significant distress or impaired functioning.
types:
-selective
-sytematized
-continuous

Question 176

somatic symptom disorder diagnosis?

Answer 176

Excessive thoughts, emotions, or behaviors related to the symptom(s) or associated health concerns as indicated by the presence of at least one of the following: -disproportionate or persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the symptoms, a persistently high level of anxiety about health or symptoms, excessive time and energy spent on health concerns or symptoms. Specifiers are used to indicate if symptoms are mild, moderate, or severe, involve predominant pain, and are persistent (are severe, have caused marked impairment, and have lasted more than six months).e severe, have caused marked impairment, and have lasted more than six months).

-physical symptoms

Question 177

Illness Anxiety Disorder:

Answer 177

a preoccupation with having a serious illness with no or mild somatic symptoms, excessive anxiety about health, and either excessive health-related behaviors or avoidance of health care. Symptoms must be present for at least six months, although the nature of the symptoms may vary over time.

-no physical symptoms

Question 178

Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder (Conversion Disorder):

Question 179

Factitious Disorder diagnosis?

Answer 179

-factitious disorder imposed on self and factitious disorder imposed on another. Individuals with factitious disorder imposed on self falsify or induce physical or psychological symptoms that are associated with a deception (e.g., ingestion of a drug to produce abnormal lab results). They present themselves to others as being ill or impaired and engage in the deception even when there’s no obvious external reward for doing so. Factitious disorder imposed on another has the same symptoms except that they’re induced in another person (often in a child by his/her mother).

Question 180

What is malingering?

Answer 180

consciously faking for a reason of externalized reward, test of memory malingering will indicate as real memory loss is cloudy, and they think clues can help malingering will not.

Question 181

To assign a DSM-5-TR diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), symptoms must have a duration of more than:

A. seven days for adults and adolescents and 14 days for children.

B. 14 days for adults, adolescents, and children.

C. one month for adults and adolescents and two months for children.

D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children.

Answer 181

D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children.

Question 182

Which of the following is likely to be the least effective treatment for an adult with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A. cognitive behavioral therapy

B. psychological debriefing

C. cognitive processing therapy

D. prolonged exposure therapy

Answer 182

B. psychological debriefing

Question 183

A DSM-5-TR diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are:

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

B. being intentionally produced, faked, or exaggerated in terms of severity.

C. related to exposure to a traumatic event.

D. incompatible with any known medical condition.

Answer 183

A. accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Question 184

A six-year-old child of divorced parents experiences abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea whenever she stays with her mother but has no symptoms when she stays with her father or other relative. This situation is most suggestive of:

A. functional neurological symptom disorder.

B. malingering.

C. factitious disorder.

D. somatic symptom disorder.

Answer 184

C. factitious disorder.

Question 185

Neuroimaging studies have linked PTSD to:

A. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and amygdala

B. increased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and amygdala

C. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala

D. increased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and decreased activity in the amygdala.

Answer 185

C. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala

Question 186

Peter Lewinsohn’s model of depression is based on the principles of:

A. operant conditioning.

B. classical conditioning.

C. systems theory.

D. psychodynamic theory.

Answer 186

A. operant conditioning.

Question 187

Barton, a 20-year-old college sophomore, has come to therapy at the urging of his parents who are concerned about recent changes in his behavior. Barton tells you that, in the last six months, he’s experienced several periods in which he feels tired all the time despite sleeping more than usual, has trouble concentrating while reading for his classes and studying for exams, has low energy, and has no appetite. He says that each of the times he’s felt this way lasted for two or three weeks. The presence of which of the following will confirm a diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Barton?

A. recurrent suicidal ideation with a specific plan

B. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities

C. feelings of guilt about past failures

D. slowed speech and thinking

Answer 187

B. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities

Question 188

Which of the following best describes the likely effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on memory when it is used as a treatment for severe depression?

A. Anterograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than retrograde amnesia.

B. Retrograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than anterograde amnesia.

C. ECT will produce transient anterograde amnesia but will not cause retrograde amnesia.

D. ECT will produce transient retrograde amnesia but will not cause anterograde amnesi

Answer 188

B. Retrograde amnesia caused by ECT will be more persistent than anterograde amnesia.

Question 189

Which of the following symptoms is least useful for distinguishing bipolar disorder from ADHD in children and adolescents?

