Systems 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What does EFIS abbreviate?
A
Electronic Flight Instrument System
2
Q
What does the EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) consist of?
A
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator
Electronic Horisontal Situation Indicator
The EFIS Control Panel
3
Q
The electronic instrument displays (EID) receive sensor data from the __________. (B/1/2)
a. Air Data Computer (ADC)
b. Electronic Decoder Control (EDC)
c. primary pitot static system
d. Electronic Attitude director Indicator (EADI)
A
a
4
Q
Which of the following is a standby instrument? (B/1/3)
a. Turn and bank indicator
b. Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
c. Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
d. Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI)
A
a
5
Q
Both the EADI and EHSI operate in the __________ modes. (B/2/1)
a. enroute and approach
b. approach and landing
c. takeoff and landing
d. enroute and landing
A
a
6
Q
If the pitch values (On the ADI) approach their limits, red chevrons are used to indicate the nearest direction__________. (B/2/2)
a. to achieve inverted flight
b. for a higher altitude
c. for a normal turn attitude
d. for a level attitude recovery
A
d
7
Q
The EHSI displays a 360° rotating compass scale divided into 5 and 10° increments and referenced to a __________ (lubber line). (B/2/3)
a. amber triangular course index
b. white triangular heading index
c. amber circular heading index
d. red circular course index
A
b
8
Q
Pulling out on the HDG knob resets the HDG bug to the present aircraft __________. (B/2/4)
a. altitude
b. course
c. heading
d. speed
A
c
9
Q
The upper left corner of the EHSI contains which set of information, if selected? (B/2/5)
a. Time, temperature, and wind speed
b. Distance to selected station, aircraft groundspeed, and course heading
c. Distance to next TACAN, aircraft groundspeed, and time to go to the station
d. Distance to next selected point, aircraft groundspeed, and time to go to the next point
A
d
10
Q
When the EHSI is in HSI normal mode, pressing the map button (MAP) changes the display to the __________ mode. (B/2/6)
a. navigation map
b. weather map
c. map overlay
d. road map
A
a
11
Q
The bearing pointer select buttons are used to cycle the EHSI bearing pointers through the __________ navigation source display, __________ navigation source display, or the __________ mode. (B/2/7)
a. GPS; ILS; multiple navigation source
b. VOR; GPS; declutter
c. VOR; ILS; DME
d. DME; ILS; declutter
A
b
12
Q
On the EHSI, the course deviation bar indicates the centerline of the selected course relative to __________. (B/2/8)
a. true north
b. the aircraft symbol
c. magnetic north
d. the nose of the aircraft
A
b
13
Q
For ILS glidepath, a __________ is displayed on the right sideof the instruments with a green deviation pointer which movesin relation to the scale to indicate glidepath center with respectto aircraft position. (B/2/9)
a. stationary vertical scale
b. moving vertical scale
c. moving horizontal scale
d. stationary horizontal scale
A
a
14
Q
The VSI indicates to the pilot if the aircraft is climbing or descending, and at what __________.(B/3/1)
a. angle
b. rate
c. weight
d. time
A
b
15
Q
The VSI shows climbs or descents in feet per minute (FPM) from 0 to __________. (B/3/2)
a. 3000
b. 6000
c. 9000
d. 12,000
A
b
16
Q
The ASI Mach number window is blanked below __________ Mach. (B/3/3)
a. 0.04
b. 0.36
c. 0.40
d. 0.68
A
c
17
Q
As altitude increases, maximum operating airspeed (VMO) will __________. (B/3/4)
a. increase
b. remain constant
c. double
d. decrease
A
d
18
Q
The baro-set correction knob is used to set __________ settings in the altimeter so it displays correct altitude indications. (B/3/5)
a. indicated
b. pressure
c. density
d. minimum
A
b
19
Q
The standby instruments can be used for a limited time in the event of a failure of the aircraft primary __________ system. (B/4/1)
a. propulsion
b. electrical
c. environmental
d. hydraulic
A
b
20
Q
The red and white “barber pole” on the airspeed indicator __________. (B/4/2)
a. never moves
b. moves with the airspeed needle
c. is a velocity/Mach limiting pointer
d. is set by ground maintenance personnel
A
c
21
Q
The standby attitude indicator is caged __________. (B/4/3)
a. by placing the AHRS mode select switch to SLVD
b. automatically upon application of electrical power
c. by pulling and turning the PULL TO CAGE knob
d. by pulling and releasing the PULL TO CAGE knob
A
c
22
Q
The standby altimeter is operated by static pressure from the primary pitot/static system. (B/4/4)
a. True
b. False
A
False
23
Q
Which system is not part of the T-6A flight instruments?
a. Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
b. Air data system
c. Standby instruments
d. Environmental system
A
d
24
Q
In the composite mode, both attitude and heading information can be displayed on either the EADI or EHSI.
a. True
b. False
A
a
25
The primary pitot probe at the right wingtip and primary static ports on the sides of the aft fuselage provide necessary pressures to the
a. air data computer.
b. EFIS computer.
c. EFIS displays.
d. standby instruments.
a
26
The EFIS system provides uncluttered unusual attitude information on the EADI when the aircraft exceeds which set of predefined limits?
a. Pitch +20° or -30°, roll greater than or equal to 65°
b. Pitch +10° or -20°, roll less than 65°
c. Pitch +30° or -20°, roll angle greater than 65°
d. Pitch +30° or -20°, roll greater than 60°
c
27
The altimeter displays baro-set data is in what format?
a. Inches of mercury
b. Millibars
c. Millimeters
d. Field Elevation
d
| Altimeter displays baro-set in MB (Milibars) and IN HG (Inches Mercury
28
The conventional magnetic compass can be used in case of total electrical failure, or as an instrument cross-check.
a. True
b. False
a
29
If pitch or roll attitude failure occurs, what words appear in red letters at the top center of the EADI screen?
a. ATTITUDE CHECK
b. ATTITUDE UNUSUAL
c. BAD ATTITUDE
d. ATTITUDE FAIL
d
30
In NAV MAP mode on the EHSI, which full circle range scales are available?
a. 1, 2.5, 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, and 320 NM
b. 2.5, 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 240, and 500 NM
c. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 240, 320, and 1000 NM
d. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320, 640, and 1,200 NM
d - er det givne svar. Men "c" dækker de tal, der er angivet i undervisningsmaterialet.
