Systems 1 Flashcards
(269 cards)
1
Q
The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?
A
The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position
2
Q
Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component?
A
RMU (Radio Management Unit)
3
Q
True or False? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller.
A
True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.
4
Q
Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?
A
Elevator
5
Q
True or False? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability.
A
False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and DME capability.
6
Q
Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)?
A
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
7
Q
Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?
A
The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass
8
Q
True or False? The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from birdstrikes.
A
False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.
9
Q
Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?
A
The generator function of the starter/generator.
10
Q
Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
A
Hydraulic
11
Q
Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?
A
Ailerons
12
Q
What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
A
Rocket motor
13
Q
True or False? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.
A
False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.
14
Q
Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
A
Aerobatic 24 volt battery
15
Q
Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
A
Environment control system
16
Q
Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
A
Radio Management Unit (RMU)
17
Q
True or False? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
A
False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
18
Q
Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
A
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
19
Q
In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
A
The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406.0 MHz.
20
Q
The engine cowling does all of the following except __________. (B/1/1)
a. protect the engine components
b. decrease drag
c. include an air inlet to the engine
d. secure the engine to the frame
A
d
21
Q
The purpose of the inertial separator is to __________. (B/1/2)
a. separate cool incoming air and hot exhaust gases
b. remove water that may get in the fuel tanks
c. keep debris away from the engine
d. distribute air evenly over the wings
A
c
22
Q
The compressor and power turbines are physically connected. (B/2/1)
a. True
b. False
A
False
23
Q
What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/2/2)
a. Heat, smoke, and fire
b. Air, oil, and fuel
c. Gas, oil, and heat
d. Air, fuel, and heat
A
d
24
Q
As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided. (B/3/1)
a. True
b. False
A
True
25
Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False
False
26
The primary purpose of the ignition system is to __________. (B/4/2)
a. mix fuel and compressed air in the combustion chamber
b. turn the compressor turbine until engine start
c. ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
d. turn the starter motor until combustion
c
27
Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the rear PCL. (B/5/1)
a. True
b. False
True
28
When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be __________. (B/5/2)
a. in the START/IDLE detent position
b. in the IDLE position
c. pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
d. pushed forward until a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated
c
29
The PMU is located __________. (B/6/1)
a. underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
b. on the reduction gearbox, next to the propeller interface unit
c. in the left avionics bay
d. in the front cockpit
a
30
11. The PMU performs the following functions, except __________. (B/6/2)
a. maintain operating limits
b. process power requests
c. determine available power
d. release the correct amount of fuel
d
31
The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU __________. (B/6/3)
a. is regulating normal fuel flow
b. is ready for operation
c. needs maintenance
d. is monitoring engine operation
c
32
After engine start, the starter becomes a generator.
a. True
b. False
True
33
The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances.
a. True
b. False
False
34
If oil pressure is __________ psi or below at IDLE power, the red OIL PX annunciator will illuminate.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 40
d. 90
a
35
If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, __________ will be illuminated.
a. the amber OIL PX annunciator
b. the red OIL PX annunciator
c. both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
d. neither OIL PX annunciator
c
36
The chip detector sensor is located in the __________. (C/2/3)
a. oil tank
b. cool oil return line
c. cooling assembly
d. reduction gearbox
d
37
The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, except the __________. (C/2/4)
a. propeller
b. reduction gears
c. engine
d. wheel brakes
d
38
The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from __________ RPM to propeller speeds of __________ RPM. (D/1/1)
a. 4000; 1000
b. 5000; 1000
c. 20,000; 2000
d. 30,000; 2000
d
39
The phase shift torque probe monitors __________. (D/1/2)
a. starter/generator torque
b. compressor turbine torque
c. propeller speed
d. blade angle torque
c
40
The PIU __________. (D/1/3)
a. connects the propeller to the propeller shaft
b. sends propeller data to each cockpit
c. regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
d. None of the above
c
41
If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the __________ position. (D/1/4)
a. feathered
b. low pitch
c. high pitch
d. medium pitch
a
42
Varying levels of thrust are achieved by changing __________. (D/1/5)
a. propeller pitch
b. compressor turbine speed
c. propeller speed
d. power turbine speed
a
43
The PMU
a. displays available power in each cockpit.
b. records flight data.
c. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits.
d. processes all data for the alternate engine data display.
c
44
If the oil filter gets clogged,
a. the system uses unfiltered oil.
b. an OIL FIL annunciator illuminates.
c. oil is routed through a new oil filter.
d. oil pressure will be lost.
a
45
In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between __________ and __________ psi.
a. 40; 90
b. 50; 80
c. 90; 120
d. 90; 140
c
46
The phase shift torque probe is located
a. on the compressor turbine.
