Systems Flashcards
(409 cards)
1
Q
Wingspan of A320 with and without sharklets
A
117’ 5”, 111’ 10”
2
Q
With a minimum turn radius will the tail and wing clear what the nose clears?
A
No
3
Q
What is the minimum theoretical pavement width for a 180-degree turn?
A
75’ (100’ company recommended)
4
Q
Which valves will receive a close command when the ditching pushbutton is depressed
A
CARPO
-Cargo outlet isolation valve
-Avionics inlet and extract valves
-Ram air inlet
-Pack Flow Control Valves
-Outflow valve (only if in AUTO)
5
Q
Will the DITCHING pushbutton always close the outflow valve
A
Not if the outflow valve is under manual control
6
Q
Can the pilot control the outflow valve
A
yes, select MAN/ON on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch
7
Q
How many Cabin Pressurization Controllers (CPCs) are in the pressurization system
A
2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing
8
Q
How do you manually switch controllers?
A
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
9
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
A
both automatic pressure controllers are faulty
10
Q
From what source does that the pressurization system normally obtain landing elevation?
A
FMGC database
11
Q
If the FMGC database does not supply the landing elevation, how do you set the landing elevation?
A
Manually by selecting landing elevation via the LDG ELEV knob
12
Q
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
A
2 pressure relief valves (safety valves) on aft bulkhead
13
Q
How many outflow valve motors are installed?
A
3- one for each CPC, and one for the manual control
14
Q
How would a pilot manually control the pressurization?
A
By selecting MAN on the MODE SEL pb and utilizing the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch
15
Q
What flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use or during single pack operation?
A
HI
16
Q
If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low what will occur?
A
Engine speed is automatically increased to provide adequate bleed air pressure
17
Q
What would cause an amber FAULT light to illuminate in the PACK 1 and/or PACK 2 pushbutton
A
(OOD)
-Overheat at PACK outlet
-Overheat at compressor outlet
-Discontinuity switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve (FAULT light will be illuminated when no bleed air is supplied)
18
Q
At what cabin differential pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?
A
1 PSI diff pressure or less
19
Q
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically close?
A
-Upstream pressure below minimum
-Compressor outlet overheat
-Engine start sequence
-Engine FIRE pushbutton
-DITCHING pushbutton is selected
20
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton indicate?
A
Duct overheat - the HOT AIR and Trim air valves automatically close
21
Q
How many Air Conditioning System Controllers are there and how many lanes do they have?
A
-2 Air Conditioning System Controllers
-Each Air Conditioning System Controller has 2 lanes (Active/Standby)
22
Q
Describe how the Air Conditioning System Controllers regulate temperature
A
-Basic temperature regulation: Both packs produce the required outlet temperature determined by the lowest demanded zone temperature
-Optimized temperature regulation: Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air valves to maintain the desired zone temperatures
23
Q
What occurs when an active lane of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
A
The second lane takes over
24
Q
What occurs when both lanes of an Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) fail?
A
The related pack is lost. The hot air pressure regulating valve closes and associated trim air valves remains in current position
25
how does the Air Conditioning System Controller configure its associated pack ram air inlet flap for takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter?
− Takeoff: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear struts are
compressed. Reopens after main landing gear strut extension
− Landing: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed and speed ≥
70 knots. Opens 20 seconds after speed < 70 knots
26
If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs? [ FCOM-DSC-21-10-40 ]
The affected pack will operate as a heat exchanger
27
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves? [ FCOM-DSC-21-10-20 ]
The pack flow control valve will close automatically
28
What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-21-40-30 ]
− Duct overheat
29
What is the purpose of the CABIN FANS? [ FCOM-DSC-21-10-20 ]
− To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to the cabin
30
With BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in AUTO how does the system operate?[ FCOM-DSC21-30-20, FCOM-DSC-21-30-60 ]
− Ground – system is normally in the OPEN configuration
− Flight – system is normally in the CLOSED configuration
− Intermediate – Closed configuration except small internal flap in Extract Valve is open
31
With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in OVRD (smoke configuration) what are the positions of the
INLET and EXTRACT valves? [ FCOM-DSC-21-30-20 ]
− INLET valve CLOSED
− SMALL INTERNAL FLAP OPENING open
32
What is the status of the Blower and Extract fans with the Blower and Extract valves in OVRD?
[ FCOM-DSC-21-30-20 ]
− BLOWER fan OFF
− EXTRACT fan ON
33
When is air conditioning introduced into the avionics compartment? [ FCOM-DSC-21-30-20 ]
− Abnormal operation
− SMOKE configuration
34
Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight? [ FCOM-DSC-21-30-20 ]
− Yes; during SMOKE configuration
35
What does an amber FAULT light on the BLOWER pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-21-30-60 ]
− SMOKE warning is activated
− Computer power supply failure
− Low blower pressure
− Duct overheat
36
What does an amber FAULT light on the EXTRACT pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-21-30-60 ]
− SMOKE Warning is activated
− Computer power supply failure
− Low Extract pressure
37
With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are there any other indications? [ FCOM-DSC-26-30-20 ]
− Yes – The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton
38
What are the main components of the FMGS? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-10 ]
− 2 FMGCs
− 2 MCDUs
− 1 FCU (two independent channels)
− 2 FACs
39
What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance Computers? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-10 ]
− Flight Guidance
− Flight Management
40
What are the 4 modes of FMGS operation? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-30 ]
− Independent (MCDU scratchpad displays – INDEPENDENT OPERATION)
− Single (ND displays – SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE)
− Dual (Normal)
− Back-up navigation mode (some aircraft)
41
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-10 ]
− Managed Guidance
− Selected Guidance
42
What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-10 ]
− Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS
43
What is the Selected mode of flight guidance used for? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-10 ]
− Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU
44
Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-10 ]
− Selected Guidance always has priority
45
How do you determine the validity of the navigation database? [ FCOM-DSC-22-20-20-50 ]
− On the Aircraft Status page via the MCDU
46
What input does each FMGC use for position determination? [ FCOM-DSC-22-20-20-10 ]
− A hybrid (“mix”) IRS/GPS position
47
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGC logic? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-30 ]
− If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGC is master
− If both autopilots are engaged, FMGC 1 will be the master
48
If an amber SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?