31
The standby attitude indicator will supply accurate information for at least how many minutes after electrical failure?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Nine
d. Ten
c
32
If either pilot selects EFIS composite mode, the displays in the other cockpit are not affected.
a. True
b. False
b
33
The AOA computer receives inputs from the AOA vane, the flap position microswitch, and from the __________. (B/1/1)
a. trim position indicator
b. aircraft control stick
c. landing gear
d. elevator trim tab
c
34
The higher the number on the AOA gauge scale, the __________. (B/1/2)
a. greater the approach airspeed
b. lower the angle of attack
c. greater the angle of attack
d. lower the stall airspeed
c
35
The radial at __________ units on the AOA gauge indicates a stall. (B/1/3)
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18
d
36
The stick shaker activates at approximately __________ knots above stall speed, or __________ units on the AOA gauge. (B/1/4)
a. 4 to 8; 15
b. 5 to 10; 15 to 16
c. 5 to 10; 18
d. 6 to 12; 18
b
37
When the AOA test switch is held at the LOW position, the indexer shows a(n) __________ and the AOA gauge reads __________ units. (B/1/5)
a. red chevron; 7.9
b. green chevron; 18
c. amber donut; 10.5
d. green chevron; 3.6
c
38
The center pointer on the accelerometer moves up or down to indicate __________ G load. (B/2/1)
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. current
d. cumulative
c
39
Which button on the digital clock is used to move the function indicator to the desired setting? (B/3/1)
a. SEL
b. CTL
a
40
Which buttons(s) on the digital clock set(s) the minutes in LT mode. (B/3/2)
a. The minutes are set automatically by the GMT mode.
b. SEL
c. CTL
d. Both SEL and CTL, when pressed together
c
41
After reaching 59 minutes, 59 seconds, the count up timer will display hours and minutes to a limit of __________ hours and 59 minutes. (B/3/3)
a. 69
b. 79
c. 89
d. 99
d
42
The MASTER WARN and MASTER CAUT switchlights are interconnected with the __________. (B/4/1)
a. engine/electrical switch panel
b. main annunciator panel
c. trim control panel
d. environmental control panel
b
43
Anytime a warning or caution annunciator on the main annunciator panel in either cockpit lights, the respective MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUT switchlights will __________. (B/4/2)
a. illuminate steadily in both cockpits
b. flash in that same cockpit only
c. flash in both cockpits
d. illuminate steadily in the front cockpit
c
44
A flashing MASTER WARN light on the switchlight panel should be accompanied by __________. (B/4/3)
a. a 290 Hz tone repeating 5 times per second
b. six warning tones per second for 2 seconds
c. three warning tones per second for 2 seconds
d. a decaying tone
d
45
All IDARS functions are controlled __________.(B/5/1)
a. by the computer
b. from the front cockpit
c. from the rear cockpit
d. from either cockpit
a
46
The flight data recorder portion of IDARS is installed __________. (B/5/2)
a. under the front cockpit glareshield
b. in the left avionics bay
c. under the rear cockpit glareshield
d. in the right avionics bay
b
47
When IDARS reaches approximately 80% full, the __________ annunciator outboard of the anti-G connection will illuminate. (B/5/3)
a. amber MAINT
b. green FULL
c. amber FULL
d. green MAINT
d
48
The accelerometer displays instantaneous normal acceleration from __________ Gs.
a. –8 to +15
b. –6 to +10
c. –4 to +8
d. –4 to +10
b
49
To perform a count up with the digital clock, the function indicator must be over the __________ label.
a. LT
b. GMT
c. ET
d. FT
c
50
The annunciator placarded FDR near the firewall shutoff handle in the front cockpit will light MAINT in the upper half or __________ in the lower half.
a. 80%
b. RECORDER
c. FAIL
d. FDR
c
51
Angle of attack information is provided on the AOA indexer when
a. the angle of attack is below 7.9 units on the AOA gauge.
b. the landing gear is down and locked.
c. the flaps are set at landing setting.
d. airspeed is 5 to 10 knots above stall speed.
b
52
When a flashing master switchlight is reset, the associated annunciator on the main annunciator panel will __________ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.
a. also reset
b. begin flashing
c. remain illuminated
d. extinguish, then relight
c
53
The flight time (FT) display in the digital clock
a. displays flight hours from gear up to gear down.
b. displays engine operating hours above 1000 RPM.
c. displays total time from engine start to shutdown.
d. does not function in this aircraft.
d
54
Pilot warning tones are generated in a tone generator in the AOA computer and routed to
a. the cockpit speaker.
b. helmet audio connections.
c. the main annunciator panel.
d. the RMU audio outlet.
b
55
The white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA gauge indicates
a. maximum range angle of attack.
b. normal approach speed.
c. maximum endurance angle of attack.
d. stall speed.
a
56
The data transfer module is a __________ used for digital information storage, loading, and retrieval.
a. permanently mounted memory chip
b. fixed data cartridge
c. fixed tape drive
d. portable memory cartridge
d
57
A slow approach speed is indicated by the
a. lower red chevron on the AOA indexer.
b. upper green chevron on the AOA indexer.
c. white diamond on the AOA gauge.
d. white triangle on the AOA gauge.
b
58
How are heading and course set on the EHSI?
Using the HDG and CRS knobs on the EFIS control panel
59
What are the three EFIS modes?
Enroute, approach, and composite mode
60
EFIS approach mode adds what elements to the standard instrument displays?
a. Glideslope
b. Localizer
c. Marker beacon
61
What are the pitch and roll parameters that cause the EFIS to declutter the EADI during unusual attitudes?
a. Pitch angle exceeds +30° or –20°
| b. Roll angle exceeds 65°
62
The EADI display returns to normal when the aircraft attitude returns to which parameters?
a. Less than 25° nose-up or 15° nose-down pitch
| b. Bank angle less than 60°
63
What is the purpose of the vertical speed indicator (VSI)?
Displays vertical speed and direction of the aircraft
64
What does the VSI indicate?
Descend and climb rate
65
What information does the airspeed indicator display?
a. Indicated airspeed
b. Mach number
c. Maximum operating airspeed (VMO)
66
As altitude increases, VMO will __________ and the barber pole will move __________.
decrease; downward
67
How can you tell if the ADC has failed or its data is invalid?
The electronic instruments will indicate a failure.
68
What are the standby instruments?
a. Standby airspeed indicator
b. Standby attitude indicator
c. Standby altimeter
d. Standby turn and bank indicator
e. Magnetic compass
69
How are the standby instruments powered?
a. Battery bus
| b. Auxiliary battery
70
How is the standby airspeed indicator operated?
By pitot and static pressure from the secondary pitot/static system.
71
When should you cage the standby attitude indicator?
a. Before applying or removing electrical power
| b. Before engine start and shutdown
72
After loss of all electrical power, how long will the standby attitude indicator provide pitch and roll information and to what accuracy?
a. Nine minutes
| b. Within 6°
73
The stick shaker is activated approximately how many knots above stall speed?
5 to 10 knots
74
What does the green arc on the AOA gauge indicate?
Normal approach speed (optimum angle of attack or “on-speed”)
75
When will either the MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUTION switchlights illuminate?
a. Anytime a warning or caution annunciator illuminates in either cockpit
b. The MASTER WARN switchlight will illuminate with the FIRE light
76
What are the three operational modes for the EADI and EHSI?
Enroute, approach, and composite
77
The VSI displays vertical velocity from 0 to __________ feet per minute.
±6000
78
From what component does the ASI receive its data?
Air data computer
79
The standby instruments are normally powered by the __________.
battery bus
80
When showing, what does the red indication in the standby turn and bank indicator mean?
Turn rate information is not available
81
When should a reading be taken from the magnetic compass?
During level, unaccelerated flight
82
When does the AOA amber donut illuminate?
When you have achieved the optimum angle of attack range for landing (on-speed).
83
What is the purpose of the two resettable needles on the accelerometer?