b. in the reduction gearbox.
c. in the compressor section of the engine.
d. in the propeller nose cone.
b
47
Propeller pitch refers to the
a. angle of the propeller blades.
b. sound the propeller makes.
c. size of the propeller blades.
d. direction of rotation.
a
48
Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
a. High pitch
b. Low pitch
c. Medium pitch
d. Feather
d
49
The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by using
a. hydraulic pressure.
b. a stepper motor.
c. oil pressure.
d. air pressure.
c
50
The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at
a. 1900.
b. 2000.
c. 2100.
d. 2200.
b
51
The power turbine is driven by
a. the starter motor.
b. the propeller.
c. a mechanical connection to the compressor turbine.
d. expanding gases.
d
52
During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above __________ psi.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 90
b
53
All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False
False
54
The EDM is located __________. (B/1/2)
a. in the front cockpit
b. on the accessory gear box
c. in the environmental control systems compartment
d. in the left avionics bay
d
55
On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the N1 gauge located?
On the Primary Engine Data Display (PEED)
56
All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display. (B/2/2)
a. True
b. False
True
57
In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by __________. (B/2/3)
a. generating an aural tone
b. going blank for 3 seconds
c. flashing the word WARNING on the display
d. changing color
d
58
In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground? (B/2/4)
a. 52 – 75%
b. 60 – 68%
c. 62 – 80%
d. 80 – 100%
c
59
On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the fuel guage located?
On the Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD).
60
All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU. (B/3/2)
a. True
b. False
False
61
On the alternate engine data display, ΔP measures the __________. (B/3/3)
a. difference between cockpit altitude and outside altitude
b. difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
c. fuel difference between wing tanks
d. difference between optimal and actual hydraulic pressure
b
62
On which Electronic Instrument Display(EID) is the Oil Pressure guage located?
On the Engine/Systems Display
63
The engine/systems display provides __________. (B/4/2)
a. oil temperature, oil pressure, fuel quantity, and fuel flow
b. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and OAT
c. RITT, fuel quantity, fuel flow, DC volts, and DC amps
d. oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, DC volts, and DC amps
d
64
Normal operating range for the oil pressure gauge is 90 – 140 psi. (B/4/3)
a. True
b. False
False
65
Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing handle back in. (B/5/1)
a. True
b. False
True
66
When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if __________ and the aural tone sounds. (B/5/2)
a. a green FIRE DET annunciator is illuminated
b. the MASTER CAUT annunciator illuminates
c. the FIRE DET switch will return to the neutral position
d. the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
d
67
The engine data manager does not
a. monitor engine operating parameters.
b. illuminate appropriate advisory, caution, or warning annunciators.
c. drive the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays.
d. control all electronic displays in the cockpit.
d
68
The primary engine data display system
a. records engine data for aircraft analysis.
b. governs engine operating parameters.
c. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operation.
a. transmits engine data to the control tower.
c
69
The engine data manager is located
a. underneath the engine, near the PMU.
b. on the reduction gearbox.
c. in the left avionics bay.
d. on the engine shaft, next to the PIU.
c
70
The alternate engine data display serves as a backup to the primary engine data display, and therefore displays some of the same data.
a. True
b. False
True
71
The primary engine data display provides
a. torque, RITT, N1, fuel quantity, and fuel flow.
b. N1, NP, IOAT, cockpit altitude, and ΔP.
c. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT.
d. fuel flow, fuel quantity, oil pressure, oil temperature, and IOAT.
c
72
The engine/systems display does not display __________ data in each cockpit.
a. outside environmental
b. hydraulic system
c. oil system
d. electrical system
a
73
What is displayed on the Alternate Engine Data Display (AEDD)?
```
Torque
R ITT (Raw ITT)
N1
Cockpit ALT
Delta pressure
Fuel Quantity
Fuel Flow
```
74
All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
a. True
b. False
False
75
The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to
a. switch between fire warning and engine overheat functions.
b. turn the fire warning system on and off.
c. switch between the primary and backup system.
d. test the integrity of the fire warning system
d
76
Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do?
Begin abort start procedure
77
What are the types of abnormal start?
Hot, hung, no start
78
What are the indications of a hot start?
High/rapidly rising ITT, lower N1, lower NP
79
What are the indications of a hung start?
Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower NP
80
What are the indications of no start?
No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication
81
What are some possible display indications of engine failure in flight?
a. Initial indications: Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN Lights and tone; propeller moves toward feather
b. Accompanying indications: Rapidly decreasing ITT, NP; lower than normal oil pressure; engine noise; GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators
82
What are the indications of PMU failure?
Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone
83
What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather?
Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise
84
What are some sensory indications of engine fire in flight?
See smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or roughness
85
The power turbine is driven by __________.
Expanding gases
86
What does FEVER stand for?
```
Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure,
Excessive turbine temperature,
Visual indications (smoke),
Erratic engine operation,
Roughness or vibration
```
87
What are the three engine sections?
Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section
88
What functions are performed by the PMU?
Maintain operating limits,
process power requests,
control engine and propeller,
provide near linear power response.
89
What is the purpose of the PIU?
Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
90
What are some possible causes of engine failure in flight?
Fuel starvation,
mechanical failure,
compressor stall
91
What are the engine fire warning indicators?
FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone
92
What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?
Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
93
What are some possible indications of engine fire in flight that may be seen on the engine displays?
High ITT; Fluctuating: Oil temperature and pressure, Hydraulic pressure
94
What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses? (B/1/1)
a. Battery switch
b. Bus tie switch
c. Generator switch
d. Circuit breakers
b
95
The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a __________ located under a panel in the rear cockpit. (B/2/1)
a. voltage regulator
b. generator overvoltage monitor
c. generator control unit
d. starter/generator accessory box
c
96
Generator power is controlled by the __________ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit. (B/2/2)
a. bus tie (BUS TIE)
b. generator reset (GEN RESET)
c. generator control (GEN)
d. auxiliary battery (AUX BAT)
c
97
The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the __________. (B/3/1)
a. front cockpit battery bus
b. front cockpit avionics bus
c. rear cockpit generator bus
d. rear cockpit battery bus
b
98
Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit __________. (B/3/2)
a. right forward switch panel
b. battery bus circuit breaker panel only
c. generator bus circuit breaker panel only
d. battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
d
99
A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the __________. (B/3/3)
a. aft battery
b. rear cockpit generator bus
c. rear cockpit battery bus
d. auxiliary battery
c
100
Except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through __________ on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit. (B/3/4)
a. an avionics master switch
b. a master battery switch
c. an auxiliary battery switch
d. a bus tie switch
a
101
An amber __________ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch. (B/3/5)
a. TIE OPEN
b. BUS FAIL
c. BUS TIE
d. BUS OPEN
c
102
Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the __________ in each cockpit. (B/4/1)
a. right forward switch panel
b. left console panel
c. trim control panel
d. right console panel
b
103
Each circuit breaker is marked with the maximum __________ it will allow to pass before popping. (B/4/2)
a. current load in amperes
b. current load in volts
c. voltage load in amperes
d. voltage load in volts
a
104
Battery power is controlled through __________ on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit. (B/5/1)
a. an avionics master switch
b. a battery switch
c. an auxiliary battery switch
d. a bus tie switch
b
105
A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test the __________ during preflight checks. (B/5/2)
a. starter/generator
b. battery charge circuits
c. standby battery
d. auxiliary battery
d
106
External power is controlled by the __________ and distributed on the __________. (B/5/3)
a. generator control switch; generator bus
b. avionics master switch; avionics bus
c. external power switch; external power bus
d. battery switch; battery bus
d
107
Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer, and the GPS control panel is adjusted using the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. (B/6/1)
a. True
b. False
b
108
__________ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light. (B/6/2)
a. Console
b. Utility
c. Instrument
d. Knee board
b
109
The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and the landing gear __________. (B/6/3)
a. switch is activated
b. is being extended
c. doors are opened
d. is down and locked
d
110
When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wingtip __________. (B/6/4)
a. flash alternately with the anti-collision strobe lights
b. are constantly illuminated
c. are illuminated only at night
d. flash alternately with the red and green navigation lights
b
111
The generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying __________ amps.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400
c
112
The generator can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the generator
a. mode switch.
b. control switch.
c. switch panel.
d. transfer switch.
b
113
Which switch provides power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except the backup UHF control head).
AVIONICS MASTER switch
114
If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected __________ will open, shutting off current flow to that component or circuit.
a. relay
b. circuit breaker
c. fuse panel
d. breaker bar
b
115
The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the
a. battery switch.
b. auxiliary battery test switch.
c. battery crossfeed switch.
d. master control switch.
d
116
Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the __________ in each cockpit.
a. right forward switch panel
b. generator control panel
c. trim control panel
d. annunciator panel
c
117
The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the
a. left main landing gear strut.
b. nosewheel strut.
c. left wingtip navigation lights.
d. right main landing gear strut.
d
118
A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti-collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the
a. right side of the rear cockpit.
b. right side of the front cockpit.
c. left side of the rear cockpit.
d. left side of the front cockpit.
d
119
Which annunciator illuminates if the bus tie switch is set to open?
