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UAL B737 Study (2.27.2024) > SV Test Prep 2023 > Flashcards

SV Test Prep 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

The potable water quantity indicator can be found

a.on the forward flight attendant panel
b.on the aft flight attendant panel
c.on the flight deck aft overhead panel

A

b.on the aft flight attendant panel

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2
Q

On the JAMCO Flight Deck Door Control Panel, a red
flashing illuminated UNLOCK push button indicates

a.the door is unlocked
b.the status of the door is unknown
c.the door is hard locked

A

b.the status of the door is unknown

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3
Q

At what cabin altitude will the Passenger Oxygen
System activate automatically?

a.10,000 feet
b.12,650 feet
c.14,000 feet

A

c.14,000 feet

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4
Q

When the passenger oxygen system has been
activated, approximately how long will oxygen flow?

a.12 minutes
b.15 minutes
c.18 minutes

A

a.12 minutes

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5
Q

Overwing emergency exits will automatically lock

a.during inflight only
b.above 10,000 feet AGL
c.during takeoff, inflight and landing

A

c.during takeoff, inflight and landing

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6
Q

When performing a recall, if the FWD or AFT cargo
doors are not locked, what will illuminate?

a.Master Caution Light
b.Doors Annunciator
c.All answers are correct

A

c.All answers are correct

a.Master Caution Light
b.Doors Annunciator

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7
Q

The JAMCO flight deck door mechanical lock (pin)

a.inhibits depressurization blowout panel functions
b.inhibits door opening by FLIGHT DECK DOOR EMERGENCY ENTRANCE
system
c.inhibits flight deck emergency exit functions

A

b.inhibits door opening by FLIGHT DECK DOOR EMERGENCY ENTRANCE
system

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8
Q

Flight crew oxygen is supplied by

a.Individual cannisters at each crew station
b.A single oxygen generator
c.A single oxygen cylinder

A

c.A single oxygen cylinder

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9
Q

Emergency Exit Lights will automatically illuminate if AC power is turned
off, or DC Bus No. 1 fails when the EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch is in the

a.OFF position
b.ARMED position
c.ON position

A

b.ARMED position

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10
Q

On the JAMCO Flight Deck door, to override the EMERGENCY
ENTRANCE system and stop the “Door, door, door” warning

a.Press the HARD LOCK button
b.Insert the Door Mechanical Lock Pin
c.Press and hold the UNLOCK button for 5 seconds until it flashes red

A

a.Press the HARD LOCK button

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11
Q

An amber F/O PITOT light on the Probe Heat panel
indicates

a.the probe is heated
b.the probe is not heated
c.the probe is overheated

A

b.the probe is not heated

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12
Q

An illuminated amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates

a.excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
b.an over temperature condition in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice
valve
c.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is out of commanded position

A

a.excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip

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13
Q

An illuminated amber TAI above an engine N1 gauge indicates

a.excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
b.an over temperature condition in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice
valve
c.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is out of commanded position

A

c.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is out of commanded position

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14
Q

WINDOW HEAT must be on

a.10 minutes before engine start
b.10 minutes before takeoff
c.10 minutes before turning on Anti-Ice

A

b.10 minutes before takeoff

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15
Q

An illuminated green TAI above an engine N1 gauge
indicates

a.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is in transit
b.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is closed
c.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is open

A

c.the engine cowl Anti-Ice valve is open

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16
Q

The Wing Anti-Ice system supplies heat to

a.three inboard leading edge slats
b.three inboard leading edge slats and all trailing edge slats
c.all leading edge flaps and three trailing edge slats

A

a.three inboard leading edge slats

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17
Q

Thermal anti-icing prevents the formation on which part
of the engine?

a.the engine accessory box
b.the engine fan blades
c.the engine cowl lip

A

c.the engine cowl lip

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18
Q

Probe Heat must be on

a.before push
b.before engine(s) start
c.before takeoff

A

c.before takeoff

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19
Q

Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to PWR TEST

a.simulates an overheat condition
b.provides a confidence test
c.bypasses AC power

A

b.provides a confidence test

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20
Q

Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to OVHT

a.simulates an overheat condition
b.provides a confidence test
c.bypasses AC power