Record maximum deviation above and below +1G experienced during flight
84
What happens anytime the FIRE warning annunciator illuminates?
a. MASTER WARN switchlight flashes
| b. MASTER WARN tone sounds
85
What indications can be illuminated on the flight data recorder annunciator?
a. MAINT (green)
| b. FAIL (yellow)
86
The VHF transceiver has a separate radio for monitoring VHF Guard. (B/1/1)
a. True
b. False
b
87
Where is the UHF/VHF transmit key located?
On the PCL
88
What is UHF Guard frequency? (B/1/3)
a. 121.50 MHz
b. 143.00 MHz
c. 243.00 MHz
d. 263.00 MHz
c
89
To activate the UHF backup control unit, __________. (B/1/4)
a. turn the OFF/PUSH TEST knob clockwise
b. select UHF on the RMU
c. select REMOTE on the audio control panel
d. select BKUP on the audio control panel
a
90
The UHF backup control unit allows for up to __________ preset channels. (B/1/5)
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 50
b
91
The UHF backup control unit is located in the __________. (B/1/6)
a. front cockpit only
b. aft cockpit only
c. front and aft cockpit
d. avionics bay
a
92
What are the two interphone modes? (B/2/1)
a. HOT and COLD
b. ON and OFF
c. HIGH and LOW
d. FRONT and REAR
a
93
When in HOT mode, __________. (B/2/2)
a. both microphones are active
b. only the rear microphone is active
c. you must press the ICS key to transmit on interphone
d. press the UHF/VHF key to transmit on interphone
a
94
The ground crew interphone headset jack is located __________. (B/2/3)
a. on the left fuselage, below the avionics bay
b. on the right fuselage, above the hydraulic service door
c. in the left avionics bay
d. in the right avionics bay
a
95
To adjust VHF radio volume, __________. (B/3/1)
a. rotate the VHF COMM knob on the VHF control head
b. rotate the VHF knob on the audio control panel
c. use the VHF toggle switch on the audio control panel
d. rotate the VHF knob on the left hand console
b
96
The audio control panel is located in the front cockpit only. (B/3/2)
a. True
b. False
b
97
What effect will moving the bypass switch to the ALTN position have on the UHF radio? (B/3/3)
a. You will not be able to hear the audio.
b. The audio will be unamplified, raw audio.
c. Radio control will revert to backup control unit.
d. The active frequency will switch to the alternate frequency.
b
98
What are the buttons on the left side of the RMU? (C/1/1)
a. Transfer switches
b. Special function switches
c. Mode select switches
d. Field select keys
d
99
What will you see when you press a field select key? (C/1/2)
a. The entire field will be highlighted with a white box cursor.
b. All other fields will be dimmed.
c. The special functions page for the selected system will be displayed.
d. A rectangular cursor will appear in the field.
d
100
Transfer switches are identified by a white __________. (C/1/3)
a. diamond
b. triangle
c. rectangle
d. circle
a
101
In order to change the UHF frequency digits to the right of the decimal (390.22), you must __________ (C/1/4)
a. pull out the small knob
b. pull out the large knob
c. use the large knob
d. hold the transfer switch for more than 3 seconds
a
102
What indication is given when the RMU is on the preflight test page? (C/2/1)
a. The word “preflight” is shown in the center of the display.
b. The word “TEST” is shown in the bottom field.
c. The letters “PFT” are shown in the top field.
d. The display will go blank.
c
103
If the RMU passes the preflight test, it __________ (C/2/2)
a. displays the preflight test page for 5 seconds and then returns to the normal operating page.
b. annunciates TEST PASS in the middle of the display until you press the mode key next to ACCEPT.
c. displays the preflight test page until you press the field key next to RETURN.
d. Returns immediately to the normal operating page.
a
104
The RMU displays UHF radio information in the __________ field. (C/3/1)
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
a
105
Press the __________ to swap the standby and active frequencies on the UHF radio. (C/3/2)
a. transfer switch next to the UHF field
b. field select key next to the UHF field
c. mode switch next to the UHF field
d. small data select knob
a
106
Press the MEM special function switch to __________. (C/3/3)
a. go to the UHF special functions memory page
b. set the last used preset channel in standby
c. edit, insert, or clear a preset memory channel
d. make the last used preset memory channel active
b
107
What indication does the RMU display when UHF Guard is turned on? (C/3/4)
a. “GD” appears below the mode annunciator
b. “BOTH” appears below the mode annunciator
c. “GUARD” appears below the mode annunciator
d. The UHF radio does not have a GUARD function.
c
108
How many VHF NAV preset memory channels can you store in the RMU? (C/4/1)
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
B
109
What does the DMEH special function switch do? (C/4/2)
a. Allows you to store DME preset memory channels
b. Enables and disables the DME function of VHF nav
c. Opens the DME special functions page
d. Holds the current DME NAVAID frequency
d
110
The transponder transmits __________ when the mode is set to ON. (C/5/1)
a. aircraft squawk code only
b. aircraft squawk code and altitude
c. aircraft altitude only
d. nothing
a
111
How many additional ATC codes are stored in the RMU? (D/5/2)
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
a
112
How many additional ATC codes are stored in the RMU? (D/5/2)
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20
a
113
The ground crew interphone is activated when
a. the engine start sequence is initiated.
b. the GPU is plugged in.
c. a headset is plugged into the ground crew interphone jack.
d. a battery switch in either cockpit is switched on.
d
114
The RMU did not pass the preflight test. Override the system by pressing the
a. field select key next to ACCEPT.
b. mode switch next to RETURN.
c. transfer switch next to BYPASS.
d. O’RIDE special function switch at the bottom of the RMU.
a
115
In the RMU 243.00 is selected as frequency. Below the frequency is selected "GUARD". Given this UHF configuration, you will receive
a. on both Guard and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
b. and transmit only on Guard frequency.
c. on both Guard and active frequency, but transmit only on Guard frequency.
d. on both the GUARD and standby frequency, but transmit only on the GUARD frequency.
b
116
In the RMU, 363,10 is selected as UHF frequency. Below the frequency is selected "BOTH". Given this UHF radio setup, you will receive
a. on both the GUARD and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
b. and transmit on both the GUARD and active frequency.
c. on both the standby and active frequency, but transmit only on the active frequency.
d. and transmit on both the standby and active frequency.
a
117
To tune the active UHF frequency directly, __________, then use the data entry knobs to set the frequency.
a. hold the UHF transfer switch for at least 3 seconds
b. hold the UHF field select key for at least 3 seconds
c. press the UHF transfer switch to move the cursor box to the active frequency
d. press the MEM special function switch to select the last used preset
a
118
The RMU allows storage of up to __________ VHF communication frequencies in memory channels.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
c
119
Press the __________ to access special functions for the selected system.
a. PAGE special function switch
b. IDT special function switch
c. MEM special function switch
d. associated field select key for 3 seconds
a
120
__________ to initiate the RMU preflight test.
a. Apply power to the RMU
b. Press the IDT special function switch
c. Press the small data entry knob
d. Press the field select key next to START TEST on the special function page
a
121
__________ indicates that the squelch is off.
a. An SQ annunciation below the UHF mode
b. A missing SQ annunciation below the UHF mode
c. The annunciation SQUELCH as the UHF mode
d. The amber SQUELCH light at the bottom of the RMU
a
122
What indication on the RMU tells you the backup UHF radio control unit is in use?