[ FCOM-DSC-22-10-30 ]
− An FMGC has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range (single mode)
49
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-30 ]
No, only during an ILS approach
50
What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-40-10 ]
− Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
− Small – Default/computed non-modifiable data
51
Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight? [ FCOM-DSC-22-20-50-10-25 ]
INIT B page (not accessible after engine start)
52
What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-40-10 ]
An entry is mandatory
53
What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engage
54
What is the function of the Flight Control Unit? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-10 ]
− Permits short term interface between the pilot and FMGS
− Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
− Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight directors, and A/THR system
55
What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-40-20 ]
FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
56
How is Selected Guidance engaged? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-40-20 ]
Pull the appropriate selector knob
57
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-100 ]
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)
58
Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes? [ FCOM-DSC-22-10-40-20 ]
No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed
59
What does each column mean on the PFD? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-100 ]
A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPROACH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
60
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-100 ]
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication (10-15secs)
61
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-100 ]
− Blue – armed
− Magenta – armed because of a constraint
− Green – engaged
62
When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed? [ FCOM-DSC-20-30 ]
− Displayed when the first engine is started
− Disappears at liftoff
63
What would the large red arrowheads indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
Pitch attitude of > 30°
64
What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
You are in Direct Law
65
What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
You are in Mechanical Backup
66
What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green = signs? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40, FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-30 ]
− Pitch: +30° up/-15° down
− Roll: +/- 67°
67
How can you determine you are in Alternate Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
− Amber X’s replace the green = marks at the pitch and bank limits
− Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale
68
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
− In case of an engine failure during takeoff or go-around it is now a blue beta target
− The sideslip target is blue if CONF 1, 2 or 3 is selected and any ENG N1 > 80% or one Thrust Lever > MCT and
the difference between the ENGs N1s exceeds 35%.
69
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant
70
What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
− Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
− Blue – Selected speed on the FCU
71
What speed does Vmax represent and how is it displayed? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40, FCOM-PRO-SUP-10 ]
− It is the lowest of Vmo/Mmo, Vle, or Vfe
− Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
72
What is Vls? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40, FCOM-DSC-22-10-50-20, FCOM-PRO-SUP-10 ]
− Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
− Corresponds to 1.13 VS during takeoff
− Corresponds to 1.23 VS after retraction of one step of flaps
− Corresponds to 1.28 VS in clean configuration
− Above 20,000ft, VLS is corrected for Mach effect to maintain a buffet margin of 0.2g
− In approach mode is equivalent to Vref
− Increases with speedbrake extension
73
What is Green Dot speed? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40, FCOM-PRO-SUP-10 ]
− Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
− Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
− Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
74
What is Ground Speed Mini? [ FCOM-DSC-22_30-60-20 ]
− Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway
− Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
75
When is Ground Speed Mini active? [ FCOM-DSC-22_30-60-20 ]
− Speed is managed
− FMS flight phase is the approach phase
76
What are the benefits of Ground Speed Mini? [ FCOM-DSC-22_30-60-20 ]
− Calculated groundspeed at the runway
− Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
77
Does Ground Speed Mini correct Green Dot, S and F speeds? [ FCOM-DSC-22_30-60-20 ]
No, only VAPP
78
What does it mean when you see the magenta triangle on the PFD speed tape above the FMGC computed or
entered VAPP during an approach? [ FCOM-DSC-22_30-60-20 ]
Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at your present location
than what was calculated at the runway
79
Is the ground speed mini function available in selected speed? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
No – Managed speed only
80
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
− Instinctive Disconnect buttons
− Thrust Levers to IDLE
− A/THR pushbutton
81
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect Pushbutton for 15 seconds
82
What would you lose if you held down the Instinctive Disconnect Pushbutton for more that 15 seconds?
Alpha Floor Protection
83
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
− Thrust – TOGA
− FMA – A.FLOOR
84
What occurs during Alpha Floor protection after the A. FLOOR conditions are no longer applicable? [ FCOM-DSC-
22_30-50-50 ]
FMA changes to TOGA LK
(On some software standards the mode reverts to the mode that was active prior to the engagement of A.
FLOOR)
85
How do you regain normal A/THR when in TOGA LK? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
− Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent
− Press the Instinctive Disconnect button
− Return Thrust Levers to CL detent
− Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR
86
When is Alpha Floor Protection active? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach
87
When would Thrust Lock occur? [ FCOM-DSC-22-30-90 ]
− Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
− A/THR disconnects due to a failure
88
How would the flight crew command an evacuation? [ FCOM-PRO-ABN-MISC ]
Make a PA announcement: “This is the Captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”
89
When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO? [ FCOM-DSC-23-30-10 ]
− On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
− When at least 1 engine is operating
− Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
− In flight
90
How do you record the Flight Attendant PAs? [ FCOM-DSC-23-30-10, FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-07 ]
ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and set volume at or above medium range
91
How do you call a mechanic stationed on the outside of the aircraft? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-30 ]
Momentarily depress the MECH pushbutton. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate and an
external horn will sound
92
How do you make a normal call to the Flight Attendants? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-20 ]
− Press the FWD or AFT call button (This sounds one high/low chime in the cabin)
− Listen and transmit on CAB
− The flight attendants can only pick up a cabin phone at the station called
93
What happens when the flight attendants initiate an emergency call? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-20 ]
− The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
− The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
− 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit (inhibited during critical phases of flight)
− System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
94
What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-20 ]
Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails
95
How are the communications radios controlled? [ FCOM-DSC-23-10-20 ]
From any one of the 3 RMPs
96
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration? [ FCOM-DSC-23-10-30 ]
RMP 1
97
Which communication radio is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration? [ FCOM-DSC-23-10-20 ]
VHF-1 and HF-1 (if installed)
98
What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs? [ FCOM-DSC-23-10-30 ]
When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP
99
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids? [ FCOM-DSC-34-30-30 ]
− No – RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
− NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
− Normal radio communication is still available
100
What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-50 ]
− Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or
− The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
101
What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF transmission keys indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-23-20-20 ]
The SELCAL system detects a call
102
What buses are powered by the emergency generator? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-30 ]
− AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
− DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
103
What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed > 100 knots
− MAN – extend the RAT at any time
104
How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-30 ]
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and power the
EMER GEN)
105
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24 20]
Loss of power to AC Bus 1 + AC Bus 2 and the emergency generator is not supplying power
106
What powers the emergency generator? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-20 ]
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT
107
Is there another way to deploy the RAT? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-30, FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel
108
What is different about deploying the RAT via the HYD Panel? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-40 ]
Blue HYD pressure only – No Emergency Generator
109
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates
− AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR
− GEN 1 continues to powers 1 fuel pump in each wing tank
110
When is the GEN1 Line pushbutton used? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
During smoke procedures
111
When performing the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, what is the minimum Battery Voltage?
