Sutures, Rearfoot, and Trauma Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

What is a Keith Needle

A

straight needle

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2
Q

What are some common needle point configurations (3) and their uses

A

Taper point- for soft, easily penetrated tissue

Cutting- cutting edge on inner curve

Reverse cutting- cutting edge on outer curve for tough, difficult to penetrate tissue

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3
Q

What is orthofix

A

polyglycolic acid

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4
Q

How long for orthofix to lose strength/absorb

A

Loses strength in 6-12 weeks

Absorbed in 1-3 years

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5
Q

What is orthosorb

A

PDS

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6
Q

How long before PDS loses its strength/ absorb

A

Loses strength in 4-6 weeks

Absorbed in 3-6 months

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7
Q

What are two sutures that are the least reactive to tissue

A

Stainless steel (least of all)

Prolene

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8
Q

How is Vicryl broken down

A

Hydrolysis

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9
Q

How long does it take to absorb Vicryl (in terms of tensile strength)

A

Tensile strength:

  • 75% at 2 weeks
  • 50% at 3 weeks
  • 25% at 4 weeks

absorbed completely in 10 weeks

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10
Q

Should you use Vicryl with an infection

A

avoid it if possible, since Vicryl is too reactive

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11
Q

Describe a Keck and Kelly procedure

A

For Haglund deformity with cavus foot and high calcaneal inclination angle. Remove the wedge from posterior-superior aspect of calcaneus. The posterior superior process is moved anteriorly

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12
Q

What are treatments for equinus (conservative-2)

A

Stretching/exercises and night splints

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13
Q

What are treatments for equinus (2 broad categories- with 10specifics)

A

Gastroc recession

  • Strayer
  • Vulpius
  • Baker
  • McGlamary and Fulp

Tendoachilles lengthening

  • open/closed Z
  • Hauser
  • White
  • Hoke
  • Sgarlato
  • Stewart
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14
Q

What is the Murphy Procedure

A

Achilles advancement for spastic equinus

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15
Q

Name transverse surgical procedures for pes planus (3)

A
  • Evans
  • Kidner
  • C-C distraction arthrodesis
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16
Q

Name sagittal procedures for pes planus

A
  • Cotton
  • Cobb
  • Hoke
  • Young
  • Lowman
  • Miller
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17
Q

Name frontal procedures for pes planus

A
  • Koutsogiannis
  • Dwyer
  • Chambers
  • Gleich
  • Baker-Hill
  • Lord
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18
Q

Name surgical procedures for pes cavus (2 broad categories and 7 specifics)

A

Tendon

  • Jones
  • Hibbs
  • STATT
  • PT

Bone

  • dorsiflexory osteotomy of 1st met
  • Cole
  • Japas
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19
Q

What is an arthroereisis

A

a surgical procedure to limit joint mobility (MBA implant in sinus tarsi)

Typically want 2-4 degrees of STJ eversion with implant

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20
Q

What is the Valente procedure

A

STJ blocking using a polyethylene plug with screw threads. Will allow 4-5 degrees of STJ pronation

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21
Q

What order do you resect and what order to you fixate the joints in a triple arthrodesis