A. irritability

B. decreased need for sleep

C. hypersexuality

D. flight of ideas

Answer 189

A. irritability

Question 190

Your new client, a 29-year-old physician’s assistant, describes experiencing alternating periods of hypomania that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and periods of depression that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. To assign the diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder, the client must have experienced these symptoms for at least:

A. 6 months.

B. 1 year.

C. 18 months.

D. 2 years.

Answer 190

D. 2 years.

Question 191

Ketamine has been found most useful for treating:

A. manic episodes.

B. atypical depression.

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern.

D. treatment-resistant depression.

Answer 191

D. treatment-resistant depression.

Question 192

Which of the following best describes rates of depression for males and females?

A. The rates of depression for females are twice as high as the rates for males in childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.

B. The rates of depression for males are twice as high as the rates for females in childhood, but the rates for females are higher in adolescence and adulthood.

C. The rates of depression for males and females are similar during childhood but the rates for females are higher in adolescence and adulthood.

D. The rates of depression for males and females are similar during childhood, but the rates for males are higher in adolescence and adulthood.

Answer 192

C. The rates of depression for males and females are similar during childhood but the rates for females are higher in adolescence and adulthood.

Question 193

A higher-than-normal level of melatonin has been linked to which of the following?

A. bipolar I disorder

B. bipolar II disorder

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

D. major depressive disorder with peripartum onset

Answer 193

C. major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern

Question 194

As a treatment for major depressive disorder, _______ has the highest response and remission rates and fastest time to remission.

A. CBT

B. rTMS

C. ECT

D. SSRI

Answer 194

C. ECT

Question 195

Research has found that the experience of depression is associated with:

A. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

C. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hyperactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

D. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

Answer 195

B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

Question 196

What is a manic episode?

Answer 196

It is abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and increased activity or energy for at least one week.

It includes three or more characteristic symptoms.

1. inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
2. decreased need for sleep
3. flight of ideas
4. marked impairment in functioning
5. a need for hospitalization to avoid harm to self or others
6. and/or the presence of psychotic features

Question 197

what is a hypomanic episode?

Answer 197

-It’s less severe than manic.
-no psychotic features, or possible harm or hospitalization
three or more symptoms.
-at least 4 days.
1. inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
2. decreased need for sleep
3. flight of ideas
4. marked impairment in functioning

Question 198

What is the diagnosis for major depressive disorder?

Answer 198

The diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires five or more symptoms of a major depressive episode for at least two weeks.
-with at least one symptom being depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure in most or all activities.
symptoms
1. depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day, sad, hopeless, in children and adolescents, it can be an irritable mood.
2. marked diminished interest or pleasure in most or all activities.
3. significant weight loss, or gain
4. insomnia or hypersomnia(excessive sleeping)
5. psychomotor agitation or retardation
6. fatigue or energy loss
7. feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt.
8. diminished ability to think
9. recurrent thoughts of death, suicidal ideations.

Question 199

What is the diagnosis of persistent depressive disorder?

Answer 199

-Requires a depressed mood with two or more characteristic symptoms (e.g., poor appetite or overeating, insomnia or hypersomnia, feelings of hopelessness) for at least two years in adults or one year in children and adolescents.
3. significant weight loss or gain
4. insomnia or hypersomnia(excessive sleeping)
6. fatigue or energy loss
7. feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt.
8. diminished ability to think
9. feelings of hopelessness.

Question 200

bipolar considers what episodes?

Answer 200

manic
hypomanic
depressive

Question 201

What is disruptive mood dysregulation disorder diagnosis?

Answer 201

-disruptive mood dysregulation disorder requires the presence for at least 12 months (a) severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are verbal and/or behavioural, are grossly out of proportion to the situation or provocation, and occur three or more times each week; and
(b) a persistently irritable or angry mood that is observable to others most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

Question 202

Diagnosis of Bipoloar I?

Answer 202

bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode that may or may not have been preceded or followed by one or more major depressive or hypomanic episodes.

Question 203

Bipolar II diagnosis?

Answer 203

bipolar II disorder requires at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode.

Question 204

Cyclothymic disorder diagnosis?

Answer 204

Cyclothymic disorder requires numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and numerous periods of depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode.
-The minimum duration of symptoms for cyclothymic disorder is two years for adults -or one year for children and adolescents.