Color?
BUS TIE
| AMBER
120
The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are __________ VDC units.
a. 20
b. 24
c. 28
d. 30
b
121
The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False
False
122
When using the primary refueling method, the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is approximately __________ pounds. (B/2/1)
a. 1050
b. 1100
c. 1180
d. 1200
b
123
The collector tank holds a maximum of approximately __________ pounds of fuel. (B/2/2)
a. 40
b. 178
c. 530
d. 1100
a
124
What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A? (B/3/1)
a. Over the wing gravity refueling
b. Single point pressure refueling
c. Combat refueling
d. In-flight refueling
b
125
Using the single point pressure refueling method, approximately how long does it take to refuel the aircraft? (B/3/2)
a. 1 to 3 minutes
b. 3 to 5 minutes
c. 5 to 7 minutes
d. 7 to 10 minutes
b
126
The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called __________. (B/3/3)
a. over the wing gravity refueling
b. single point pressure refueling
c. combat refueling
d. in-flight refueling
a
127
The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the __________. (B/4/1)
a. fuel flow transmitter
b. low pressure vent line
c. engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
d. refuel/defuel valve
c
128
The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps? (B/4/2)
a. Primary jet pump and high pressure pump
b. Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
c. High pressure pump and spill/vent pump
d. Engine-driven fuel pump and high pressure pump
b
129
The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used after engine start? (B/4/3)
a. Electric boost pump
b. Engine-driven fuel pump
c. Primary jet pump
d. Transfer jet pumps
c
130
During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the __________. (B/4/5)
a. main wing tanks
b. purge line
c. collector tank
d. motive flow line
c
131
Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low pressure switch. (B/5/3)
a. True
b. False
True
132
Which switch activates the respective transfer (solenoid) valve and closes the motive flow line to the light tank.
MANUAL FUEL BAL switch
133
The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float valves. (B/6/1)
a. True
b. False
False
134
The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within __________ pounds of the other wing. (B/6/2)
a. 20
b. 40
c. 65
d. 100
a
135
Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is __________ pounds.
a. 500
b. 530
c. 560
d. 620
b
136
The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of __________ seconds of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation.
a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
D
137
Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
a. Tanker refueling
b. Combat refueling
c. Single point pressure refueling
d. Over the wing gravity refueling
c
138
Which annunciator will light along with the BOOST PUMP annunciator to indicate low fuel pressure delivery to the engine.
FUEL PX annunciator
139
Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
a. Fuel flow transmitter
b. Motive flow line
c. Flip-flop valve
d. Transfer (solenoid) valve
d
140
The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by
a. the generator.
b. Venturi flow.
c. the primary battery.
d. ram air flow.
b
141
How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 25 minutes
d. The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
d
142
Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
a. Purge line
b. Motive flow line
c. Pressure relief line
d. Cross vent line
b
143
The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below __________ pounds.
a. 75
b. 115
c. 150
d. 185
c
144
During normal operation, while the bus tie is closed, which electrical buses does the generator supply?
Both generator and battery buses are powered by the generator.
145
The GCU is located under a side panel in which cockpit?
The GCU is under a panel on the right side of the rear cockpit.
146
Generator and battery buses are tied together through which switch?
Bus tie switch
147
Power for aircraft avionics is supplied by which bus?
Both generator and battery buses supply power to avionics and radios.
148
Battery bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit?
Battery bus circuit breakers are located on the left side of the cockpit.
149
Control of battery power is transferable between cockpits using what?
Battery power control is transferable using the battery switch.
150
True or false? The auxiliary battery will activate automatically upon failure of the primary battery.
False. It must be activated by the auxiliary battery switch.
151
The landing and taxi lights are activated by the LDG and TAXI switches when the gear is __________.
down and locked
152
The navigation lights at the leading edge wingtips are what colors?
Red at the left wingtip and green at the right wingtip
153
Using single point refueling, the T-6A’s maximum usable fuel is how many pounds?
1100 pounds
154
Which refueling method allows more fuel to be pumped into the wing tanks?
Over-the-wing gravity refueling
155
The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are operated by what means?
The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are both operated by Venturi flow generated by fuel flowing in the motive flow line.
156
Data from the fuel flow transmitter is displayed on what instrument?
The AEDD (Alternate Engine Data Display)
157
AEDD fuel quantity indications are derived from how many sensors in the fuel tanks?
Seven
158
What is indicated if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted?
The fuel balance switch on the right forward switch panel has been set to MAN/RESET.
159
True or false? The weight of fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the AEDD.
True. Collector tank fuel is split between the left and right fuel quantity indications.