A

a.simulates an overheat condition

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21
Q

Pushing the Altitude Hold (ALT HLD) switch commands pitch to hold

a.corrected barometric altitude to the nearest 1,000 feet at which the switch was pressed
b.uncorrected barometric altitude at which the switch was pressed
c.uncorrected radio altitude to the nearest 1,000 feet at which the switch was pressed

A

b.uncorrected barometric altitude at which the switch was pressed

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22
Q

While the Autopilot is engaged, the use of Aileron Trim
is

a.prohibited
b.allowed above FL250
c.allowed below FL250

A

a.prohibited

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23
Q

Pushing the LVL CHG button in a climb commands the
autothrottles to hold

a.idle thrust
b.N1 limit thrust
c.maximum thrust

A

b.N1 limit thrust

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24
Q

When you are climbing or descending with VNAV engaged, pushing
the ALT INTV button will cause the next altitude restriction will be

a.increased by 1,000 feet
b.change to correspond with the altitude in the MCP altitude window
c.eliminated

A

c.eliminated

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25
Q

Pushing the APP button switch arms the AFDS for

a.LNAV and VNAV capture only if a RNAV approach is selected in the FMC
b.any LNAV and VNAV capture
c.localizer and glideslope capture

A

c.localizer and glideslope capture

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26
Q

What does FMC SPD indicate in the Autothrottle Mode FMA?

a.The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust
mode display.
b.The autothrottle maintains speed set in the MCP IAS/MACH display.
c.The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC.

A

c.The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC.

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27
Q

What does SINGLE CH indicate in the autopilot stats display?

a.For a single A/P ILS approach, it indicates that the autoland system has
completed all required tests
b.For a single A/P ILS approach, it annunciates after localizer capture.
c.For a single A/P ILS approach, it annunciates below 2500 feet.

A

b.For a single A/P ILS approach, it annunciates after localizer capture.

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28
Q

What does THR HLD indicate on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations
Autothrottle Mode?

a.The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
b.No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can
set thrust levers manually.
c.The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.

A

c.The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.

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29
Q

To engage TO/GA mode for takeoff you must press
either TO/GA switch and

a.at least one FD switch must be ON.
b.both FD switches must be ON
c.both FD switches must be OFF

A

b.both FD switches must be ON

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30
Q

What mode allows both A/Ps to be engaged at the
same time (Autoland)?

a.APP
b.VOR/LOC
c.LNAV

A

a.APP

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31
Q

The minimum battery voltage to start the APU is

a. 19 volts
b. 23 volts
c. 28 volts

A

b. 23 volts

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32
Q

An illuminated GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicates

a. that AC ground power is powering the both transfer busses
b. that AC ground power is connected to the aircraft and is bypassing the battery
c. that AC ground power is connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards

A

c. that AC ground power is connected to the aircraft and meets aircraft power quality standards

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33
Q

Inflight, an illuminated amber TR UNIT light indicates

a. TR1 or TR2 or TR3 has failed
b. TR1 or TR2 and TR3 have failed
c. TR1 and TR2 or TR3 has failed

A

b. TR1 or TR2 and TR3 have failed

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34
Q

An illuminated STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates one
or more of which busses are unpowered

a. AC standby bus and DC standby bus
b. Battery bus
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. AC standby bus and DC standby bus
b. Battery bus

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35
Q

Moving the GEN1 or GEN2 switch to ON

a. connects the IDG to AC Transfer Bus
b. disconnects the previous power source and closes the generator circuit breaker
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. connects the IDG to AC Transfer Bus
b. disconnects the previous power source and closes the generator circuit breaker

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36
Q

When the APU is running, and extinguished APU GEN
OFF BUS light indicates

a. the APU is supplying power to the AC Transfer Bus
b. the APU is not supplying power to the AC Transfer Bus
c. the previous power source has been disconnected

A

a. the APU is supplying power to the AC Transfer Bus

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37
Q

Which light when illuminated amber indicates a failure
in the DC or STBY electrical system?

a. ELEC
b. TR UNIT
c. BAT DISCHARGE

A

a. ELEC

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38
Q

An illuminated DRIVE light indicates

a. high oil temperature in the IDG
b. low oil quantity in the engine
c. low oil pressure in the IDG