a. The RMU displays the word REMOTE in the UHF field.
b. The RMU displays the word BACKUP in the UHF field.
c. The UHF field of the RMU is blank.
d. The UHF radio mode is BKUP.
a
123
What is the main operational difference between the UHF radio and the VHF radio?
a. The VHF radio has a BOTH mode, but not a Guard mode.
b. The VHF radio can receive but not transmit on GUARD.
c. The VHF radio cannot transmit or receive on GUARD.
d. You must manually tune 121.5 to receive and/or transmit on GUARD.
d
124
When in ALT mode, the transponder transmits the
a. aircraft’s altitude only.
b. alternate squawk code.
c. aircraft’s altitude and squawk code.
d. squawk code only.
c
125
VOR stations transmit __________ signals, which the VOR receiver detects and the EFIS displays on the __________.
a. path; RMU
b. radial; EHSI
c. path; EHSI
d. radial; EADI
b
126
Which of the following is the T-6A unable to receive? (B/1/2)
a. TACAN radials from a VORTAC
b. TACAN DME from a VORTAC
c. DME from a VOR/DME
d. VOR radials from a VORTAC
a
127
The __________ antennas, mounted on both sides of the __________, detects the VOR radial signal.(B/1/3)
a. VOR; fuselage
b. NAV/GS/ILS; cockpit
c. VOR; vertical stabilizer
d. NAV/GS/ILS; vertical stabilizer
d
128
The ILS __________ provides course guidance to the runway centerline. (B/1/4)
a. localizer
b. marker beacon
c. glideslope
d. course indicator
a
129
The same antennas and receiver as the __________ system receives and processes localizer andglideslope signals. (B/1/5)
a. marker beacon
b. TACAN
c. GPS
d. VOR
d
130
To display ILS data on the EHSI/EADI, select the __________ frequency as the primary navigationfrequency on the RMU. (B/1/6)
a. glideslope
b. localizer
c. beacon
d. VOR
b
131
The DME system measures the time required for the transmitted signal to reach the ground station and return. It then calculates a __________ distance in nautical miles from the ground station to the aircraft. (B/2/1)
a. lateral
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. slant range
d
132
When you tune in a navigation facility with DME capability, the __________ displays the DME information __________. (B/2/2)
a. EHSI; automatically
b. EHSI; after selecting DME hold
c. RMU; below the DME frequency
d. EADI; automatically
a
133
In addition to the DME slant range, the EHSI displays __________ and __________ when selected using the NAV button on the control panel. (B/2/3)
a. groundspeed; time-to-go
b. true airspeed; time-to-go
c. indicated airspeed; time-of-arrival
d. groundspeed; time-of-arrival
a
134
With DME hold activated, the __________ displays “DME HOLD” below the primary navigation frequency. (B/2/4)
a. EHSI
b. EADI
c. RMU
d. EFIS control panel
c
135
A Controller assigns all aircraft under their control the same Mode A “SQUAWK” code. (B/3/1)
a. True
b. False
b
136
An aircraft transponder within range of a ground station interrogator’s query responds __________ with a coded signal to the interrogator. (B/3/2)
a. automatically
b. after verification of the interrogator’s code
c. when you press IDT on the RMU
d. after deconfliction with other transponders
a
137
If a controller requests that you “SQUAWK ALTITUDE,” which mode annunciation should you check for on the RMU? (B/3/3)
a. IDT
b. ALT
c. ON
d. STBY
b
138
Upon the controller’s request to “SQUAWK Ident,” you press the IDT button on the RMU. The transponder sends an identification signal for about __________ seconds and then returns to the previous mode. (B/3/4)
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 45
b
139
TAS traffic warnings and advisories are the primary means of traffic detection and avoidance.(B/4/1)
a. True
b. False
b
140
TAS range selections are 3, 5, 10, 20, and __________ NM. (B/4/2)
a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
b
141
The system displays proximity traffic as a filled white diamond indicating the intruding aircraft is within ±__________ feet relative altitude. (B/4/3)
a. 500
b. 1200
c. 1500
d. 2000
b
142
In ABOVE mode, the system displays traffic from 9,000 feet above to 2,700 feet below the aircraft. (B/4/4)
a. True
b. False
b
143
During a self-test, the GPS unit usually shows the correct information on the right side of the display since it is stored in __________ memory. (B/5/2)
a. aircraft
b. your
c. satellite
d. battery-backed
d
144
On the first self-test attempt, the GPS displays TEST FAIL in place of ANNUN ON. Do not use the system for navigation and report the failure to maintenance. (B/5/3)
a. True
b. False
b
145
When the cursor is not active, the large outer knobs select the __________ for their respectivedisplays. (B/5/4)
a. page
b. waypoint
c. characters
d. cursor
a
146
To change an item on a page, first press the __________button, then use the __________ knob to move the cursor to the desired field. (B/5/5)
a. CRSR; inner
b. ENT; outer
c. CRSR; outer
d. SLCT; CRSR
c
147
Press the __________ button to declutter the display. (B/5/6)
a. CLR
b. ENT
c. OBS
d. ALT
a
148
The GPS stores up to __________ flight plans in memory, each of which can contain up to__________ waypoints. (B/5/7)
a. 15; 15
b. 25; 30
c. 25; 25
d. 30; 25
b
149
The DME system displays __________ from the aircraft to the ground station.
a. slant range distance in statute miles
b. horizontal distance in statute miles
c. slant range distance in nautical miles
d. horizontal distance in nautical miles
c
150
The GPS default page is __________ on the left side of the display and the waypoint page on theright.
a. NAV 2
b. APT 4
c. VOR 2
d. FLP 0
a
151
The 360° radial of each VOR station is oriented to
a. true north.
b. magnetic north.
c. grid north.
d. magnetic north adjusted for local magnetic variation.
b
152
The transponder Mode __________ provides altitude reporting to the secondary radar system.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
c
153
When the NAV source is LOC and the system is receiving the paired glideslope signal (ILS), theEHSI presents a __________ scale and deviation pointer on the right side of the display.
a. GS
b. lateral
c. vertical velocity
d. LOC
a
154
Press the __________ button on the RMU to retain the DME from one station while navigating toanother.
a. NAVH
b. NAV2
c. NAV/DME
d. DMEH
d
155
Press the __________ button on the RMU when a controller requests you to “SQUAWK ident.”
a. ALERT
b. SQ
c. IDT
d. DMEH
c
156
One advantage of a GPS flight plan is that you can create and store a flight plan before flight.
a. True
b. False
a
157
The TAS detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating its transponder and analyzing the reply to determine its __________, __________, and relative __________ if the aircraft is Mode C or S equipped.