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-04 ]
Above 25.5 Volts
112
What do you do if the battery voltage is at or below 25.5V? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-04 ]
Select BATT pushbuttons to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft. This starts the charging cycle (approximately
20min required)
113
When performing the COCKPIT PREPARATION, what are we looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check? [
FCOM- PRO-NOR-SOP-06 ]
− ECAM ELEC page – select
− BAT 1 & 2 – OFF then ON
− Check BATT current is < 60 amps after 10 seconds and continues to decrease
114
Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed on
the ground? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
No. Battery cut-off logic prevents complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and unpowered –
22VDC
115
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-20 ]
DC BUS 1 through a DC bus tie contactor
116
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated output
117
How does the GALLEY pushbutton work in AUTO? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− Sheds main galley and in-seat power supply if:
■ Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is available in FLIGHT, or
■ Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on the GROUND (All galleys are available when APU GEN or EXT
PWR is supplying power)
118
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the Generator Control Unit (GCU) which
could include:
■ Overload
■ Over/under voltage
■ Differential fault (short), and/or;
■ The generator line contactor is open
119
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the GCU
120
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− APU speed too low
− Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG GEN takes over
121
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2:
− Allows a single source to power the entire system
− Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system
− Inhibits multiple sources to connect simultaneously
122
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− High Oil Temperature
− Low Oil Pressure (inhibited when N2 < 14%)
− Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
123
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
− Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or windmilling
− Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds
124
How can an IDG be reset? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
On the ground by maintenance
125
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pushbutton in the normal position? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
Allows AC BUS 1 to power the AC ESS BUS
126
How is AC ESS FEED transferred from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
Manually by selecting ALTN on the AC ESS FEED pushbutton or automatically if AC BUS 1 is lost and the
switch is in the normal position
127
What does the AC ESS FEED pushbutton white ALTN light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
AC BUS 2 is powering the AC ESS BUS
128
What is the purpose of the static inverter? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-20 ]
To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the battery when the EMG GEN is not online when in the
Emergency Electrical Configuration
129
What are the 3 times the batteries are connected to the BATTERY BUS?
[ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-20, FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-30, FCOM-DSC-49-10-40 ]
− APU start
− Battery charging
− AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
130
What is the priority sequence for electrical power (GEARB)? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20-10-30-10, FCOM DSC-24-10-30-30 ]
− Onside – engine generator
− Outside – external power
− Inside – APU generator
− Offside – engine generator
− RAT – emergency generator
− BAT - batteries
131
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering
the aircraft? [ FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
EXT PWR
132
What are the two colors of circuit breakers on the flight deck and what is the significance of the colors?
Green – monitored by ECAM
Black – not monitored by ECAM
133
What is the significance of red caps or yellow rings on circuit breakers on the flight deck?
Red caps – The Wing Tip Break (WTB) circuit breakers have red caps on them to prevent them from being reset
Yellow rings – circuit breakers that the crew will be guided to pull in order to prolong battery life during a FLIGHT ON
BATTERIES ONLY QRH procedure.
134
Can we use the aircraft electrical outlets in the Flight deck? [ FCOM-DSC-25-10-90, GOM 11.4.6.1 ]
Only if its placarded "EFB Compatible"
135
What are the color codes associated with indications and pushbuttons? [ FCOM-DSC-25-10-10 ]
− Warnings-
RED - A failure requiring immediate action
− Cautions-
AMBER - a failure, the flight crew should be aware, but does not call for immediate action
− Indications-
GREEN - normal system operation
BLUE - normal operation of a system used temporarily
WHITE - abnormal pushbutton position or a test result or maintenance information
136
What does the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-26-30-20 ]
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
137
Will there be any indications when the SMOKE light illuminates on the GEN1 Line pushbutton?
[ FCOM-DSC-26-30-20, FCOM-DSC-21-30-60 ]
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION
panel
138
Where are the engine fire loops installed? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
− Pylon nacelle
− Engine core
− Fan section
139
What happens if both fire loops fail? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will be issued
140
What does an amber DISCH light mean? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-20 ]
The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure
141
How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
2
142
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is pressed. [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-20 ]
− 2 – Silences the aural fire warning and arms the fire extinguisher squibs
− 1 – Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
− 1 – Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
− 1 – Deactivates the IDG (FADEC power supply also deactivated)
− 2 – Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
143
What occurs when you press the TEST pushbutton on the ENGINE FIRE panel? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-20 ]
− CRC sounds
− 7 lights:
* MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
* ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
* SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
* ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
* FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1)
144
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
1
145
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
No
146
List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pushbutton is pressed. [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-20 ]
− 2 – Silences the aural fire warning and arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
− 1 – Shuts down the APU (ECB)
− 2 – Closes the low-pressure fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump
− 1 – Deactivates the APU generator
− 2 – Closes the APU bleed and X bleed valves
147
What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-26-20-20 ]
− CRC sounds
− 5 Lights:
* MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
* APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
* SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
* ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
148
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected on the ground?