Question 205

suicide rate in order from race, gender, age?

Answer 205

males(75) much higher than females(45)
-race —native, white, hispanics, blacks, asians,
overall whites-45-54
others-25-34
asians 85+

Question 206

bipolar and adhd explain in terms of differential diagnosis?

Answer 206

Lots of overlap so look at what does not overlap.

AGE 7-16 elation, grandiosity, flight of ideas/racing thoughts, decreased need for sleep, and hypersexuality

AGE adults. manic episodes are typically characterized by a euphoric, elevated, or irritable mood; increased self-esteem or grandiosity; distractibility caused by thought acceleration; and a decreased need for sleep, usually without physical discomfort

Question 207

Etiology or cause of bipolar disorder?

Answer 207

-Bipolar disorder has been linked to heredity, neurotransmitter and brain abnormalities.
-strong heredity twins studies have .67-1 for mono and .2 for dizygotic
-neurotransmitters include norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and glutamate
-abnormalities have been found in several areas of the brain, including the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, hippocampus, and basal ganglia.

Question 208

What is the treatment for bipolar disorder?

Answer 208

-psychosocial interventions and pharmacotherapy
-(such as psychoeducation, interpersonal and social rhythm therapy, CBT, family focussed therapy)
——Lithium prescribed drug of choice
-anticonvulsants and anti-psychotics most effective for atypical BPD
-(atypical being, weight gain, increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, interpersonal rejection sensitivity)

Question 209

What are the rates of depression e.g. male, female?

Answer 209

male vs female childhood the same
-adolescent females increase.
-in adulthood, females increase even more.
(why you ask) hormones in puberty tighten females, but deaden males.

Question 210

What are the risk factors for major depressive disorder
AGE
CULTURE?

Answer 210

AGE
-in younger adult depression is linked to genetics, life events, problems, cognition
-they also refer to affective (mood)
-in older adults it has been linked to illness, social isolation, decreased physical functioning.
-they refer to somatic symptoms, cognition, loss of interest in activities.
CULTURE
Western it’s psychological.
Non-western, it’s somatic.

Question 211

Major Depressive disorder co-morbidity?

Answer 211

1. substance abuse (alcohol)
2. anxiety disorder
3. personality disorder
4. sleep disorder
5. linked to heart disease, Parkinsons

Question 212

Etiology or cause of major depressive disorder?

Answer 212

Heredity; neurotransmitter, hormone, and brain abnormalities; and cognitive and behavioural factors.
–some heredity as indicated in twin studies a .3-.5 vs .2 to .3 correlation not crazy high.
—Neurotransmitters, low levels of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine.
—hyperactivity in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis-hypersecretion of cortisol
—high levels of activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) and abnormally low levels of activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (dlPFC)

Question 213

Models to explain the etiology of major depressive disorder?

Answer 213

—–Lewinsohn’s social reinforcement theory
states that depression is caused by removing positive reinforcement from the environment. Certain events, such as losing your job, induce depression because they reduce positive reinforcement from others (e.g., being around people who like you).
—–Seligman’s learned helplessness model
According to Seligman’s learned helplessness theory, depression occurs when a person learns that their attempts to escape negative situations make no difference.
——Beck’s cognitive theory
(Beck’s triad, schema’s and faulty thinking)

Question 214

Treatment of Major depressive disorder?

Answer 214

-no difference between psychotherapy and pharmacology.
-however they are better when combined together.
children—-no evidence to support or recommend
Youth—-CBT or IPTA (interpersonal therapy for adolescents)
(fluoxetine is the drug of choice)
Adults—drugs are SSRI or SNRI and/or psychotherapy
(therapies include CBT, Mindfullness based, interpersonal therapy, behavioral therapy, and psychodynamic)
—OLDER adults CBT or IPT, and second-gen anti-depressant.

Question 215

St. John’s wort for depression; what is that all about?

Question 216

ketamine for depression what is that all about?

Answer 216

Ketamine has been found to be effective as a fast-acting treatment for treatment-resistant depression (TRD) and suicidal ideation.

Question 217

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for depression: what is that all about?

Answer 217

Has been shown to have a high success rate when used to treat severe depression but is ordinarily used only when other treatments have not been effective or when the severity of symptoms requires a quick treatment response (e.g., when the individual is at high risk for suicide).