a. range; bearing; airspeed
b. range; bearing; altitude
c. bearing; airspeed; altitude
d. altitude; airspeed; bearing
b
158
To select a specific waypoint from the database, enter the waypoint identifier directly, scan through identifiers alphabetically, or enter the __________. (B/1/1)
a. coordinates
b. name
c. state code
d. altitude
b
159
After selecting the desired page to input an identifier directly, press the __________ button to engage the cursor and start entering characters. (B/1/2)
a. APT
b. IDT
c. CRSR
d. CHAR
c
160
The waypoint scan presents a __________ list of all the selected waypoints and the __________ list. (B/1/3)
a. nearest; farthest
b. partial; farthest
c. partial; complete
d. nearest; complete
d
161
The nearest waypoint display replaces the latitude and longitude of a normal waypoint display with the __________ of the waypoint. (B/1/4)
a. bearing and distance
b. frequencies and description
c. identification and altitude
d. bearing and altitude
a
162
Which of the following can you search for using the city name? (B/1/5)
a. SEC
b. NDB
c. VOR
d. APT
d
163
There are __________ airport pages for every airport in the database. (B/2/1)
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
c
164
You would not expect to find information regarding __________ on the APT 6 page. (B/2/2)
a. local restaurants
b. landing fees
c. fuel or oxygen availability
d. customs availability
a
165
On a VOR page, a “D” following the identifier indicates that the VOR __________. (B/2/3)
a. is class D
b. is deactivated
c. has paired DME
d. requires dual receivers
c
166
The NAV 2 page displays the aircraft’s present position as latitude and longitude, and as a distance and bearing from the __________. (B/3/1)
a. nearest NDB
b. nearest VOR
c. active waypoint
d. destination
b
167
The range scale of the NAV 5 page indicates the distance from the aircraft’s position to the __________ in nautical miles. (B/3/2)
a. top of the screen
b. next waypoint
c. destination airfield
d. nearest airfield
a
168
The Super NAV 5 AUTO range mode automatically selects a smallest scale to include the __________. (B/3/3)
a. next three waypoints
b. waypoints before and after the active waypoint
c. active waypoint and the following waypoint
d. destination waypoint
c
169
Press the right CRSR button to add __________ elements to the Super NAV 5 map. (B/3/5)
a. VOR, NDB, and ILS
b. NDB, ILS, and APT
c. NDB, OM, MM, and IM
d. VOR, NDB, and APT
d
170
The Direct To feature only allows navigation directly to waypoints already on the active flight plan. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False
b
171
If you press the "DIRECT" button while the active waypoint is a Missed Approach Point and you are already past the waypoint, the __________ is the default on the Direct To page.(B/4/2)
a. first waypoint of the missed approach procedure
b. final approach fix waypoint
c. initial approach fix waypoint
d. first waypoint of the approach holding pattern
a
172
Which is the appropriate button sequence to cancel a Direct To operation? (B/4/3)
a. CLR, Direct To, ENT
b. ENT, Direct To, CLR
c. Direct To, ENT, CLR
d. Direct To, CLR, ENT
d
173
In order to alert you to the impending arrival at a Direct To waypoint, the identifier on the Super NAV 5 page __________ about 36 seconds prior to reaching it.(B/4/4)
a. is highlighted
b. disappears
c. flashes
d. brightens
c
174
Three ways to select a waypoint on the GPS is to use direct entry, scanning, and by
a. name.
b. runway.
c. approaches.
d. latitude and longitude.
a
175
The five waypoint types used by the GPS system are
a. APT, VOR, NDB, INT, and SUP.
b. APT, VOR, INT, ALT, and SUP.
c. APT, ILS, NDB, INT, and SUP.
d. APT, ILS, RAD, INT, and SUP.
a
176
Select the button to find the airfield that is closest to your present position.
a. ANS:
b. NRST
b
177
What does the “+” next to APT +3 indicate?
a. The range scale for the displayed airfield diagram is +3.
b. The airfield has three or more runways.
c. There are multiple airfields for the selected city.
d. There are multiple sub-pages for the APT 3 page.
d
178
The symbol next to the identifier flashes approximately __________ prior to reaching a Direct To waypoint.
a. 1 minute
b. 36 seconds
c. 36 NM
d. 1 NM
b
179
Which button initiates a "Direct to"-operation?
Direct-to button (D with an arrow through)
180
```
In the GPS it is displayed:
=> KDLF LAUGHLIN
CL C MILTRY
N 29 21 60
W 100 46 70
What type of airfield and class of airspace and does this GPS display indicate?
```
Military field
| Class C airspace
181
How do you determine the range scale in a Super NAV5 display?
The range scale is indicated in the lower left corner of the graphic display.
182
What does a “L” following a runway identifier on the APT +3 page indicate?
a. These runways are for local aircraft only.
b. This airfield uses non-standard left-hand visual traffic patterns.
c. These are the two longest runways for this airfield.
d. The lighting for these runways operates from sunset to sunrise.
d
183
True or false? Both UHF and VHF systems have dedicated receivers for Guard.
False; only UHF has a dedicated Guard receiver.
184
How many preset channels can the UHF backup control unit store?
20
185
True or false? The UHF backup radio automatically activates in the event of an RMU failure.
False; you must turn on the backup control unit using the ON/OFF/PUSH TEST knob.
186
In COLD mode, when are the interphone microphones active?
Only when the ICS key switch or ICS KEY/MUTE switch is activated
187
True or false? With the Audio Control Panel identifier select switch in the R position, the VHF NAV radio receives both voice and Morse signals.
False; only Morse NAVAID recognition signals are received
188
What control sets the interphone system to HOT or COLD mode?
INTPH switch on the rear cockpit audio control panel
189
What are the five fields that comprise the RMU display areas?
a. UHF Comm
b. VHF Comm
c. ATC transponder
d. Blank
e. VHF NAV
190
Which comm mode do you set in the RMU for the UHF radio to receive on both active and Guard frequencies?
BOTH
191
How do you transfer the standby VHF frequency to the primary position?
Press the transfer switch adjacent to the VHF field
192
Up to how many UHF and VHF comm frequencies can be stored in the RMU memory?
20
193
True or false? The RMU stores up to five transponder codes in memory, in addition to the active code.
False; it only stores one code in memory.
194
Up to how many VHF NAV memory channels are stored in the RMU?
10
195
What are the three types of VOR facilities?
a. VOR
b. VOR/DME
c. VORTAC
196
What information does the ILS localizer provide?
Course guidance to runway centerline.
197
True or false? During a localizer approach, localizer course information is displayed on both the EADI and EHSI.
True
198
What happens to DME display error at a higher aircraft altitude?
The error increases.
199
True or false? You must press the IDT button on the RMU for the transponder to reply to a Mode A interrogation signal.
False; properly set, the transponder will respond automatically.
200
How is the TAS altitude block selected?
Depress the normal/below/above pushbutton selector switch on the control stick grip
201
True or false? Targets displayed on the TAS display as white diamonds represent “other” traffic.
False; white diamonds represent proximity traffic.
202
What should you do if TEST FAIL replaces ANNUN ON when the GPS unit is first turned on?
Recycle power to the unit.
203
Which GPS button is used primarily during holding and non-precision approaches?
OBS button
204
The active flight plan is always shown as what flight plan number?
FPL 0
205
How many flight plans can be stored in memory?
Up to 25 and each flight plan can have up to 30 waypoints.
206
You notice that the EHSI course indication cannot be changed by rotating the CRS knob on the EFIS control panel. What indication on the EHSI might confirm your problem?
CP flag
207
Which indication on the EHSI indicates that the DME system has failed?
RED X in the DME dispay....????
208
A TAS failure notification will appear on what instrument?
TAS/VSI
209
What indication on the RMU alerts you to a possible failure of the transponder?