160
Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank?
Float valve
161
If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops motive flow to which tank?
Motive flow is halted to the light tank.
162
The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate if the fuel weight difference between the left and right tanks exceeds what figure for more than 2 minutes?
30
163
Which are the annunciator indications of the current limiter and/or actual bus failure?
```
BAT BUS (RED)
OIL PX (RED)
HYDR FL LO (AMBER)
PMU STATUS (AMBER)
TRIM OFF (GREEN)
```
164
The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what?
Low fuel pressure
165
The generator supplies what voltage to the generator and battery buses?
28 volts DC
166
The anti-collision strobe lights are located where?
The strobe lights are located on each wingtip near the leading edge.
167
External power is distributed on which bus?
Battery bus
168
Gravity refueling adds how many total pounds to the T-6A normal capacity?
100 pounds
169
Generator bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit?
Right side
170
What is wrong? You have lost all EID - except EADI and EHSI, and the following annunciators are illuminated:
MASTER WARN and MASTER CAUT
GEN BUS, FUEL BAL, TAD FAIL and TAD OFF
Failure of the generator bus
171
True or false? Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially beginning with the collector tank.
False. Single-point refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously.
172
The control for which shutoff valve is located in the cockpit?
The firewall shutoff valve control is located on the left console of the front cockpit.
173
Which annunciator illuminates if the autobalance system has failed or if the difference in weight between the left and right tanks exceeds 30 pounds for more than 2 minutes?
The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate in these instances.
174
Which electrical component provides power for engine starts?
The primary battery
175
The ailerons control movement of the aircraft in the __________ axis. (B/2/1)
a. lateral or pitch
b. vertical or yaw
c. longitudinal or roll
c
176
Which of the following is not a part of the aileron control system? (B/2/2)
a. Left and right aileron
b. Bellcranks
c. TAD
d. Push-pull rods
e. Front and rear control sticks
c
177
The elevator controls aircraft movement around the lateral or pitch axis. (B/3/1)
a. True
b. False
True
178
What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick? (B/3/2)
a. Provides for static balancing of the elevator
b. Provides a connection between the two control sticks
c. Enhances control feedback and helps prevent overstressing of the airframe
d. Mechanically limits the amount of elevator travel
c
179
The rudder controls aircraft movement around the vertical or yaw axis. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False
True
180
Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the __________. (B/4/2)
a. left console
b. lower portion of the center console
c. right side of the cockpit
d. upper portion of the center console
b
181
Which flight control electromechanical trim system(s) utilize movement of the actual primary control surface? (B/5/1)
a. Aileron
b. Elevator
c. Rudder
d. Flaps
a
182
In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rear cockpit, the front cockpit input will take priority. (B/5/2)
a. True
b. False
False
183
Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the __________. (B/5/3)
a. triple trim indicator on the center instrument panel
b. trim annunciator system
c. TAD control panel on the center console
d. trim position indicators located on both trim control panels
d
184
A primary purpose of the TAD system is to assist the pilot __________. (B/6/1)
a. in maintaining roll trim
b. in maintaining pitch trim
c. by maintaining reduced control stick forces
d. in maintaining directional trim
d
185
The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on __________. (B/6/2)
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
b. engine torque, rudder pedal control forces, and altitude
c. altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM
d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and temperature
a
186
In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the __________ annunciator light. (B/6/3)
a. NO TRIM
b. TAD OFF
c. RUDDER INOP
d. ELEVATOR FAIL
b
187
What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged? (B/7/1)
a. Elevator
b. Rudder
c. Ailerons
d. All of the above
d
188
The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the
a. electromechanical trim system, TAD, ailerons, and rudder.
b. ailerons, Trim Aid Device, and elevator.
c. ailerons, elevator, and rudder.
d. control stick, PCL, and rudder pedals.
c
189
Which of the following best describes the function of the aircraft’s elevator?
a. The elevator system is used to cause movement around the longitudinal or roll axis.
b. The elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch axis.
c. The elevator system is used to cause movement in the vertical or yaw axis.
d. The elevator system’s primary function is to assist the pilot in maintaining directional stability.
b
190
The aileron ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only and should not be tampered with by the aircrew.
a. True
b. False
True
191
Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
a. Provides increased aileron sensitivity during high speed flight
b. Provides increased rudder authority during low altitude turns
c. Prevents aircraft overcontrolling by the Trim Aid Device
d. Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
d
192
Which of the following is not included in the rudder control system?
a. Centering springs
b. Cables
c. Bellcrank
d. Bobweight
d
193
Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed on the right aileron.
