Systemic Embryology Flashcards
(140 cards)
1
Q
The pharyngeal apparatus is made up of what components?
A
Pharyngeal arch
Pharyngeal pouch
Pharyngeal cleft
Pharyngeal membrane
2
Q
The pharyngeal apparatus plays an important role in the development of the ________________ region of the fetus
A
Head and neck
3
Q
Pharyngeal arches appear at the ______ week of embryonic development
A
4th
4
Q
What are the components of a pharyngeal arch?
A
Cartilage
Muscle
Artery
Nerve
5
Q
What is the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch ?
A
Trigeminal nerve (Mandibular and maxillary branches)
6
Q
What is the nerve of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?
A
Facial nerve
7
Q
What is the nerve of the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?
A
Glossopharyngeal nerve
8
Q
What is the nerve of the 4th Pharyngeal arch?
A
Superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve
9
Q
What is the nerve of the 6th Pharyngeal arch?
A
Recurrent laryngeal branch of the Vagus nerve
10
Q
Another name for the cartilage of the 1st pharyngeal arch is ______________
A
Meckel’s cartilage
11
Q
Another name for the cartilage of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch is ______________
A
Reichert’s cartilage
12
Q
The superior parathyroid gland is derived from the ________________
A
Dorsal wing of the 4th pharyngeal pouch
13
Q
The inferior parathyroid gland is derived from the ______________
A
Dorsal wing of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch
14
Q
The _____________ wing of the ____________ pharyngeal pouch develops into the Thymus
A
Ventral wing of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch
15
Q
Treacher Collins syndrome
Di Guerre syndrome
Pierre robin syndrome
The above are syndromes for which pharyngeal arch?
A
First
16
Q
What is the artery of the 1st Pharyngeal arch?
A
Maxillary artery
17
Q
What are the arteries of the 2nd Pharyngeal arch?
A
Hyoid artery
Stapedial artery
18
Q
_______________ and _____________ are the arteries of the 3rd pharyngeal arch
A
Common carotid artery
Internal carotid artery
19
Q
________________ and ______________ are the arteries of the 4th pharyngeal arch
A
Aortic arch
Subclavian artery
20
Q
What artery of the 4th Pharyngeal arch supplies the left side?
A
Aortic arch
21
Q
___________ and ____________ are the arteries of the 6th Pharyngeal arch
A
Ductus arteriosus
Pulmonary artery
22
Q
What artery of the 6th pharyngeal arch supplies the right side?
A
Pulmonary artery
23
Q
Cartilages of the pharyngeal arch are _________________ shaped
A
Horseshoe
24
Q
Malleus
Incus
Sphenomandibular ligament
Spine of sphenoid bone
The above structures are derived from the cartilage of the ___________ Pharyngeal arch
A
1st
25
What structures are derived from the cartilage of the 2nd pharyngeal arch?
Stapes bone
Lesser horn of the hyoid bone
Styloid process of the temporal bone
Upper part of the hyoid bone body
26
What structures are derived from the cartilage of the 3rd pharyngeal arch?
Greater horn of the hyoid bone
Lower part of the hyoid bone body
27
All cartilages of the larynx are derived from the 4th & 6th cartilage except ________________
Epiglottis
28
3 muscles of the 1st Pharyngeal arch
**Muscles of mastication**
Tensor palati muscle
Tensor tympani muscle
Mylohyoid
Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
29
3 muscles of the 2nd pharyngeal arch
Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Stylohyoid muscle
Muscles of facial expression
Stapedius muscle
30
What is the muscle of the 3rd Pharyngeal arch?
Stylopharyngeus muscle
31
2 muscles of the 4th pharyngeal arch
Constrictors of the pharynx
Levator veli palati
Cricothyroid
32
What muscles arise from the 6th Pharyngeal arch?
Intrinsic muscles of the larynx
33
What is the fate of the 1st to 4th pharyngeal clefts?
1st pharyngeal cleft gives rise to the Ear canal
All other Pharyngeal clefts are **obliterated**
34
____________________ is an **autosomal recessive** disorder characterised by cleft palate, small mandible (micrognathia) and a posteriorly placed tongue (glossoptosis)
Pierre Robins syndrome
35
________________ is an **autosomal dominant** disorder characterised by molar and mandibular hypoplasia, deformed external ear and depressed palpebral fissure.
Treacher Collins syndrome
36
Treacher Collins syndrome is otherwise called ______________
Mandibulofacial dysostosis
37
Which Pharyngeal arch disorder is as a result of the microdeletion of Chromosome 22?