[ FCOM-DSC-26-20-10 ]
Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge
149
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments? [ FCOM-DSC-26-50-
20 ]
− 1 bottle, which can be discharged to either compartment (some aircraft have 2 bottles)
150
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-26-50-30 ]
− Both channels detect smoke, or
− One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
151
How many smoke detectors are there? [ FCOM-DSC-26-50-10 ]
− 2 forward cargo
− 4 aft cargo
152
With a CARGO SMOKE warning what happens to the Isolation Valve and Extract Fan? [ FCOM-DSC-26-50-10 ]
− Isolation Valve closes
− Extract Fan stops
153
What does ELAC stand for? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
Elevator Aileron Computer
154
How many ELACs are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
2
155
What are the functions of the ELAC? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− Normal elevator and stabilizer control
− Normal aileron control
− Normal pitch and roll
− Alternate pitch
− Direct pitch and roll
− Abnormal attitude
− Aileron droop
− Acquisition of autopilot orders
156
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control? [ QRH OPS.07A ]
− Primary – Aileron control (roll)
− Standby – Elevator / Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
157
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control? [ QRH OPS.07A ]
− Primary – Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch)
− Standby – Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
158
What does SEC stand for? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
Spoiler Elevator Computer
159
How many SECs are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
3
160
What functions are performed by the SECs (SAD DAN)? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
− Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
− Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
− Direct roll
− Abnormal attitude
− Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
161
Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control? [ QRH OPS.07A ]
− Primary – Spoiler control (roll)
− Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELACs)
162
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3 in Normal Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Spoiler control (Spoilers 1 & 2 only)
163
What does FAC stand for? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
Flight Augmentation Computer
164
How many FACs are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
2
165
What are the functions of the FACs? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
− Rudder trim
− Rudder travel limit
− Alternate yaw
166
In Normal Law, what do the FACs provide (YAWL)? [ FCOM-DSC-22-40-10 ]
− Y – Yaw Control – Damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim
− A – Airspeed Protection Computation (Alpha Protection, high / low limits, maneuvering speed, PFD
speed scale)
− W – Windshear protection (Reactive and not Predictive)
− L – Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)
167
Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed
168
How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically
169
When is automatic pitch trim available? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
In flight under Normal Law with bank angle less than 33° with or without autopilot engaged
170
How is roll control normally achieved? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing
171
If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Yes, after slat extension
172
How is the THS normally operated in flight? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
The ELACs (primary) and SECs (secondary) control trim functions automatically
173
If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be positioned? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
No – the THS requires hydraulic power from the Green or Yellow systems
174
If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can the THS be positioned? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel
175
Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect
176
What happens to the THS when the aircraft enters into Ground Mode? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
The trim automatically resets to zero (inside the green band)
177
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-30 ]
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority
178
How would you regain control if you had just lost sidestick authority? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-30 ]
The last pilot to press the Sidestick pb will have authority. An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will
sound
179
What do flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-30 ]
− Both lights flash when the flight crew move both sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes priority.
− When the flight crew has taken priority by pressing the takeover pushbutton and the other flight crew’s sidestick
is not at neutral, the light in front of the flight crew with priority lights up. It goes out when the other flight crew
returns their stick to the neutral position.
180
What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-30 ]
− The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
− An aural “Dual Input” will sound
− Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
181
With only Green hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps and slats operate?
[ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
Yes, at a slower speed
182
What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
183
What causes the WTBs to activate (ROAM)? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
− Runaway (Move handle to 1, all go to 3)
− Overspeed (Flap jack screw breaks)
− Asymmetry (Both on one side move farther)
− Movement (Never touch handle, ALL just move)
184
If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
Yes, only flap operation is inhibited
185
How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
2
186
What would occur if one SFCC failed? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed
187
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
[ FCOM-DSC-27-30-20 ]
− CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
− CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
188
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots
189
What is Alpha Lock? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-10 ]
This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed
190
When the FLAP legend appears in blue on the upper ECAM display what is indicated? [ FCOM-DSC-27-30-20 ]
Flaps/slats in transit
191
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
The ailerons droop 5°
192
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Flaps FULL
193
When do the ground spoilers automatically extend during a rejected takeoff?
- If the ground spoilers are armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will
automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle.
- If the ground spoilers are not armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers
will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever
remains at idle).
194
When do the ground spoilers automatically extend during the landing phase?
‐ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
* Both main landing gears on ground,
* Both thrust levers at or below Idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine
(and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
‐ Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
* Both main landing gears on ground,
* Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position)
195
When do the ground spoilers partially extend?
- To accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows
the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met:
▪ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground,
- Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
196
At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground
spoilers extend? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Partially – Full extension is limited until both main gear struts are compressed
197
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− After landing, when the ground spoilers are disarmed
− After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed
− During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20 °.
198
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
The spoiler automatically retracts
199
When is speedbrake extension inhibited (SAFET)? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− SEC 1 and 3 have faults
− AOA protection is active
− Flaps FULL
− Elevator (L or R) fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
− Thrust levers above the MCT position
− Alpha Floor Activation
200
What is the difference between the A319 and A320 regarding speed brake usage with the AP on?
[ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
With the A319 you get full spoiler deflection and with the A320 you only get partial spoiler deflection
201
What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Nothing
202
Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
No
203
How does the High-Speed Protection operate? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft
speed
204
Can the pilot override the auto pitch-up associated with High Speed Protection in Normal Law?
[ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
No
205
What is Alpha Max? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed
scale
206
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
When the angle of attack exceeds Alpha Protection, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now
proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed Alpha Max even with full aft sidestick deflection
207
What protection do you have in Alternate Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
− Load Factor
− High speed stability (Nose up command) but can be overridden
− Low speed stability (Nose down command) but can be overridden
208
Can you override the High-Speed stability in Alternate Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
Yes
209
What protections do you have in Direct Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
None
210
If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll be? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
Direct Law
211
When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?
[ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20, FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
− When in Normal Law, Ground Mode
− When in Direct Law
− When below 50 feet in Flare Mode (pitch only)
212
How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits
213
What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude
214
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
When aircraft returns within normal flight envelope, the abnormal attitude law disengages and aircraft
remains in alternate law with reduced protection for the remainder of the flight
215
What PFD indications indicate Normal Law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
− Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
− Amber/black (alpha protection) airspeed tape
216
What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X’s? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
You are not in Normal Law
217
What would cause you to revert to another law? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
Multiple failures of redundant systems
218
What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-10-20 ]
Normal Law, Ground Mode
219
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
Yes, in Mechanical Backup
220
How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup? [ FCOM-DSC-27-20-20 ]
− Pitch – Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)
− Yaw – Rudder pedals (rudder)
− Speed – Thrust levers
221
What is the normal in-flight fuel management scheme? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
Use center tank first, then the wing tanks
222
How many fuel pumps are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30, FCOM-DSC-28-10-50 ]
− 2 in each wing tank
− 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the left wing/center tank pumps are off
− 2 in center tank
223
With full fuel, when do the center tank fuel pumps operate? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
− For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are retracted, pumps will continue to operate)
After slat retraction
− Continue to run for 5 minutes until the center tank is empty or slats are extended
224
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light? [ FCOM-DSC-28-20 ]
Center tank contains more than 550 lb and either main tank has less than 11,000 lb
225
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 lbs
226
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lb, what happens to the other transfer valve? [FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
All 4 transfer valves open
227
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
Automatically at the next refueling operation
228
How is the IDG cooled? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-60, FCOM-DSC-70-40-50 ]
By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the fuel manifold and then returned to its respective outer
tank. When full the outer tank spills over to the inner tank
229
If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-30 ]
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity reduces by 1,100 lb
230
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-28-20 ]
Low fuel delivery pressure
231
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-70 ]
Only during ground refueling
232
During COCKPIT PREPARATION you notice a FUEL CTR TK PUMP LO PR message. What must be done with less
than 440 lbs of fuel in the center tank? What must be done with greater than 440 lbs of fuel in the center tank?
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-07 ]
− Less than 440 lbs, maintenance write-up not required. Follow FCOM procedure.
− Greater than 440 lbs, omplete write up in maintenance log. Indicates system failure.
233
Why are the outer wing tanks drained last? [ FCOM-DSC-28-10-10 ]
Structural wing bending moment relief
234
When does the APU fuel pump run? [ FCOM-DSC-49-10-20 ]
When the wing or center tank pumps are off or when the aircraft is on battery power only
235
What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-28-30 ]
The refueling control panel door is not closed
236
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-28-20 ]
Some fuel is unusable
237
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-10 ]
No – you must have at least one
238
What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-30 ]
The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE hydraulic system
239
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-10 ]
No
240
How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
− 1 Engine
− 1 PTU
241
How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
− 1 Electric
− 1 RAT
242
How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
− 1 Engine
− 1 Electric
− 1 PTU
− 1 Hand pump
243
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate? [ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
− After the first engine is started
− If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the MAINTENANCE panel has been pressed with no engine running
244
What is normal system hydraulic pressure? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-10 ]
3000 ± 200 PSI
245
Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE hydraulic pressure? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pushbutton
246
If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low and an external walkaround is to be completed, what should you do?
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-04 ]
Obtain ground clearance then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator
247
What condition will cause the PTU to operate when the pushbutton is in AUTO? [ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
A difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic systems
248
Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
Yes
249
When is the PTU inhibited? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20, FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
− PTU pushbutton OFF
− First engine start
− Parking brake is SET and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
− NWS in towing position and parking brake RELEASED
− Cargo door operation (PTU is also inhibited for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation)
250
If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
[ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
Yes, once the overheat subsides
251
If the FAULT light in the PTU pushbutton is ON, are there any other indications on the HYD Panel?
[ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
Yes – FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP pushbutton
252
Name several items that run from only the GREEN system. [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-30 ]
− Landing gear
− Normal brakes
− Slats and flaps
− Engine 1 reverser
253
Name several items that run from only the YELLOW system. [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-30 ]
− Nosewheel steering
− Alternate brakes
− Parking brake
− Cargo doors
− Engine 2 reverser
254
List several items that are powered by the BLUE system. [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-30 ]
− Slats
− Emergency generator
255
What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU pushbutton indicate (OLL)? [ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
− O - Overtemp in reservoir
− L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
− L - Low quantity in the reservoir
256
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pushbutton indicate (POLL)? (FCOM-DSC-29-20)
− P - Pump pressure low
− O - Overtemp in reservoir
− L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
− L - Low quantity in the reservoir
257
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pushbutton indicate (POLLO)? [ FCOM-DSC-29-20 ]
− P - Pump pressure low
− O - Overtemp in reservoir
− L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
− L - Low quantity in the reservoir
− O - Overheat of pump
258
What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-10 ]
Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing gear, and emergency generator is cut off if pressure drops below
a predetermined value (high demand items)
259
What is the purpose of the hand pump? [ FCOM-DSC-29-10-20 ]
To provide Yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation
260
When is engine anti-ice required? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-09 & FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-15 ]
− When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10° C or below with visible moisture present (except during climb and
cruise when the temperature is below -40° C SAT)
− Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below –40° C SAT)
261
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-30-30-20 ]
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
262
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see? [ FCOM-DSC-30-30-10, FCOM-DSC-30-30-20 ]
− Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
− ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
− N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
− N1 idle is increased
263
With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-18 ]
Yes, because idle thrust is increased
264
What happens if you turn the WING ANTI ICE switch on the ground? [ FCOM-DSC-30-20-10 ]
The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test
265
What part of the wing is heated? [ FCOM-DSC-30-20-10 ]
Outboard 3 slats
266
When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close? [ FCOM-DSC-30-20-10 ]
− On landing
− Bleed leak detected
-Loss of electrical power
267
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-30-20-20 ]
− Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
− Low pressure is detected
268
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
[ FCOM-DSC-30-20-10, FCOM-DSC-30-30-10 ]
− Wing – valves CLOSE
− Engine – valves OPEN
269
On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in AUTO, when are the probe and TAT
heaters activated? [ FCOM-DSC-30-50-20 ]
− LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe – not heated on ground)
− NORMAL is automatically set after takeoff
270
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton do? [ FCOM-DSC-30-50-20 ]
Manually activates the probe, drain mast, and window heaters
271
When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) operate? [ FCOM-DSC-31-60-10 ]
− On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
− When at least 1 engine is operating
− Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating
− Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
272
What is the purpose of the DFDR EVENT pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-31-60-20 ]
Briefly pressing this button sets an event mark on the Flight Data Recorder
273
What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level by 250 feet
274
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
− When slats are extended with the landing gear selected down
− On approach after glide slope capture
− When the landing gear is locked down
275
What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC
276
When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
Below 2,500 feet AGL
277
What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD? [ FCOM-DSC-31-40 ]
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the LS display is not selected
278
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where? [ FCOM-DSC-34-30-20 ]
− Captain’s PFD
− F/O’s ND
279
Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
[ FCOM-DSC-22_20-40-30 ]
− Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
− Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
280
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent? [ FCOM-DSC-31-45 ]
− White – constraint is not taken into account
− Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
− Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed
281
If mode range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND? [ FCOM-DSC-31-50 ]
ROSE NAV mode at 80 nm range
282
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Failure Mode Notifications? [ FCOM-DSC-31-10 ]
− Level 1 – ALERT:
■ Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
− Level 2 – CAUTION:
■ Associated with the amber MASTER CAUT light, single chime, and require crew awareness
− Level 3 – WARNING:
■ Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action
283
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew? [ FCOM-DSC-31-10 ]
A level 3 Warning has priority over a level 2 Caution which has priority over a level 1 Alert
284
What types of failures are presented to the crew? [ FCOM-DSC-31-10 ]
− Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items
− Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items
− Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure
285
What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures? [ FCOM-DSC-31-15 ]
Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an *
286
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?
[ FCOM-DSC-31-15 ]
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the
ECAM panel
287
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-31-15 ]
Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight
288
When does the Takeoff Memo appear? [ FCOM-DSC-31-15 ]
− 2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one
engine running
− Takeoff Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
289
When does the Landing Memo appear? [ FCOM-DSC-31-15 ]
− Below 2,000 feet RA
− Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
− Displays at 800 feet if you never climbed above 2000 feet RA
290
In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD? [ FCOM-DSC-31-20 ]
− Relative to the current phase of flight, or
− When a system malfunction is detected
291
When is a STATUS page displayed? [ FCOM-DSC-31-20 ]
− After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
− STATUS will reappear when the slats are extended
292
What computers feed data to the six display units? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-10 ]
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
293
What does each of the DMCs normally supply? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-30 ]
− DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU, lower DU
− DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND
− DMC 3 – Backup
294
How can you tell if a DMC has failed? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-50 ]
“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display units
295
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-
60 ]
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display
296
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-60 ]
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the E/WD to either ND
297
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information? [ FCOM-DSC-31-05-60 ]
Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM Control Panel that you wish to view
298
What does the ALL pushbutton do? [ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
− Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down
− Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page
299
What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do? [ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
− Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the activation of the CLR pushbutton or flight
phase inhibition may have suppressed
− If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC
pushbutton
300
If you press the STS pushbutton and the system has no STATUS messages what will be displayed?
[ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
“NORMAL” for 5 seconds
301
If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still functional? [ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
− EMER CANC
− ALL
− CLR
− STS
− RCL
302
What does the EMER CANC pb do? [ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
− Warnings:
■ Cancels (stops) an aural warning for as long as the failure condition continues
■ Extinguishes the MASTER WARNINGS lights
■ Does not affect the ECAM message display.
− Cautions:
■ Cancels any present caution (single chime, MASTER CAUTION lights, ECAM message)
for the rest of the flight.
303
What do you look for on the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION quantity check?
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-04 ]
− ENG – oil quantity above 9.5 quarts + 0.5 quarts per planned flight hours
− HYD – hydraulic quantity indexes in normal filling range box (normal range + one half the normal range)
− DOOR – oxygen pressure - if half boxed in amber, check the MIN FLT CREW OXY CHART
304
What occurs when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed? [ FCOM-DSC-31-30 ]
− The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
− A warning is displayed if and system is not configured properly
− “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
305
What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU)? [ FCOM-DSC-32-10-10 ]
− Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
− Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems
306
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate? [ FCOM-DSC-32-10-40, FCOM-DSC-32-10-50 ]
Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down
307
What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
[ FCOM-DSC-32-10-10 ]
Nothing - A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260
knots
308
What do the red UNLK lights indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-32-10 40 ]
The landing gear is not locked in the selected position
309
What controls and manages all braking functions? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
− Normal Brakes: Braking Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
− Alternate Brakes: Alternate Braking Control Unit (ABCU)
310
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
− Yelllow system pressure is used for braking and displayed on the Triple Indicator
− Antiskid is deactivated
* On newer aircraft with an ABCU (such as N246NV), brake pressure is automatically limited to 1000
psi to help prevent wheel lock up
− NWS is lost
311
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
− Normal brakes – Green
− Alternate brakes – Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
312
What are the four modes of braking? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
− Normal braking
− Alternate braking with antiskid
− Alternate braking without antiskid (max brake pressure 1000 psi)
− Parking brake
313
When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
When the ground spoilers deploy
314
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
− LOW - progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate
at 5.6 FPS
− MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate
at 9.8 FPS
315
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate
316
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
MAX
317
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on an RTO? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10, FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
− Airspeed above 72 knots, and
− Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
− Ground spoiler extension
318
If you lose Green hydraulic pressure, will you have Auto Brakes? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
No, not with the Alternate Brake system
319
Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
Yes, if certain conditions are met
320
With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for an RTO? [ FCOM-DSC-27-10-20 ]
Yes – when at least one engine is in reverse
321
How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
Approximately 7 full applications of brake pedals or parking brake or any combination thereof
322
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
− Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
− Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
323
The BRK FAN HOT light illuminates during taxi in, do you need to comply with the ECAM?