a. True
b. False
false
194
The Trim Aid Device (TAD) computer relays trim input to the
a. elevator trim tab actuator.
b. rudder trim tab actuator.
c. rudder pedals.
d. aileron trim system.
b
195
The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until __________ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
a. 40
b. 60
c. 80
d. 100
c
196
A green TAD OFF annunciator will illuminate when
a. there is an internal failure of the TAD system.
b. there is a failure of the rudder tab actuator.
c. the TRIM DISCONNECT switch is placed in the YAW CONNECT position.
d. the TRIM AID switch is set to off.
d
197
The flight control gust lock is used to
a. prevent aircraft overcontrol during gusty landing conditions.
b. lock the secondary flight control surfaces when parked.
c. lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked.
d. lock only the elevator and rudder when parked.
c
198
What are the four devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations? (B/1/1)
a. Landing gear/main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and trim aid device
b. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering
c. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and flight controls
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and lights
b
199
The hydraulic system and the return side of the power package reservoir are pressurized to which levels respectively? (B/1/2)
a. 2000 ±120 and 50 psi
b. 2000 ±120 and 60 psi
c. 3000 ±120 and 40 psi
d. 3000 ±120 and 50 psi
d
200
When you select a cockpit control to lower the flaps, which element of the primary hydraulic system is responsible for activating the corresponding actuator? (B/1/3)
a. Reservoir piston
b. Electrical selector valve
c. Main strut
d. Release valve
b
201
During the loss of engine power, the primary hydraulic system, or the battery bus, the emergency package will allow a one-time extension of__________. (B/2/1)
a. flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering
b. flaps, landing gear, and speed brake
c. flaps, landing gear and main gear inboard doors
d. flaps, landing gear and main gear inboard doors, and speed brake
c
202
The emergency package’s manifold contains which of the following? (B/2/2)
a. Two emergency extension selector valves
b. Two metal bellows compressing helium gas
c. Two actuators
d. 2000 psi emergency accumulator
a
203
What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system? (B/2/3)
a. To activate the actuators
b. To automatically release pressure should it reach 3500 psi
c. To prevent engine fires
d. To provide manual reduction in pressure in the emergency accumulator
b
204
When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it means that emergency accumulator hydraulic pressure is below __________ ±150 psi. (B/2/4)
a. 1790
b. 1880
c. 2400
d. 3000
c
205
Which set of landing gear doors are operated hydraulically? (C/1/1)
a. The nosewheel doors
b. The main gear inboard and outboard doors
c. The main gear inboard doors
d. The main gear outboard doors
c
206
A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching IDLE, with the gear handle up, or which of the following? (C/2/1)
a. The landing gear doors are up and locked.
b. The landing gear doors are not closed.
c. The landing gear circuit breaker needs to be reset.
d. The landing gear is malfunctioning.
b
207
Before extending the landing gear, __________. (C/2/3)
a. activate the aural warning silence button
b. reduce airspeed below 150 KIAS
c. ensure at least 2000 psi is available
d. reduce airspeed below 120 KIAS
b
208
What is the function of the emergency landing gear extension handle? (C/3/1)
a. It releases hydraulic pressure once it reaches 3500 psi.
b. It activates the emergency system.
c. It closes the slide valve assembly.
d. It activates the accumulator piston.
b
209
What is the indication of gears down and locked and main gear doors in transit?
Three green lights + 2 red lights for the main gears.
210
The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
a. 1790 ±120 psi
b. 2000 ±120 psi
c. 3000 ±120 psi
d. 3600 ±120 psi
c
211
The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, and trim aid device
b. Landing gear, flaps, nosewheel steering, trim aid device, and speed brake
c. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nosewheel steering, and speed brake
d. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and wheel brakes
c
212
What is true about the power package reservoir?
a. It releases excess pressure at 1790 psi.
b. It is pressurized using compressed nitrogen gas.
c. It is pressurized using compressed helium gas.
d. A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump.
d
213
The primary hydraulic system’s selector manifold contains which of the following?
a. Engine-driven pump
b. Electrical selector valves
c. Actuators
d. Reservoir piston
b
214
Two specific conditions in which the emergency hydraulic system is used are:
a. The pressure drops below 3000 psi, and you’re below 6000 feet
b. Loss of engine power or the primary hydraulic system fails
c. Loss of engine power and the airspeed is less than 120 knots
d. More than a 2-second drop in pressure, and altitude is less than 6000 feet
b
215
The emergency hydraulic system specifically operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, flaps, and speed brake
b. Landing gear, main gear doors, speed brake, and flaps
c. Landing gear, main gear doors, nose gear doors, and flaps
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
d
216
The emergency package receives its pressure from which of the following?