A

Resection

1) Midtarsal joints (TN&CC)
2) STJ

Fixation

1) STJ
2) Midtarsal joints

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22
Q

What are some types of fixation for a triple arthrodesis

A

6.5-7.0mm interfragmental compression screws

Staples
Plates

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23
Q

What are FDA- approved total ankle implants

A

Two component devices

  • Agility
  • Eclipse
  • INBONE
  • Salto Talaris

Three component devices
-STAR

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24
Q

What should always be asked with a break in the skin

A

Tetanus status

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25
Appropriate classification for distal phalangeal/nail
Rosenthal
26
Appropriate classification for 1st MTPJ
Jahss
27
Appropriate classification for 5th metatarsal base
Stewart
28
Appropriate classification for Lisfranc joint (2)
Quenu and Kuss, Hardcastle
29
Appropriate classification for navicular
Watson Jones
30
Appropriate classification for Posterior tibial tendon
Conti
31
Appropriate classification for Talar neck
Hawkins
32
Appropriate classification for Talar body
Sneppen
33
Appropriate classification for Talar dome (2)
Berndt-Hardy, Fallot and Wy
34
Appropriate classification for calcaneus (3)
Rowe, Essex Lopresti and Sanders
35
Appropriate classification for anterior process calcaneal fractures
Degan
36
Appropriate classification for ankle sprains (3)
O'Donoghue, Leach, Rasmussen
37
Appropriate classification for physeal ankle fractures (2)
Dias and Tachdjian
38
Appropriate classification for epiphyseal fractures
Salter-Harris
39
Appropriate classification for ankle fracture
Lauge-Hansen and Danis Weber
40
Appropriate classification for Pilon fracture (2)
Ruedi&Allgower, Dias&Tachdjian
41
Appropriate classification for Achilles ruptures
Kuwada
42
Appropriate classification for open fractures
Gustilo anderson
43
Appropriate classification for non-unions
Weber &Cech
44
Appropriate classification for Frostbite (2)
Orr and Fainer, Washburn
45
What is a clinical test for a fracture
point tenderness over fracture site
46
What is the most table fracture pattern
transverse
47
What is the weakest region of the physis
one of cartilage maturation
48
What is the Vassal principle
initial fixation of the primary fracture will assist stabilization of the secondary fractures
49
What are possible complications of fractures (5)
- Nonunion - delayed union - pseudoarthrodesis - OA - AVN
50
What is the most common cause of non-healing for a bone fracture
improper immobilization
51
Are dorsal or plantar lisfranc dislocations more common
dorsal- the plantar ligaments are much stronger than dorsal
52
What are the Ottowa Ankle Rules
1) A series of ankle X-ray films is required only if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any of the following findings: - bone tenderness at posterior edge or distal 6cm of lateral malleolus - bone tenderness at posterior edge or distal 6cm of medial malleolus - inability to bear weight both immediately and in the ED A series of foot X-ray films is required only if there is pain in midfoot zone and any of the following findings: -bone tenderness at base of 5th met - bone tenderness at navicular - inability to weight beat both immediately and in ED
53
What stages of Berndt & Hardy are often associated with lateral ankle ligament ruptures
II, III, and IV
54
What are the common locations of talar dome lesions and their mechanisms of injury
DIAL A PIMP Anterior lateral portion- dorsiflexion inversion Posterior medial portion- plantarflextion inversion
55
What is Hawkins sign
Presence of subchondral talar dome osteopenia seen 6-8 weeks after talar fracture signifying intact vascularity. Absence of the sign implies AVN
56
What is the Sneppen classification
talar body fractures
57
What % of fractures of the talus involve the calcaneus
60%
58
What is Mondor sign
plantar, rearfoot ecchymosis that is pathognomonic for calcaneal fractures
59
How is Bohler angle affected by a calcaneal fracture
decreases with intra-articular calcaneal fracture
60
How is Gissane angle affected by a calcaneal fracture
increases with intra-articular calcaneal fracture
61
What fractures are commonly associated with calcaneal fractures (3)
- Vertebral fractures (especially L1) - Femoral neck - Tibial plateau
62
What is the mechanism of injury for an anterior process fracture
inversion with plantarflexion
63
What are tests for ankle ligament pathology (5)
- anterior drawer test - calcaneofibular stress inversion - abduction stress - ankle arthrogram - peroneal tenography
64
What does anterior drawer test
ATF CF PTF
65
What does the talar tilt test
CFL
66
What are the clinical symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture (5)
- Pain with history of pop - Weakness of loss of function - Palpable dell in area of ruptured tendon - Inability to perform single leg rise - Increased ankle dorsiflextion
67
What is the Thompson test
a positive test result when squeezing of the calf muscle does not plantarflex the foot
68
What is the Hoffa sign?
increased dorsiflexion compared to the contralateral side along with the inability to perform a single leg rise test
69
What is a radiographic finding of an Achilles tendon rupture
disruption of Kagers triangle
70
Where is the most common location for the Achilles tendon to rupture
1.5-4cm proximal to the calcaneal insertion
71
Name the fracture: | Pott
bimalleolar fracture
72
Name the fracture: | Cotton
trimalleolar fracture
73
Name the fracture: | Tillaux-Chaput
avulsion fracture of anterior, lateral tibia from AITFL
74
Name the fracture: | Wagstaff
avulsion fracture of anterior, medial fibula from AITFL
75
Name the fracture: Volkman
posterior tibial malleolar fracture from PITFL
76
Name the fracture: | Cedell
Fracture of posterior medial process
77
Name the fracture: | Shepard
Fracture of posterior lateral process
78
Name the fracture: | Foster
entire posterior process
79
Name the fracture: | Bosworth
lateral malleolar fracture with ankle displacement
80
Name the fracture: | Maisonneuve
proximal fibular fracture
81
What is the most common mechanism of injury causing an ankle fracture
SER
82
What is the MOI causing a transverse lateral malleolar fracture
SADI
83
What is the MOI causing a short, oblique medial malleolar fracture
SADII
84
What is the MOI causing a short oblique lateral malleolar fracture
PAB III
85
What is the MOI causing a spiral lateral malleolar fracture with a posterior spike
SERII
86
What is the MOI to the ankle with a high fibular fracture? What is this fracture called
PERIII Maisonneuve fracture
87
When should a posterior malleolar fracture be fixated
ORIF when fragment is greater than 25% of the posterior malleolus
88
What direction should transsyndesmotic screws be inserted
approximately 30 degress from the sagittal plane from posterior-lateral to anterior medial
89
What type of screw should be inserted as a transsyndesmotic screw
Fully threaded cortical screws are placed across both cortices of the fibula and the lateral cortex of the tibia. Goal is stabilization rather than compression
90
What is the Thurston-Holland sign
epiphysis is separated from the physis with the fracture extending into the metaphysis resulting in a triangular fracture fragment