A

c. low oil pressure in the IDG

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39
Q

An illuminated BAT DISCHARGE light indicates

a. the battery has failed
b. thermal runaway
c. excessive battery discharge

A

c. excessive battery discharge

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40
Q

A fully charged battery has sufficient capacity to provide
electrical power for a minimum of

a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 60 minutes

A

a. 30 minutes

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41
Q

The maximum EGT limit for an engine start on the 737
NG is

a. 725 degrees Celsius
b. 925 degrees Celsius
c. 950 degrees Celsius

A

a. 725 degrees Celsius

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42
Q

On the aft overhead ENGINE panel, the EEC ON and
ALTN lights simultaneously illuminated indicates

a. the EEC has failed
b. the EEC has automatically changed to the soft alternate mode
c. the EEC has manually entered the hard-alternate mode

A

b. the EEC has automatically changed to the soft alternate mode

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43
Q

During engine starts on the ground, the EEC will
monitor and detect

a. impending hot starts and EGT start limit exceedances
b. wet starts
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. impending hot starts and EGT start limit exceedances
b. wet starts

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44
Q

An illuminated REVERSER light on the aft overhead ENGINE panel
indicates

a. the isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in commanded position, one or more
thrust reversers sleeves are not in commanded state, or a failure has been detected in
synchronization shaft lock circuitry
b. the auto-restow circuit has been activated
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. the isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in commanded position, one or more
thrust reversers sleeves are not in commanded state, or a failure has been detected in
synchronization shaft lock circuitry
b. the auto-restow circuit has been activated

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45
Q

An illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light on the aft
overhead ENGINE panel indicates

a. the EEC is in the alternate mode
b. the auto-restow circuit has been activated
c. the engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system

A

c. the engine control system is not dispatchable due to faults in the system

46
Q

If the APU is the only source or electrical power inflight

a. all galley busses are automatically shed
b. no bleed air can be used
c. busses are shed incrementally from right to left

A

a. all galley busses are automatically shed

47
Q

An illuminated APU OVERSPEED light indicates

a. the APU RPM limit has been exceed resulting in an automatic shutdown
b. the overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during normal
APU shutdown
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. the APU RPM limit has been exceed resulting in an automatic shutdown
b. the overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during normal
APU shutdown

48
Q

An illuminated APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light may be
briefly seen

a. when turning on the APU BLEED
b. during engine start
c. during APU start

A

c. during APU start

49
Q

The maximum continuous engine oil temperature is

a. 130 degrees Celsius
b. 135 degrees Celsius
c. 140 degrees Celsius

A

c. 140 degrees Celsius

50
Q

The minimum engine oil quantity prior to engine start is

a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 76%

A

b. 70%

51
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing systems are located in

a. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, Galleys
b. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, Lavatories
c. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, Lavatories, Main Gear Wheel Well

A

b. Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments, Lavatories

52
Q

Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light,
and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate when

a. the APU overheats
b. an engine overheats
c. the engine bleed air valve closes due to a temperature exceedance

A

b. an engine overheats

53
Q

What happens when pulling the engine fire warning switch up?

a. The respective electric hydraulic pump is deactivated
b. All fuel pumps are deactivated
c. The engine fuel shutoff valve at the HMU, and the spar fuel shutoff valve close

A

c. The engine fuel shutoff valve at the HMU, and the spar fuel shutoff valve close

54
Q

When positioning the EXT TEST Switch to 1 or 2, you
verify circuit continuity from the squib(s) to

a. both engines and APU fire switches
b. the duct overheat circuitry
c. the two engine fire switches, the APU must be tested separately

A

a. both engines and APU fire switches

55
Q

Placing the FAULT/INOP and OVHT/FIRE TEST switch
to the OVHT/FIRE position

a. tests detection loops on both engines and APU and the wheel well
b. tests detection loops on both engines and APU but not the wheel well
c. tests detection loops on both engines and wheel well but not the APU

A

a. tests detection loops on both engines and APU and the wheel well

56
Q

An illuminated WHEEL WELL light indicates

a. a fire in the main gear wheel well and/or nose wheel well
b. a fire in the main gear wheel well
c. a fire in the main gear wheel well and the squib has been armed