Question 218

What does ECT therapy for depression do to memory?

Answer 218

That it causes both anterograde amnesia (an inability to form new memories after ECT) and retrograde amnesia (an inability to recall events that occurred before ECT)

Question 219

What is Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) for depression?

Answer 219

It uses a magnetic field to stimulate the left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. Not as good as ECT but does not cause problems.

Question 220

Compare telepsychology to in-person for depression?

Answer 220

It’s the same.

Question 221

What are common specifiers for depression?

Answer 221

1. peripartum onset–during pregnancy or the four weeks after delivery
   —treatment CBT, setrolin but you have to be careful
2. seasonal pattern–symptoms include hypersomnia, overeating, weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates. linked to a lower-than-normal level of serotonin and a higher-than-normal level of melatonin.

Question 222

Substance use disorder diagnosis?

Answer 222

a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems.
-2 or more characteristics within a 12 month period.

Question 223

Which commonly used substance drug is not included as a disorder?

Answer 223

Caffeine.

Question 224

What is a substance-induced disorder?

Answer 224

These disorders include
1.substance intoxication
2. substance withdrawal
3. substance/medication-induced mental disorders (e.g., substance-induced depressive disorder, anxiety disorder, major neurocognitive disorder, withdrawal delirium).
In addition, hallucinogen-induced disorders include hallucinogen persisting perceptual disorder.

Question 225

What is alcohol intoxication?

Answer 225

-problematic behavioral and psychological changes (e.g., inappropriate sexual or aggressive behavior, mood lability, impaired judgment)
-with at least 1 of 6 symptoms:
- slurred speech, incoordination, unsteady gait, nystagmus, impaired attention or memory, stupor or coma.

Question 226

Alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

Answer 226

two of eight symptoms that develop within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of heavy and prolonged alcohol use:
1. autonomic hyperactivity
2. hand tremor
3. insomnia
4. nausea or vomiting
5. transient hallucinations or illusions
6. anxiety
7. psychomotor agitation–unintentional and purposeless motions and restlessness,
8. generalized tonic-clonic seizures. (grand mal seizures).

Question 227

Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder diagnosis?

Answer 227

significant decline in one or more cognitive domains that interferes with independence in everyday

-Korsakoff syndrome, which has been linked to a thiamine deficiency and involves anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation.

Question 228

What are the signs of opioid intoxication?

Answer 228

-initial euphoria followed by apathy or dysphoria and impaired judgment) plus pupillary constriction and the development of at least one of three symptoms during or shortly after opioid use: drowsiness or coma, slurred speech, impaired attention or memo
-can occur with or without hallucinations.

Question 229

Opiod withdrawl symptoms?

Answer 229

dysphoric mood, nausea or vomiting, muscle aches, diarrhea, yawning, fever, insomnia.

Question 230

signs of stimulant intoxication?

Answer 230

-Euphoria or affective blunting, hypervigilance, interpersonal sensitivity, anxiety or anger, impaired judgment)
-and the development of at least two of nine symptoms during or shortly after stimulant use: tachycardia or bradycardia, pupillary dilation, elevated or lowered blood pressure, perspiration or chills, nausea or vomiting, weight loss, psychomotor agitation or retardation, respiratory depression or cardiac arrhythmia, seizures or coma.

Question 231

Signs of stimulant withdrawl?

Answer 231

dysphoric mood and at least two of five physiological changes that develop within a few hours to several days after cessation of prolonged stimulant use:
-fatigue, vivid and unpleasant dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation.

Question 232

Signs of tobacco withdrawl?

Answer 232

four of seven symptoms that develop within 24 hours of abrupt cessation or reduction of the use of tobacco: irritability, anger or anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood.

Question 233

What is Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder?

Answer 233

-reexperiencing at least one of the perceptual symptoms that were experienced while intoxicated with LSD or other hallucinogen, with symptoms causing significant distress or impairment

Question 234

What is the general treatment model for substance-related disorders?

Answer 234

-treatment ordinarily includes individual, family, and/or group interventions and medication.

Question 235

What therapies are commonly used for substance-related disorders?

Answer 235

-cognitive behavioral therapy, motivational interviewing, contingency management, family behavior therapy, the community reinforcement approach, personalized normative feedback, text messages, relapse prevention therapy, and 12-step facilitation

Question 236

What therapeutic approach is best for substance-abuse-related disorders?