Dashes or OFF in the ATC code field
210
What is the first component you should check when you suspect an avionics failure?
Circuit breaker
211
How are all VHF tuning functions controlled?
Through the RMU only
212
What are the five fields in the RMU?
a. UHF comm
b. VHF comm
c. ATC transponder
d. Blank
e. VHF NAV
213
What is the purpose of the ICS KEY/MUTE button?
Mutes all incoming audio while allowing inter-cockpit communication
214
How is the range display changed on the TAS display?
UP/DN range switches on the TA/VSI
215
Where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6A?
Vertical stabilizer
216
Which ILS component operates at 75 MHz and indicates your location along the approach path?
Marker beacons
217
What is the range of the DME?
Up to 199 miles slant range depending upon aircraft altitude
218
What should you do if the controller directs you to squawk altitude?
Set the transponder to ALT in the RMU.
219
How do you select the page types on the GPS panel?
Large outer knobs on the left and right side of the panel
220
Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system? (B/1/1)
a. Heating
b. Canopy defogging
c. Air conditioning
d. Ventilation
c
221
The vent control lever directs air output to the __________ vents. (B/1/2)
a. footwarmer or defog
b. front or rear cockpit
c. canopy or instrument panel
d. defog or air conditioner
a
222
On the ground, the __________ switch activates the fresh air blower. (B/2/1)
a. TEMP CONTROL
b. landing gear weight-on-wheels
c. RAM AIR FLOW
d. VENT BLOWR
b
223
The pressurization system overrides the RAM AIR FLOW switch and closes the fresh air valve when the aircraft reaches an altitude of approximately __________ MSL. (B/2/2)
a. 5000
b. 8000
c. 10000
d. 15000
b
224
While in flight, cool air from the __________ passes through the heat exchanger, cooling the hot bleed air from the engine, and then exits through a vent in the lower right cowling. (B/3/1)
a. blower
b. ram air inlet
c. right P3 air port
d. inflow valve
b
225
Turning the TEMP CONTROL switch toward COLD moves the heat exchanger bypass valve more open, allowing more cool air from the heat exchanger into the cockpit. (B/3/2)
a. True
b. False
b
226
Activating the __________ prevents engine compartment smoke and/or fumes from entering the cockpit through the heating system after an engine shutdown situation. (B/3/3)
a. RAM AIR FLOW
b. EVAP BLWR
c. FIREWALL SHUTOFF
d. BLEED AIR INFLOW
c
227
You can adjust the heating system temperature between __________ Fahrenheit by setting the TEMP CONTROL knob between HOT and COLD within the AUTO range. (B/3/4)
a. 40° and 70°
b. 50° and 85°
c. 60° and 90°
d. 70° and 95°
c
228
The heating system ejector forces high-volume bleed air into the cockpit to remove moisture from the ambient air. (B/4/1)
a. True
b. False
b
229
Placing the vent lever in the __________ position causes the valve at the front cockpit assembly to direct the warm air into the windshield defog duct. (B/4/2)
a. HIGH
b. CANOPY
c. FOOT
d. HOT
b
230
Which control switch opens the defog valve.
DEFOG
231
Which component converts vapor refrigerant to a high-pressure liquid.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator/Blower
c. Compressor
a
232
Maintenance personnel recharge the system refrigerant when necessary through service fittings behind a panel on the __________ fuselage __________ of the wing leading edge. (B/5/2)
a. left; aft
b. right; aft
c. left; forward
d. Right; forward
d
233
The __________ produces up to 350 cubic feet per minute of airflow in the HI setting. (B/5/3)
a. evaporator blower
b. condenser blower
c. bleed air inflow
d. ram air flow
a
234
The pressurization control valve regulator maintains a cockpit pressure altitude of __________ feet until the differential pressure (ΔP) reaches __________ at an aircraft pressure altitude of 18,069 feet. (C/1/1)
a. 8000; 3.6 ±0.2
b. 8000; 4.0 ±0.01
c. 10,000; 3.6 ±0.02
d. 10,000; 3.9 to 4.0
a
235
Which switch (In which position) opens the pressurization control valve, closes the defog valve, leaves the bleed air inflow valve open, and leaves the fresh air valve closed?
a. Air cond - on or off
b. Bleed Air In Flow - OFF-NORM-HI
c. Pressurization - RAM/DUMP-DUMP-NORM
d. Ram Air Flow - OFF-NORM-HI
c. "DUMP"-position
236
The ΔP regulator opens the safety outflow valve if the cockpit differential pressure (ΔP) exceeds __________ psi. (C/1/3)
a. 3.6 ±0.2
b. 3.9 to 4.0
c. 4.0
d. 4.4
c
237
During maneuvers, __________ G force opens the anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit. (C/2/1)
a. increasing negative
b. decreasing negative
c. increasing positive
d. decreasing positive
c
238
The T-6A anti-G system helps maintain __________ during high G maneuvers. (C/2/2)
a. control coordination
b. blood circulation
c. an upright attitude
d. airspeed
b
239
Which lever on the OBOGS controls electrical power to the OBOGS?
oxygen regulator supply lever
240
The __________ valve incorporated into the oxygen hose attachment fitting on the right console in each cockpit allows you to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if the OBOGS fails. (C/3/2)
a. ambient air
b. fail safe
c. anti-suffocation
d. emergency oxygen
c
241
The OBOGS __________ annunciator lights approximately 3 minutes after initial power up if thesystem fails the BIT. (C/3/3)
a. TEST
b. TEMP
c. FAIL
d. BIT
c
242
The engine supplies bleed air to the heating system through the __________ port.
a. left side P3
b. right side P5
c. left side P5
d. right side P3
d
243
The engine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigerant in vapor form to the
a. evaporator.
b. condenser.
c. heat exchanger.
d. blower.
b
244
Which switch controls the position of the fresh air valve?
RAM AIR flow switch
245
The __________ display shows cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure.
a. primary engine data
b. annunciator panel
c. alternate engine data
d. pressurization data
c
246
After pressing the BIT button on the regulator to start the OBOGS I-BIT, which light do you expect to see on the annunciator panel when the oxygen concentration falls below normal?
OBOGS FAIL annunciator
247
Place the DEFOG switch to ON to open the __________ valve and allow a higher volume of bleed air into the heating system.
a. inflow
b. ram air
c. defog
d. heat exchanger bypass
c
248
Which lever position on the OBOGS regulator provides the highest possible oxygen concentration from the OBOGS.
oxygen regulator concentration lever MAX position
249
The blower in each cockpit evaporator module pulls __________ air through the evaporator coils where refrigerant cools it.
a. fresh
b. ram air
c. cooled bleed
d. ambient cockpit
d
250
Which annunciator lights when inflow air temperature exceeds 300° Fahrenheit?
DUCT TEMP Annunciator
251
After takeoff the __________ supplies cooling air to the heat exchanger.
a. ram air inlet
b. fresh air blower
c. bleed air system
d. air conditioner
a
252
The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is running with the __________ and the __________.
a. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
b. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
c. generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch OFF
d. battery switch ON; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch ON
a
253
The amber CKPT ALT means that the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________ feet.
a. 10,000
b. 13,000 ±100
c. 19,000
d. 25,000
c
254
The environmental system has two temperature sensors to alert you to overtemperature in the
a. ECS heat exchanger.
b. heating/defog ducting.
c. evaporator/blower modules.
d. engine-driven compressor.
a (Er det givne svar... men "b" må være det rigtige, da sensorerne sidder i ducting og ikke i ECS heat exchanger....)