A

b. a fire in the main gear wheel well

57
Q

An illuminated engine BOTTLE DISCHARGE light indicates

a. the related fire extinguisher bottle has discharged
b. the related fire extinguisher bottle has been armed and is ready for discharge
c. there is a fault in the fire protection system and the bottle cannot be discharged

A

a. the related fire extinguisher bottle has discharged

58
Q

Pushing the FWD Cargo Fire ARM switch

a. arms the extinguisher for the FWD cargo compartment; discharges the first bottle
b. arms the extinguisher for the FWD cargo compartment
c. arms the extinguisher for the both cargo compartments

A

b. arms the extinguisher for the FWD cargo compartment

59
Q

How do you recall single channel failures in dual
channel/redundant systems?

a. Press either MASTER CAUTION light
b. Press either system annunciator light panel (six pack)
c. Press either MFD button

A

b. Press either system annunciator light panel (six pack)

60
Q

The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors

a. takeoff and landing configuration
b. landing gear and air/ground sensing
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. takeoff and landing configuration
b. landing gear and air/ground sensing

61
Q

An illuminated FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates

a. the elevator trim system is inoperative
b. an emergency situation exists due to a complete hydraulic failure
c. excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

A

c. excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer

62
Q

Engagement/disengagement of the Mach Trim System

a. is accomplished automatically as a function of pressure altitude
b. is accomplished automatically as a function of airspeed
c. is accomplished manually by use of the Mach Trim Cutout Switch

A

b. is accomplished automatically as a function of airspeed

63
Q

The stabilizer trim MAIN ELECT and AUTOPILOT cutout switches
are provided to allow the main electrical or autopilot trim inputs to be

a. disconnected from their respective stabilizer trim motor
b. disconnected from the single stabilizer trim motor
c. overridden by the opposing stabilizer trim motor

A

b. disconnected from the single stabilizer trim motor

64
Q

Switching the STAB TRIM override switch to
OVERRIDE

a. deactivates the main STAB TRIM system
b. deactivates the autopilot STAB TRIM system
c. electric trim can be used regardless of control column position

A

c. electric trim can be used regardless of control column position

65
Q

The Rudder Trim Control switch electrically repositions
the

a. rudder pedals
b. rudder feel and centering unit
c. rudder trim tabs

A

b. rudder feel and centering unit

66
Q

The 737 FLAP Lever

a. selects the position of the LE devices by the determined TE flap position
b. at flap positions 30 and 40 arms the flap load relief system
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. selects the position of the LE devices by the determined TE flap position
b. at flap positions 30 and 40 arms the flap load relief system

67
Q

Why are there mechanical Flap Gates positioned at the
flaps 1 and flaps 15 detent?

a. for single engine and normal go-around
b. for takeoff flap settings
c. for standardization across fleets

A

a. for single engine and normal go-around

68
Q

Where would a TE flaps asymmetry error or skew
indication issue be seen?

a. The LE DEVICES indicator on the aft overhead panel
b. The FLAPS position indicator
c. All answers are correct

A

b. The FLAPS position indicator

69
Q

On the LE DEVICES Annunciator Panel, an extinguished LE light indicates

a. the related LE device is extended
b. the related LE device is retracted
c. the related LE device is not responding

A

b. the related LE device is retracted

70
Q

Rotating the rudder trim control knob

a. pneumatically trims the rudder
b. electrically trims the rudder
c. hydraulically trims the rudder

A

b. electrically trims the rudder

71
Q

Altitude acquisition alerting is displayed on the PFD by

a. a momentary tone sounding and the current altitude box turns amber.
b. 300 feet prior to reaching the MCP altitude a the box around the current altitude flashes and a
momentary tone sounds.
c. 900 feet prior to reaching MCP altitude, a white box shows around the selected altitude display and a momentary tone sounds

A

c. 900 feet prior to reaching MCP altitude, a white box shows around the selected altitude display and a momentary tone sounds

72
Q

The green Speed Trend Vector on the PFD Airspeed
Indicator shows

a. predicted airspeed in the next 10 seconds
b. predicted airspeed in the next 15 seconds
c. predicted airspeed in the next 30 seconds