Answer 236

Combined e..g therapy and meds.

Question 237

What is Community Reinforcement Approach (CRA), or CRAFT for substance-abuse-related disorders?

Answer 237

based on the principles of operant conditioning and “helps people arrange their lifestyles so that healthy, drugfree living becomes rewarding and thereby competes with alcohol and drug use”
-The program works with a significant other to help influence the addict into making positive rewarding changes.
-the f is the involving of family

Question 238

Voucher-Based Reinforcement Therapy (VBRT): what is it?

Answer 238

-Giving patients vouchers that can be exchanged for goods and services in the community when they achieve treatment goals.

Question 239

How is voucher therapy compared to VBRT in terms of efficacy?

Answer 239

VBRT better in the short run less in the long rund
CBT better in the long run and less in the short run.

Question 240

What is Personalized Normative Feedback (PNF) therapy for substance abuse?

Answer 240

-perceptions of the prevalence of a given behavior influence one’s own behavior
-providing clients with information that allows them to compare the frequency of their own behavior and their perceived frequency for a typical person in their peer group to the actual average frequency for people in their peer group
-originally for alcohol use.

Question 241

text messaging efficacy for substance abuse?

Answer 241

Alone it’s similar but it’s better combined.

Question 242

Relapse prevention therapy what is it?

Answer 242

-It describes substance addiction as a “learned habit pattern” and views lapses following a period of abstinence as being precipitated by a high-risk situation (e.g., a negative emotional state, interpersonal conflict, social pressure).
-uses CBT to form new learned habits

Question 243

What were the finding of project Match for substance abuse?

Answer 243

-compared the effectiveness of cognitive behavioral coping skills therapy, motivational enhancement therapy, and twelve-step facilitation.
-match the characteristics for treatment to characteristics of patients
12 step does a little better.

Question 244

Whittaker et al.’s (2019) meta-analysis of research evaluating the effectiveness of text messaging as an intervention for smoking cessation found that, in terms of quit rates, text messaging alone was:

A. significantly more effective than other smoking cessation interventions alone (e.g., brief smoking cessation counseling).

B. about the same in terms of effectiveness as other smoking cessation interventions alone (e.g., brief smoking cessation counseling).

C. significantly less effective than other smoking cessation interventions alone (e.g., brief smoking cessation counseling).

D. significantly less effective than both minimal smoking cessation support alone (e.g., general health advice provided by a clinician) and other smoking cessation interventions alone (e.g., brief smoking cessation counseling).

Answer 244

B. about the same in terms of effectiveness as other smoking cessation interventions alone (e.g., brief smoking cessation counseling).

Question 245

Practitioners of which of the following interventions work with a family member of a person with a substance use disorder because the person with the disorder refuses to enter treatment?

A. CRA

B. CRAFT

C. VBRT

D. FFT

Answer 245

B. CRAFT

Question 246

A cigarette smoker decides to quit “cold turkey.” Her withdrawal symptoms will most likely include which of the following?

A. autonomic hyperactivity, psychomotor agitation, and insomnia

B. lower blood pressure, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia

D. insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation

Answer 246

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia

Question 247

As described by Marlatt & Gordon (1985), lapses following a period of abstinence are precipitated by which of the following?

A. high-risk situations

B. chronic stress

C. denial

D. lack of impulse control

Answer 247

A. high-risk situations

Question 248

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever

B. autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and anxiety

C. irritability, impaired concentration, and increased appetite

D. pupillary dilation, nausea or vomiting, and weight loss

Answer 248

A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever

Question 249

Personalized normative feedback (PNF) involves:

A. helping clients distinguish between prescriptive and proscriptive norms for a behavior.

B. helping clients identify how their personal norms for a behavior affect their behavior.

C. having clients compare the frequency of their own behavior to their perceived frequency of members of their peer group.

D. having clients compare the frequency of their own behavior and perceived norm for the behavior to the actual norm for that behavior.

Answer 249

D. having clients compare the frequency of their own behavior and perceived norm for the behavior to the actual norm for that behavior.

Question 250

The amnestic-confabulatory type of alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder has been linked to a:

A. higher-than-normal cortisol level.

B. niacin deficiency.

C. blood dyscrasia.

D. thiamine deficiency.

Answer 250

D. thiamine deficiency.