a. Directly from a nitrogen pre-charge in the reservoir
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. Directly from the reservoir piston
d. From the emergency selector valves
b
217
Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the
a. flaps are retracted.
b. airspeed is below 120 KIAS.
c. flap handle is in the LAND position and airspeed less than 120 KIAS.
d. airspeed is below 150 KIAS.
d
218
The amber EHYD PX LO annunciator light means which of the following?
a. Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2400 psi ±150
b. Pressure in the reservoir is below 3000 ±120 psi
c. Pressure in the emergency package is below 2870 psi
d. Pressure in the emergency package is below 1 Qt
a
219
The HYDR FL LO annunciator means which of the following?
a. Fluid level is below .5 Qt
b. Fluid level is below 1790 psi
c. Accumulator fluid level is below 1 Qt
d. Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt
d
220
When the power package slide valve closes, the hydraulic pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the
a. main landing gear actuator.
b. nosewheel steering actuator.
c. flap actuator.
d. emergency selector manifold.
b
221
What does using flaps in the landing setting allow you to do? (B/1/1)
a. Maintain approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
b. Decrease approach glidepath while maintaining airspeed
c. Decrease approach glidepath while increasing airspeed
d. Maintain approach glidepath while reducing airspeed
d
222
What happens if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/1/2)
a. The flaps cannot be used until they are serviced on the ground.
b. The electrical FLAPS CONT circuit breaker must be reset.
c. The flaps can be operated using the emergency system package.
d. The emergency system provides a one-time lowering and retraction of the flaps.
c
223
Before operating the flaps using the emergency system, you must __________. (B/1/3)
a. check the flaps visually to find their position
b. increase your speed above 150 KIAS
c. check the annunciator panel for the BATTERY BUS indicator
d. lower the landing gear using the emergency system
d
224
Which of the following is a critical limitation of the speed brake? (B/2/1)
a. The speed brake will only extend if the flaps are extended.
b. The speed brake does not operate using the emergency hydraulic system.
c. The speed brake extends automatically if the PCL is moved to the MAX position.
d. The speed brake’s actuator is a part of the selector manifold.
b
225
Where does the pressure come from that creates the mechanical force to extend the speed brake? (B/2/2)
a. From the primary hydraulic system
b. From the emergency accumulator
c. From the turning of the torque tube
d. From the circuit breaker placarded SPEED BRAKE on the generator bus circuit breaker panel
a
226
Which of the following is an important difference between using the NWS or differential braking? (B/3/1)
a. Differential braking results in a wider turn radius than NWS.
b. NWS is more sensitive than differential braking.
c. Differential braking should be avoided above 20 knots.
d. NWS provides a tighter turn radius than differential braking.
b
227
What happens to NWS if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/3/2)
a. The NWS receives its hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator.
b. The pilot must manually deselect NWS.
c. NWS sensitivity will increase because of differential pressure.
d. The NWS system will be inoperative and use of rudder and/or differential braking on the ground will be necessary.
d
228
Which is true regarding the wheel brake system? (B/4/1)
a. If the hydraulic system fails, the parking brake must be used.
b. The wheel brakes are not serviced by the emergency system, and will not be available if the primary system fails.
c. The wheel brake system will continue to operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The wheel brake system shares the primary hydraulic system pressure lines.
c
229
Which is the procedure for activating the parking brake? (B/4/2)
a. Pull and turn the handle 90° counterclockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
b. Push and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
c. Pull the handle while pushing on the toe brakes.
d. Pull and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
d
230
Which is true regarding the nosewheel steering system?
a. NWS has only one actuator in the manifold.
b. The emergency system provides pressure to NWS through the alternate hydraulic lines.
c. The NWS is separate from the selector manifold.
d. NWS has two actuators in the manifold.
c
231
Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
a. The emergency system powers the NWS through the accumulator.
b. The NWS will not operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
c. Differential braking will not work if the primary hydraulic system fails.
d. The emergency system powers the NWS through the selector control valve.
b
232
Which component specifically ensures the nosewheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
a. Selector valve
b. Centering valve
c. Servo valve
d. Rotary actuator
b
233
Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in
a. directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.
b. damage to the nosewheel steering actuator.
c. damage to the nosewheel steering centering valve.
d. the speed brake automatically extending, slowing the aircraft down.
a
234
What are the functions of the speed brake?
a. Reduce drag and reduce lift
b. Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
c. Increase drag and accelerate
d. Increase true airspeed while reducing induced and parasite drag
b
235
Which is true regarding the speed brake?
a. It will not operate using the emergency system.
b. It extends only partially using the emergency system.