255
The __________ provide(s) enhanced bird strike protection. (B/1/1)
a. windscreen canopy section
b. windscreen and front canopy transparency sections
c. front and rear canopy transparency sections
d. windscreen, front, and rear canopy transparency sections
b
256
Which of the following statements is incorrect? (B/1/2)
a. The locking/latching system secures the canopy in the closed position.
b. The Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) provides a means for egress if you cannot open the canopy in an emergency.
c. The hinge/strut system secures the canopy in the closed position.
d. The pressure seal prevents cockpit pressure leaks.
c
257
The following steps describe how to __________. (B/2/2)
1. Press and hold the unlock button in while slowly rotating the external canopy handle clockwise to the placarded OPEN position.
2. Lift the canopy open.
a. open the canopy from the outside
b. close the canopy from the outside
c. open the canopy from the inside
d. close the canopy from the inside
a
258
After closing the canopy from the inside, how do you ensure the canopy is properly locked? (B/2/3)
a. Observe the mechanical red indicator is visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle aft and then full forward to the stop.
c. Observe the mechanical green indicator is visible.
d. Check that the green CANOPY annunciator illuminates.
c
259
What indications will you get if the canopy is unlocked? (B/2/4)
a. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber CANOPY annunciator
b. MASTER CAUT switchlight and amber UNLOCK annunciator
c. MASTER WARN switchlight and red CANOPY annunciator
d. MASTER WARN switchlight and red UNLOCK annunciator
c
260
Do not open the canopy when winds exceed __________ knots. (B/2/5)
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
d
261
The CFS functions __________ during __________, or __________ using internal CFS handles. (B/3/1)
a. automatically; ejection; manually
b. automatically; ground egress; manually
c. manually; ejection; manually
d. automatically; ejection; automatically
a
262
Operation of the CFS handle in the rear cockpit __________. (B/3/2)
a. fractures the rear transparency followed by the front transparency
b. fractures both transparencies simultaneously
c. fractures the rear transparency only
d. has been disabled
c
263
The CFS requires aircraft electrical power to function properly. (B/3/3)
a. True
b. False
b
264
The CFS uses FLSC on the front transparency because __________. (B/3/4)
a. it has more force to cut through the thicker transparency
b. it does not require as much force to cut through the thinner transparency
c. MDC causes electrical interference with the front cockpit instruments
d. the typical student’s skull is thick and can handle the increased force
a
265
Which of the following is not a major sub-assembly of the T-6A canopy frame?
a. Pressurization system
b. Locking/latching system
c. Sealing system
d. Canopy Fracturing System (CFS)
a
266
The purpose of the CFS is to
a. close, fix, and secure the canopy.
b. seal the canopy to maintain pressurization.
c. fracture the canopy during ejection.
d. keep the center and forward windscreens clear of fog.
c
267
What is the final step to ensure the canopy is properly latched?
a. Ensure the red mechanical indicator is not visible.
b. Rotate the internal canopy handle fully aft (counterclockwise).
c. Check for the green CANOPY annunciator on the forward panel.
d. Verify the green mechanical indicator is visible.
d
268
Activating the CFS handle from the front cockpit activates the
a. front and rear systems simultaneously.
b. front system followed by the rear system after a .3 second delay.
c. front cockpit system only.
d. ejection system for the front cockpit only.
c
269
Do not open the canopy if winds exceed __________ knots.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
d
270
During preflight, ensure that the external CFS handle
a. safety pin is removed and properly stowed.
b. safety pin is installed.
c. is completely retracted and secured.
d. doors are closed and locked.
d
271
Assuming bleed air inflow is available, the pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when
a. the canopy is closed and locked.
b. passing approximately 8,000 feet pressure altitude.
c. weight is off of the right main landing gear.
d. the defog lever is placed in the CANOPY position.
c
272
You required crew chief assistance to close and lock the canopy. You should
a. ask your instructor how to proceed.
b. proceed with the mission after ensuring the green mechanical indicators are visible.
c. not accept the aircraft and make a maintenance write-up in the forms.
d. open and attempt to reclose and lock the canopy from the inside.
d
273
The pilot would use the MOR handle to separate from the seat __________. (B/1/1)
a. over water
b. while on the ground
c. while the seat is in the aircraft
d. over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
d
274
When properly secured, you will be restrained with the torso harness connected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the __________ and __________ are securely fastened. (B/1/2)
a. shoulder harness belts; lap belt
b. lap belt; oxygen connectors
c. shoulder belts; lap belt
d. lap belt; leg restraints
d
275
What is the purpose of the leg restraint system? (B/1/3)
a. Prevent movement about the cockpit during flight
b. Prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
c. Ensure freedom of movement during ejection
d. Avoid constriction during ejection
b
276
The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered charged if the pointer is at 1500 psi or above. (B/1/4)
a. True
b. False
b
277
During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided __________. (B/1/5)
a. for about 10 minutes or until turned off
b. for about 10 minutes and after seat-pilot separation
c. for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
d. until seat-pilot separation or until it is turned off
c
278
During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails? (B/1/6)
a. The ejection sequence is aborted.
b. The canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat moves up the rails.
c. The breaker head box will shatter the canopy as the seat moves up the catapult rails.
d. The CFS must be reset.
b
279
When flying dual, an ISS mode selector setting of __________ allows either crewmember to initiate ejection of both seats. (B/1/7)
a. SOLO
b. BOTH
c. CMD FWD
d. DUAL
b
280
During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by __________. (B/2/1)
a. explosive hydraulic pressure
b. mechanical catapult thrust
c. detonated gas pressure
d. detonation of the rocket motor propellant
c
281
What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system? (C/1/1)
a. Dive speed, bank angle, and climb rate
b. Dive angle, bank angle, and climb rate
c. Dive speed, rate of bank, and sink rate
d. Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
d
282
Why is it a good practice to eject from the aircraft in a level flight attitude? (C/1/2)
a. Avoid a collision of the front and rear ejection seats
b. Ensure a clear path away from the airframe
c. Avoid flying debris and rocket motor blast
d. Ensure little or no sink rate
d
283
What happens during simultaneous ejections (ISS mode selector is set to BOTH)? (C/2/1)
a. The front seat will be delayed until the rear seat is clear.
b. The rear seat will eject second.
c. Both seats eject simultaneously with the rear rocket motor firing first.
d. The rear seat will eject first.
d
284
What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO? (C/2/2)
a. The SSK will deploy 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation.
b. The pilot must use the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE and wait 4 seconds.
c. The pilot must wait 4.5 seconds until the SSK is lowered.
d. The pilot must pull the manual release handle marked KIT RELEASE to release the SSK.
a
285
The T-6A ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero speed up to __________ feet and __________ KIAS.
a. 30,000; 300
b. 31,000; 350
c. 35,000; 370
d. 37,000; 370
c
286
The ejection seat leg restraint garters are attached
a. just above the thigh.