A

a. predicted airspeed in the next 10 seconds

73
Q

To resolve the traffic conflict during a TCAS RA, the
areas inside the red lines indicate the pitch region(s) to

a. fly
b. avoid
c. report

A

b. avoid

74
Q

An amber ALT DISAGREE alert is displayed if the Captain’s and First
Officer’s altimeters on the PFD Altimeter Indicator disagree by more than

a. 500 feet for more than 20 seconds
b. 250 feet for more than 10 seconds
c. 200 feet for more than 5 seconds

A

c. 200 feet for more than 5 seconds

75
Q

A failed attitude display is indicated on the PFD Attitude
Indicator by

a. an amber FPV flag
b. an amber ATT flag
c. an amber FD flag

A

b. an amber ATT flag

76
Q

To cycle between UTC or manual time on the Clock,
press the

a. CHR pushbutton in top left corner
b. TIME/DATE pushbutton in top right corner
c. ET pushbutton in lower left corner

A

b. TIME/DATE pushbutton in top right corner

77
Q

On the EFIS control Panel, the (BARO) Reference
Selector allows for selection of

a. IN or METERS
b. IN, METERS or HPA
c. IN or HPA

A

c. IN or HPA

78
Q

Placing the Mode Selector to APP or VOR on the EFIS
Control Panel displays information

a. track-up
b. true north up
c. heading-up

A

c. heading-up

79
Q

Placing the Mode Selector to MAP on the EFIS Control
Panel displays information

a. track-up
b. true north up
c. heading-up

A

a. track-up

80
Q

Placing the Mode Selector to PLN on the EFIS Control
Panel displays information

a. track-up
b. true north up
c. heading-up

A

b. true north up

81
Q

An illuminated Electric Hydraulic Pump OVERHEAT light
indicates

a. the hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor
driven pump has overheated
b. the pump itself has overheated
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. the hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor
driven pump has overheated
b. the pump itself has overheated

82
Q

The HYDRAULIC SYS indication of hydraulic quantity
on the DU is shown

a. in gallons
b. in pounds
c. as a percentage

A

c. as a percentage

83
Q

The minimum quantity of hydraulic fluid for dispatch is

a. 70% RF
b. 76% RF
c. 80%

A

b. 76% RF

84
Q

An illuminated FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light indicates
low hydraulic system pressure to which flight controls?

a. ailerons and elevators
b. rudder
c. all answers are correct

A

c. all answers are correct

a. ailerons and elevators
b. rudder

85
Q

What happens if a leak develops in the A system hydraulic
engine-driven pump or its related lines?

a. the system quantity will steadily decrease to 15%
b. a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss
c. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is
lost

A

b. a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss

86
Q

What happens if a leak develops in the A system hydraulic
electric motor-driven pump or its related lines?

a. the system quantity will steadily decrease to 15%
b. a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss
c. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost

A

c. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost

87
Q

What happens if a leak develops in either pump, line or component of
system B?

a. the system quantity will steadily decrease to 15%
b. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases approximately zero, system B pressure and the
standby system pressure is lost
c. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to approximately zero and system B pressure is lost, however the power transfer unit is still operational

A

c. the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to approximately zero and system B pressure is lost, however the power transfer unit is still operational

88
Q

Automatic operation of the standby hydraulic pump is
initiated when there is a loss of hydraulic system A or B and

a. flaps are extended; and airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 knots
b. flaps are retracted and airborne
c. speed brake is used

A

a. flaps are extended; and airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 knots

89
Q

When there is a leak in the standby hydraulic system,
the LOW QUANTITY light illuminates and

a. the system A reservoir fluid decreases to zero
b. the system B reservoir fluid decreases to zero
c. the system B reservoir fluid decreases to approximately 72%

A

c. the system B reservoir fluid decreases to approximately 72%

90
Q

On the PFD/ND, the hydraulic system quantity is
displayed

a. on the Upper Display Unit
b. at all times with the secondary engine indications C.
c. by pushing the MFD System (SYS) switch

A

c. by pushing the MFD System (SYS) switch

91
Q

An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates

a. engine bleed air pressure is too low
b. engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit
c. APU bleed air pressure is too low