Yes {FCOM PRO NOR SOP}
324
After the parking checklist is completed, you receive a BRAKES HOT ECAM. The hottest brake temperature is
410°, and your flight is planned for a 45-minute turn. Do you need to comply with the BRAKES HOT ECAM? [ FCOM-
PRO-NOR-SOP-07 ]
no
325
When taxiing out for takeoff, when do you turn brake fans on? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-10 ]
If an arc is displayed above the brake temperature on the WHEEL SD page
326
When taxiing in after landing, when do you turn brake fans on? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-22]
If the the amber HOT light illuminates in the BRK FAN pb
327
When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
With the Yellow hydraulic system electric pump
328
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-20 ]
− ECAM PARKING BRK memo
− Triple indicator brake pressure
329
If the parking brake is activated and no yellow hydraulic or accumulator pressure is available, do you still
have available braking? [ FCOM-DSC-32-30-10 ]
Yes, via the brake pedals, but you must have green hydraulic pressure
330
What 3 things occur when you turn the Gravity Gear Extension hand-crank? [ FCOM-DSC-32-10-40 ]
− Removes Green hydraulic pressure
− Opens gear doors
− Releases the uplocks
331
How many turns of the Gravity Gear Extension hand crank does it take to lower the gear manually?
[ FCOM-DSC-32-10-40 ]
3 clock-wise turns
332
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering? [ FCOM-DSC-32-20-10 ]
Yellow
333
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction? [ FCOM-DSC-32-20-10 ]
+/- 75°
334
When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce? [ FCOM-DSC-32-20-10 ]
Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots
335
If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or T.O., which lights
automatically extinguish after takeoff? [ FCOM-DSC-33-20-20 ]
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted
336
Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb? [ FCOM-DSC-33-20-20 ]
No, they are separate bulbs
337
When do the strobes flash in AUTO? [ FCOM-DSC-33-20-
20 ]
When the main landing gear strut is not compressed
338
What signs illuminate when you turn the NO SMOKING or NO PED switch to ON? [ FCOM-DSC-33-40-10 ]
− No Smoking or No Personal Electronic Device (PED)
− EXIT signs
339
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON? [ FCOM-DSC-33-30-20 ]
− Proximity emergency escape path marking system
− Overhead emergency lights
− EXIT signs
340
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails? [ FCOM-DSC-33-30-20 ]
− Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
− Overhead emergency lighting
− EXIT signs
341
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF? [ FCOM-DSC-33-30-20 ]
− All lights OFF
− Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
342
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost? [ FCOM-DSC-33-40 ]
− Captain’s instrument panel (2 places)
− Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
− Standby compass
343
What does the ON BAT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
It is illuminated amber if one or more IR(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during
the beginning of a full alignment
344
How long will each ADIRU stay on battery power? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10- ]
ADIRS 2 and 3 will remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be
restored. ADIRU 1 (ADIRU 3if captain selected ATT HDG CAPT 3) will remain on battery power until
generator power is restored or battery #2 fails
345
What information is provided by the “IR” units (FATHAAG)? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-10 ]
− F - Flight path vector
− A - Airplane position
− T - Track
− H - Heading
− A - Attitude
− A - Acceleration
− G - Ground Speed
346
What information is provided by the “ADR” units (BOATS)? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-10 ]
− B - Barometric altitude
− O - Overspeed warnings
− A - AOA
− T - Temperatures
− S - Speed/Mach
347
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate (older panel with keypad)? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
The respective IR is in the Align mode
348
How does the ADIRS panel indicate that an IR is in ALIGN mode? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-30 ]
− Before any engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
■ IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned
− When one engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
■ IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in amber during IRS alignment
■ IR NOT ALIGNED is displayed as an ECAM Caution Message if the alignment of one IRS is faulty
■ IR IN ATT ALIGN appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude Mode
349
What does a flashing white align light mean (older panel with keypad)? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
− There are three reasons that the white align lights will flash:
■ There is no current position
■ The position is incorrect
■ The aircraft moved during alignment
350
How is the crew alerted to the FMGS having no current position, an incorrect position or if the aircraft
has moved during the alignment? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo pulses in green on the E/WD
351
How do you fast align an IR? [ ]
Select each ADIRS selector OFF and then back to NAV (one at a time) within 5 sec
352
What does the IR pushbutton do on the newer AIDIRS panel? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
Inertial data output of the respective IR is disconnected
353
What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
A fault affects the respective IR
354
What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion)
355
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference portion
356
Does turning the IR Mode Rotary Switch to OFF also turn off the ADR? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
Yes
357
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
Yes
358
When is a full alignment of the ADIRU required? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-07 ]
− Full alignment of the IRS is required;
■ Before the first flight of the day, or
■ When there is a crew change or
■ When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the expected route, or
■ When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more the 3 hours
■ When any portion of the flight is conducted in Class II Navigation
359
Describe the process for a full alignment of the ADIRS when the FLAPS are not retracted.
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-07 ]
− If the FLAPS are not retracted the flight crew should not set all ADIRS to OFF at the same time
− In order to perform the alignment with the FLAPS not retracted, set a single IR mode selector to OFF for
more than 5 seconds, then set that IR mode selector to NAV. Repeat this for each remaining IR mode
selector switch.
360
What would be missing on the on the Captain’s PFD and ND if IR1 failed or was turned OFF?
[ FCOM-DSC-34-10-10 ]
Attitude and navigation information would be lost. ATT and HDG flags will be displayed on the PFD and
MAP NOT AVAIL will be on the ND
361
What action would recover the attitude and navigation information if IR1 failed or was turned off?
[ FCOM-DSC-34-10-20 ]
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector
362
What would you restore the lost altitude and airspeed information if IR1 failed or IR Mode Selector was turned off?