b. just above the boots.
c. just below the knees.
d. just below the ankles.
b
287
You will attach the SSK by connecting
a. the torso harness to the Frost fittings.
b. the lap belt to the torso harness Frost fittings.
c. the SSK V-rings on the torso harness to the seat buckles.
d. the SSK Frost fittings to the torso harness V-rings.
c
288
The PIRD performs which of the following functions?
a. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during deceleration
b. Retracts the lap belt during ejection
c. Retracts the leg restraints during ejection
d. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during ejection
c
| ("c" er det givne svar, men PIRD strammer harness.... - altså "d”
289
Where are the parachute and chute harness assembly located?
a. Beneath the seat bucket
b. In the headbox
c. In the seat box
d. Behind and below the seat bucket
b
290
What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO?
a. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after ejection
b. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation
c. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after ejection
d. The SSK is lowered 10 seconds after seat-pilot separation
B
291
The ejection seat emergency oxygen system provides which of the following?
a. 10 seconds of oxygen
b. 1 minute of oxygen
c. 5 – 7 minutes of oxygen
d. 10 minutes of oxygen
d
292
In order to prevent inadvertent activation of the ejection system while on the ground, each seat
a. has a seat release locking handle on the right side.
b. should be secured with a safety pin that has a red streamer.
c. should be lowered to the minimum height.
d. should have the safety pin with the red streamer removed.
b
293
How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?
a. Detonated gas pressure, rocket motor, and hydraulic power
b. Explosive motor and hydraulic power
c. Detonated gas pressure and rocket motor
d. Detonated gas pressure, hydraulic catapult, and rocket motor
c
294
Prior to ejection, it is desirable to do which of the following?
a. Descend to trade altitude for airspeed
b. Climb to trade airspeed for altitude
c. Maintain altitude and increase airspeed
d. Alter altitude to gain adequate airspeed
b
295
What is the purpose of the drogue chute?
a. Assists the catapult in transporting the seat during ejection
b. It opens the main parachute
c. Increases drag so the seats do not collide during ejection
d. Helps to stabilize and decelerate the seat
d
296
Recommended minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection, according to the FlightManual, are __________ and __________ feet AGL respectively.
a. 2000; 6000
b. 3000; 6000
c. 6000; 2000
d. 15,000; 35,000
a
297
Tubing from the emergency oxygen cylinder runs from the cylinder across the back of the seat bucket to the right side, and then connects to the
a. oxygen regulator.
b. anti-suffocation valve.
c. pilot’s CRU-60/P.
d. pilot’s oxygen mask.
c
298
Proper seat adjustment during ejection is a safety issue because
a. adjusting the seat so your helmet is higher than the canopy breaker can have lethal results.
b. the leg restraint garters will not properly attach.
c. the ejection system only operates with the seat full down.
d. adjusting the seat so your helmet is lower than the canopy line can have serious results.
a
299
Which switch controls the flow of fresh air to the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight?
The RAM AIR FLOW switch on the Environmental Control Panel controls the position of the fresh air valve and thus the amount of airflow.
300
True or false? The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate the air conditioner compressor.
False; the AIR COND switch is located only in the front cockpit on the environmental control panel.
301
True or false? Place the vent control lever in the CANOPY position to open the defog valve.
False; to open the defog valve, place the DEFOG switch in the ON position.
302
Which cockpit control and duct component controls whether warm bleed air is routed to the footwarmers or defog outlets?
The front cockpit vent control lever adjusts the position of the cockpit selector valves to route warm air to either the footwarmers or the defog outlets.
303
True or false? The Temperature Control Knob on the Environmental Control Panel controls the temperature of both heating and defogging air.
True; the knob controls the position of the heat exchanger bypass valve which determines the temperature of air for both heating and defogging.
304
If cockpit pressure differential exceeds 4.0 psi, the ΔP regulator sends a signal to the safety outflow valve. What does the safety outflow valve do?
The safety valve will open to relieve excess cockpit pressure, regulating the pressure at 4.0 psi.
305
You normally reach a cockpit pressure differential of 3.6 ±0.2 psi at what altitude?
18,069 feet
306
True or false? An engine-driven pump supplies pressure for the anti-G system.
False; the engine right side P3 bleed air port supplies pressure to the system.
307
Which oxygen pressure regulator concentration lever position supplies the highest possible oxygen concentration?
MAX.
308
When is the canopy pressure seal inflated?
The seal inflates automatically when bleed air inflow is available and the aircraft’s weight is off the right main landing gear.
309
True or false? Aircraft or external electrical power must be available for the canopy fracturing system to function.
False. The CFS requires no electricity to function.
310
The T-6A Martin-Baker ejection seat is a zero-zero seat usable up to what altitude and airspeed?
35,000 feet and 370 KIAS
311
How would you deploy the parachute if the automatic system fails?
Use the manual override (MOR) handle on the right side of the seat bucket.
312
When activated, the emergency oxygen bottle supplies oxygen for how long?
About 10 minutes
313
Illumination of the CKPT PX annunciator indicates what?
Cockpit pressure exceeding 3.9 to 4.0 psi, indicating a problem in the pressurization outflow system
314
The CKPT ALT annunciator is illuminated, indicating the cockpit altitude exceeds 19,000 feet. What ΔP reading do you expect to see?
ΔP less than 3.4 PSI
315
What indication do you expect to accompany the OBOGS FAIL annunciation?
A flashing MASTER WARN switchlight on the instrument panel.
316
What supplies bleed air for heating, defogging, pressurization, anti-G, and OBOGS?
Left and right engine compressor P₃ ports
317
True or false? The entire canopy is reinforced for birdstrikes.
False. Only the windscreen and front cockpit transparency reinforced.
318
With the ejection seat ADU mode selector switch set to AUTO, when does the SSK deploy during the ejection sequence?
Approximately 4 seconds after seat/pilot separation
319
True or false? The T-6 air conditioning system is electrically operated and is available when electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
False. Air conditioning depends on an engine-driven compressor which only operates with the: Engine running; generator on-line; AIR COND and/or DEFOG switch is ON
320
Which control opens the defog valve?
The DEFOG switch opens the defog valve.
321
Which annunciator will illuminates if duct air temperature exceeds 300 °F?
DUCT TEMP
322
True or false? Emergency oxygen activates automatically in the event of OBOGS failure.
False; you must manually activate emergency oxygen in the event of OBOGS failure. Emergency oxygen activates automatically only during ejection.
323
OBOGS provides oxygen for approximately how many hours of flight?
OBOGS generates oxygen from bleed air and so it is technically unlimited.
324
True or false? The CKPT ALT annunciator indicates the cockpit is overpressurized.
False. It indicates a cockpit pressure altitude is 19,000 feet or higher, usually due to loss of cockpit pressurization.
325
Which outlets provide cooled air conditioner air?
Cooled air from the evaporator/blower module discharges through an “eyeball” outlet in the console and duct outlets on the glareshield in each cockpit.
326
When you set the interseat seat sequencer to SOLO, which seat ejects first?
Only the activating seat ejects
327
True or false? The anti-G system activates only during negative-G maneuvers.
False. The anti-G system only activates during positive-G maneuvers.