A

b. engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit

92
Q

When the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates

a. the APU bleed air valve closes automatically
b. the respective engine bleed air valve must be manually closed
c. the respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically

A

c. the respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically

93
Q

The following are sources of air that can be used to start an
engine:

a. APU bleed air only
b. APU bleed air, ground air cart, and engine bleed air
c. APU bleed air, ground air cart, engine bleed air, and ground pre-conditioned air

A

b. APU bleed air, ground air cart, and engine bleed air

94
Q

With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed air
switches ON, and both PACK switches in AUTO or HIGH

a. the isolation valve will be open
b. the isolation valve will be closed
c. the isolation valve may be open or closed depending on how many engines are
operating

A
95
Q

With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed air
switches ON, and both PACK switches in AUTO or HIGH

a. the isolation valve will be open
b. the isolation valve will be closed
c. the isolation valve may be open or closed depending on how many engines are operating

A

b. the isolation valve will be closed

96
Q

With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, if either an engine
bleed air switch or a PACK switch are OFF

a. the isolation valve will be open
b. the isolation valve will be closed
c. the isolation valve may be open or closed depending on how many engines are operating

A

a. the isolation valve will be open

97
Q

With the DUAL BLEED light illuminated, engine thrust
must be

a. 40% N1 or greater
b. increased to supply at least 30 PSI of duct pressure
c. limited to idle

A

c. limited to idle

98
Q

An illuminated ZONE TEMP light will also trigger

a. the MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, and the pack valve to go full cold
b. the MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, and both packs to trip off
c. the MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, and the trim air valve to close

A

c. the MASTER CAUTION light to illuminate, and the trim air valve to close

99
Q

What does the TRIP RESET switch reset?

a. WING-BODY OVERHEAT
b. BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK, ZONE TEMP
c. All answers are correct

A

b. BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK, ZONE TEMP

100
Q

The intermittent cabin altitude warning will sound when
the cabin altitude reaches

a. 9,000 feet
b. 10,000 feet
c. 14,000 feet

A

b. 10,000 feet

101
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, which modes
automatically pressurize the aircraft?

a. AUTO & ALTN
b. AUTO & MAN
c. AUTO, ALTN & MAN

A

a. AUTO & ALTN

102
Q

What is the maximum operating pressure altitude for
the B737?

a. 41,000 feet
b. 39,000 feet
c. 45,000 feet

A

a. 41,000 feet

103
Q

What is the maximum takeoff/landing tailwind
component for the B737?

a. 15 knots
b. 10 knots
c. 20 knots

A

a. 15 knots

104
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when visible moisture in
any form is present and

a. total air temperature of 10°C or below
b. total air temperature of 15°C or below
c. total air temperature of 0°C or below

A

a. total air temperature of 10°C or below

105
Q

On takeoff or missed approach, do not engage the
autopilot below

a. 400 feet AGL
b. 800 feet AGL
c. 1,000 feet AGL

A

a. 400 feet AGL

106
Q

The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on a non-precision approach is

a. 50 feet AGL
b. 50 feet below MDA/DA
c. Touchdown

A

b. 50 feet below MDA/DA

107
Q

The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot on an ILS
approach is

a. 50 feet AGL
b. 50 feet below MDA/DA
c. Touchdown

A

a. 50 feet AGL

108
Q

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below

a. 2000 feet AFE
b. 1500 feet AFE
c. 1000 feet AFE

A

c. 1000 feet AFE

109
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the
following conditions: Runway Condition Code: 5 Surface Condition:1/8
inch WATER TAKEOFF (Spilt Scimitar Winglet)

a. 25
b. 33
c. 37

A

a. 25

110
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the
following conditions: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY
TAKEOFF (Spilt Scimitar Winglet)

a. 25
b. 33
c. 37

A

b. 33

111
Q

What is the RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND COMPONENT for the
following conditions: Runway Condition Code: 6 Surface Condition: DRY
LANDING (Spilt Scimitar Winglet)

a. 25
b. 33
c. 37

A

c. 37

UAL B737 Study (2.27.2024) (22 decks)

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