c. It extends but will not retract using the emergency system.
d. It will remain extended until the PCL is moved to IDLE.
a
236
Which of the following will not cause the speed brake to retract?
a. The PCL is moved to MAX.
b. The flaps are extended.
c. The speed brake switch is moved forward.
d. The gear is retracted.
d
237
If the flap indicator fails, how can flap extension be confirmed?
a. Observing a slight nose down tendency
b. Observing a slight nose up tendency
c. The pilot must visually confirm the flap position
d. By using the hydraulic pressure gauge
b
238
Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
a. Normal flap operation is available when the battery bus has failed.
b. The flap position indicator will function normally when the battery bus has failed.
c. Emergency flap operation is not available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
d. Emergency flap operation is available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
c
239
Which is true regarding the parking brake?
a. The parking brake will not operate if the hydraulic system fails.
b. It is activated by first pulling and turning the handle 90° clockwise or counterclockwise.
c. The parking brake will operate partially using the emergency system.
d. The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
d
240
Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
a. 120 KIAS
b. 138 KIAS
c. 147 KIAS
d. 150 KIAS
d
241
Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
a. Selector valve
b. Reservoir
c. Master cylinder
d. Solenoid valve
c
242
The __________ is/are interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch trim to compensate for pitch effects as it is operated.
a. landing gear
b. flaps
c. rudder
d. speed brake
d
243
What are the aileron trailing edge traveling limits?
a. 20º up
| b. 11º down
244
How are the ailerons mass balanced and what function does this perform?
Small weights are placed along the leading edge at the point where the ailerons pivot. These weights ensure the center of gravity for each aileron is at the pivot point. This is necessary because the mass of each aileron is rearward of the hinge line.
245
What is the function of the bobweight?
a. Provides heavier stick force when G-load is increasing
| b. Helps prevent overstressing of aircraft frame
246
Which primary flight control surface actually moves as part of the trim system?
The ailerons
247
What is the function of the trim disconnect switch?
It removes power from the trim system and disengages the Trim Aid Device.
248
What are the indications the trim disconnect switch has been selected?
The green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciator lights will illuminate.
249
How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system?
Through a circuit breaker placarded AIL/EL TRIM located on the battery bus breaker panel in the front cockpit
250
If the gust lock is installed properly, how will the control surfaces appear when they are visually inspected?
The ailerons and rudder will be in a neutral position and the elevator will be in a nose-down position.
251
What component is the source of pressure for the primary hydraulic system?
The engine-driven hydraulic pump
252
What gauge color indicates hydraulic pressure is in the extended scale, but within safe operating limits?
White
253
What is the purpose of the emergency hydraulic system?
It provides a one-time lowering of the landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps.
254
When is the emergency landing gear extension system used?
Loss of either primary hydraulic system or battery bus power, or in the event of an engine failure
255
What is the normal sequence for the emergency extension of the landing gear?
a. Lower the landing gear selector handle
| b. Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle
256
Can the flaps be operated in the event the primary hydraulic system fails?
Yes, after the landing gear has been lowered using the emergency system.
257
What is the purpose of the speed brake?
The speed brake allows you to decelerate. It also allows you to increase descent rate without increasing your airspeed.
258
Where is the SPEED BRAKE circuit breaker located?
On the front cockpit generator bus circuit breaker panel
259
What can happen if NWS is engaged at high taxi speeds?
It can result in directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.
260
Which has the larger turn radius, nosewheel steering or differential braking?
Nosewheel steering
261
What are the indications of abnormal primary flight control operations?
a. Uncommanded pitch, roll, or yaw movements
| b. Sluggish response to control inputs
262
What is the corrective action to take in the case of runaway trim?
Perform runaway trim checklist procedures
263
If the EHYD PX LO illuminates, what aircraft devices should you consider inoperative?
Emergency landing gear and flap extension
264
What are some indications of unsafe landing gear?
a. Indicator lights
b. Lack of noticeable drag
c. Lack of noticeable noise
d. AOA indexer not active
e. Inability to turn on landing or taxi lights
f. Tendency to roll (main gear)
265
What indicator lights would illuminate with the main landing gear full down, the nose gear still fully retracted, and the PCL above IDLE?
Two green mains, two red mains, red gear handle light
266
When lowering flaps using the emergency system, what two conditions might result?
The flaps might extend only partially and they can take longer to extend.
267
What are the indications of wheel brake failure?
a. Inability to maintain directional control
b. Inability to decelerate
c. “Spongy” or soft brake pedal
d. The aircraft pulls to one side
268
When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension sequence?
The main gear inboard doors
269
What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
The gear doors are not closed, or the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