DiGeorge syndrome
38
______________ is the most severe disorder relating to the pharyngeal arches
DiGeorge syndrome
39
The urogenital system is functionally divided into _______________ and _______________
Urinary system
Genital system
40
3 kidney systems are formed during intrauterine life. They are _______________, _________________ and ________________
Pronephros
Mesonephros
Metanephros
41
The 3 kidney systems are formed in a _______________ sequence
a. Caudal to Cranial
b. Lateral
c. Cranial to caudal
Cranial to caudal
42
Which of the kidney systems in Nonfunctional?
Pronephros
43
Which of the kidney systems forms the permanent kidney?
Metanephros
44
The mesonephros is functional throughout gestation.
True/False
False
The mesonephros is only functional for a short time during early fetal period
45
The pronephros is represented by __________ solid cell groups in the Cranial region
7-10
46
All signs of the pronephric system disappear by the end of the _________ week
4th
47
The mesonephros is derived from the _________________ germ layer
Intermediate mesodermal
48
The first excretory tubule of the mesonephros appears early in the ________ week
4th
49
The mesonephric duct is also called ____________
Wolffian duct
50
The mesonephros lengthens and form an S-shaped loop that forms the ___________________
Glomerulus
51
_____________ and _____________ are attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a broad urogenital mesentery
Mesonephros
Gonads
52
The mesonephros forms a large ovoid organ on each side of the midline. This occurs at what time?
Middle of the second month
53
The mesonephric duct runs __________ to the mesonephros
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Medial
Lateral
54
The metanephros appears in the _______ week
5th
55
Collecting ducts of the permanent kidney develop from the ________________
Ureteric buds
56
The ureteric bud penetrates the metanephric tissue to form the _______________
Primitive renal lelvis
57
The primitive renal pelvis splits into two portions. ________________ and _______________
Cranial
Caudal
58
Ureter
Renal pelvis
Major and minor calyces
1-3 million collecting tubules
The above structures are derived from the ______________
Ureteric buds
59
The kidney develops from 2 sources which are _________________ and _______________
Metanephric mesoderm
Ureteric buds
60
Urine production begins around what time of gestation?
10th week
61
A congenital disorder where the ureter does not connect with the bladder and drains somewhere else is called _____________
Ectopic ureter
62
Name 2 sites of ectopic ureteral opening
Vagina
Urethra
Vestibules
63
The kidney is initially positioned in the _____________ region
Pelvic
64
A clinical condition where the Ascension of the kidney into the abdominal region is obstructed by the root of the inferior mesenteric artery is called ______________
Horseshoe kidney
65
A clinical condition where the kidney fails to ascend into the abdominal region is called ______________
Pelvic kidney
66
Excretion of waste product during fetal life is carried out by the _______________
Placenta
67
Kidney formed by the metanephros becomes functional during the _______ week
12th
68
The cloaca divides into the _____________ and _______________
Urogenital sinus
Anal canal
69
Division of the cloaca occurs during the ____________ week
4th to 7th
70
________________ is a layer of mesoderm between the primitive anal canal and urogenital sinus
Urorectal septum
71
The perineal body is formed from the tip of the ________________
Urorectal septum
72
The urogenital sinus breaks up into 3 portions. Name them
Phallic part
Pelvic part
Urinary bladder
73
The urachus connects the apex of the bladder to the ________________ upon destruction of the allantois
Umbilicus
74
The urachus is known as the ___________________ in adults
Median umbilical ligament
75
The pelvic part of the urogenital sinus gives rise to the __________________ and ______________ urethra
Prostatic
Membranous
76
The prostate gland is formed by buds from the ______________
Urethra
77
Seminal vesicles are formed from buddings of the _______________
Ductus deferens
78
The epithelium of the urethra originates in the _________________ germ layer
Endodermal
79
In females, the urethral and paraurethral glands are derived from the ___________ part of the urethra
a. Lateral
b. Caudal
c. Cranial
d. Medial
Cranial
80
____________________ is a ventral body wall defect where bladder mucosa is exposed to the outside
Exstrophy of the bladder
81
__________________ is a ventral body wall defect in which migration of mesoderm to the midline is inhibited and the tail fold fails to progress
Exstrophy of the cloaca
82
What urogenital defect is associated with amniotic rupture?
Exstrophy of the cloaca
83
The nervous system develops from the ______________
Neural plate
84
The neural plate is found in what germ layer?
Ectodermal germ layer
85
The neural plate forms 4 components. Name them
Neural Crest
Neural Tube
Neural Groove
Neural Fold
86
Neural crest cells form the ___________ and ____________
Peripheral nervous system
Autonomic nervous system
87
The neural tube differentiates into the __________________
Central nervous system
88
The Cranial opening of the neural tube is called ________________
Rostral neuropore
89
The caudal opening of the neural tube is called _________________
Caudal neuropore
90
During the 3rd to 4th weeks, the walls of the neural tube thicken to form the _____________ and _______________
Brain
Spinal cord
91
Development of the brain starts with 3 primary vesicles which are:
Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Rhombencephalon
92
The prosencephalon gives rise to the ______________ and _______________
Telencephalon
Diencephalon
93
The Rhombencephalon gives rise to the _________________ and ________________
Metencephalon
Myelencephalon
94
The prosencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?
The forebrain
95
The mesencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?
Midbrain
96
The rhombencephalon oversees the development of what region of the brain?
Hindbrain
97
The telencephalon gives rise to the _____________
Cerebrum
98
The diencephalon gives rise to the ___________________
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus
Eye cup
99
The mesencephalon gives rise to the ___________
Midbrain
100
The metencephalon gives rise to the ___________________
Pons
Cerebellum
101
The myelencephalon gives rise to the __________________
Medulla oblongata
102
The lateral ventricles are formed from the _________________
Telencephalon
103
The third ventricle is formed from the _________________
Diencephalon
104
The rostral fourth ventricle is formed from the _______________
Metencephalon
105
The caudal fourth ventricle is formed from the ____________________
Myelencephalon
106
The walls of the neural tube are lined with _____________________ epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar
107
Neuroepithelium/neural tube epithelium cells constitute 3 zones which are
Ventricular zone
Intermediate zone
Marginal zone
108
All neurons and macroglial cells in the spinal cord are found in what neuroepithelial zone
Ventricular zone
109
The neuroepithelial zone formed by neuroblasts is called the ____________________
Intermediate zone
110
What neuroepithelial zone becomes the white matter?
Marginal zone
111
What neuroepithelial zone becomes the grey matter?
Intermediate zone
112
The respiratory system originates from which germ layer?
Endodermal layer
113
The epithelial lining of the trachea, lungs, bronchii and larynx are derived from what germ layer?
Endodermal layer
114
Cartilages, muscles and connective tissue of the respiratory system originate from which germ layer?
Splanchnic mesodermal layer
115
A ventral outgrowth of the Cranial part of the foregut is called _______________
Respiratory diverticulum
116
The proximal part of the respiratory diverticulum forms the __________ and _____________
Larynx
Trachea
117
The respiratory diverticulum is also called ________________
Laryngeotracheal diverticulum
118
The trachea is formed from what part of the respiratory diverticulum?
Proximal part
119
At week 4, the 2 bronchial buds become principal bronchii and divide into __________________ and __________________
Right principal bronchus
Left principal bronchus
120
Which principal bronchus is more aligned to the trachea?
Right principal bronchus
121
At week 5, the principal bronchii subdivide into secondary bronchii, ____________________ and intersegmental bronchii
Segmental/Tertiary
122
The lungs consist of how many bronchopulmonary segments?
10
123
The partial or complete collapse of the lungs or a portion of it is called ____________
Atelectasis
124
What is tracheoesophageal fistula?
This is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and the trachea
125
The most common type of Tracheoesophageal fistula is _________
Type A
With an 85-90% rate
126
Type A TEF is characterised by ________________
Esophagus upper part blind pouch
Lower part connects to trachea
127
The rare condition where the trachea is narrowed is called ____________
Tracheal stenosis
128
Outline the stages of lung maturation
Pseudoglandular stage
Canalicular stage
Saccular stage
Alveolar stage
129
The first stage of lung maturation occurs from week _____ to ______
5 to 16
130
The second stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?
Week 16 to 26
131
The third stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?
Week 26 till birth
132
Thd fourth stage of lung maturation occurs from when to when?
8 months to 8 years
133
Mention one event that occurs in the pseudoglandular stage of lung maturation
Basic lung structures are formed up to the terminal bronchioles
Respiratory structures are absent
134
The terminal bronchiole of the lungs are lined by __________________ epithelium
Simple cuboidal
135
Mention one event that occurs in the canalicular stage of lung maturation
Respiratory elements are formed
Lung tissue is well vascularised
136
Mention one event that occurs at the saccular stage of lung maturation
Alveolar sacs are formed in large numbers
Capillaries bulge into developing sacs
Intimate contact between epithelium of sac and endothelium of capillaries
137
Mention one event that occurs at the alveolar stage of lung maturation
Formation of true alveoli
Type II pneumocytes produce a sufficient amount of surfactant
Free exchange of gases across the blood-air barrier is formed
138
Mention 4 places by which lung fluids are cleared
Pulmonary artery
Mouth
Nose
Veins
Capillaries
Lymphatics
139
Adequate volume of amniotic fluid
Adequate thoracic space
Fetal breathing movements
The above are factors affecting ___________________
Lung development
140
Surfactant deficiency leads to a congenital defect called _______________
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