[ FCOM-DSC-34-NAV-10-20 ]
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector
363
Pressing the SYS pushbutton does what? [ FCOM-DSC-34-70-40 ]
Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system
364
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel? [ FCOM-DSC-34-70-40 ]
Any failure of basic GPWS modes 1 through 5
365
What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-34-70-40 ]
“Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing
366
When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton? [ FCOM-DSC-34-70-40 ]
To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3
367
If the TERR mode failed, does it affect the basic GPWS? [ FCOM-DSC-34-70-40 ]
No
368
How many transponders are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-34-50-10 ]
2
369
Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability? [ FCOM-DSC-34-50-20 ]
No – only the selected transponder has failed
370
What capabilities does the RADAR system have? [ FCOM-DSC-34-60-10 ]
− Weather avoidance
− Turbulence detection
− Terrain mapping
− Predictive windshear detection
371
What would prevent the weather display on the ND? [ FCOM-DSC-31-45 ]
− Mode selector in PLAN
− TERR selected ON
372
At what range is WX/TURB mode available? [ FCOM-DSC-34-60-30 ]
At ranges of 40 nm or less
373
Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched OFF? [ FCOM-DSC-34-60-20 ]
Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO
374
What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10 ]
Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL
375
When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10 ]
− At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
− During landing, alerts are inhibitedbelow 50 feet.
376
How many RADAR systems are installed? [ FCOM-DSC-34-10 ]
1
377
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean? [ FCOM-DSC-35-30-20 ]
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent
378
When do the masks automatically deploy? [ FCOM-DSC-35-30-10 ]
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
379
How long does the PAX oxygen last? [ FCOM-DSC-35-30-10 ]
About 13, 15 or upto 22 minutes (depending on oxygen generators installed)
380
Where is oxygen stored for the crew? [ FCOM-DSC-35-20-10 ]
In a single high-pressure cylinder
381
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
[ FCOM-DSC-35-20-20 ]
It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen
382
What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page if you set the CREW SUPPLY to ON? [ FCOM-DSC-35-20-20 ]
The OXY would change from amber to green
383
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
[ FCOM-DSC-35-20-20 ]
No, you must press the RESET slide switch
384
What are the steps to testing the crew oxygen masks during Cockpit Preparation? [ FCOM-DSC-35-20-30 ]
− CREW SUPPLY pb – CHECK ON
− LOUDSPEAKERS – ON
− INT reception knob – PRESS OUT – ADJUST
− INT/RAD sw – INT
− Press and hold the RESET/TEST button in the direction of the arrow.
▪ Check that the blinker turns yellow for a short time, and then goes black.
− Hold the RESET/TEST button down, and press the Emergency Pressure selector.
▪ Check that the blinker turns yellow and remains yellow, as long as the Emergency Pressure
selector is pressed.
▪ Listen for oxygen flow through the loudspeakers.
− Check that the RESET/TEST button returns to the up position and the N/100% selector is in
the 100 % position.
− Press the Emergency Pressure selector again, and check that the blinker does not turn yellow.
This ensures that the mask is not supplied.
− Check that the Emergency Pressure selector is NOT turned right in the direction of the arrow
(permanent overpressure). This ensures that the oxygen permanent overpressure is not
supplied.
385
The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by? [ FCOM-DSC-36-10-10 ]
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
386
If one BMC fails, can the other take over? [ FCOM-DSC-36-10-20 ]
− Yes, they are interconnected.
− If BMC 1 fails:
− APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
387
What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG 1 BLEED and/or ENG 2 BLEED pushbutton?
[ FCOM-DSC-36-20 ]
OOLDE
− Overpressure - Downstream of the bleed valve
− Overheat
− Leak - Low pressure
− Discontinuity - APU bleed valve open and engine bleed valve not closed
− Engine Start with bleed valve not closed
388
What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves? [ FCOM-DSC-36-10-20 ]
− Pressure regulation
− Shut off valves
389
What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO? [ FCOM-DSC-36-10-40 ]
− When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is open
− When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is closed
− X-Bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except during engine start)
390
After engine start with the APU BLEED pushbutton ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
[ FCOM-DSC-36-10-20 ]
APU Bleed
391
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-49-20 ]
APU N is above 99.5% or 2 secs after N reaches 95%
392
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering
the aircraft? [ FCOM-DSC-24-10-30-10, FCOM-DSC-24-20 ]
APU
393
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-49-20 ]
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) commanded an auto shutdown of the APU
394
How long should you wait to push the APU START pushbutton after engaging the APU MASTER switch?
[ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP-08 ]
3 sec
395
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-36-20 ]
An APU bleed leak
396
What are the primary differences between an automatic and a manual start? [ FCOM-DSC-70-80-40 ]
− Automatic Start:
The FADEC provides full monitoring during start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and
procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
− Manual Start:
The FADEC makes a passive survey of the engine during the start sequence and the flight crew is made
aware of an abnormal start by a proper ECAM warning. The FADEC does not have the authority to abort
the start and the flight crew has to interrupt the starting sequence. (Except if EGT limit is exceeded prior to
50% N2 on ground)
397
When would you use a manual engine start? [ FCOM-PRO-NOR-SOP; FCOM-PRO-SUP-ENG ]
(1) When starting a cold engine (an engine that has been shut down for 4 hours or more) and the
outside air temperature (OAT) at the time of engine start is 10° C or less, the flight crew should
conduct a Manual Engine Start. The Manual Engine Start is a supplementary procedure. Or;
(2) After aborting a start because of:
■ Engine stall
■ Engine EGT overlimit
■ Low start air pressure
(3) When expecting a start abort because of:
* Degraded bleed performance due to hot conditions or at high altitude airports
* An engine with a reduced EGT margin in hot conditions or at high altitude airports
* Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group
398
What controls the engines in all operating regimes? [ FCOM-DSC-70-20 ]
FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
399
What functions does the FADEC control? [ FCOM-DSC-70-20 ]
* Fuel metering
* Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
* Start sequencing
* Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD
400
What redundancy does the FADEC have? [ FCOM-DSC-70-20 ]
* Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby
401
When does continuous ignition automatically operate? [ FCOM-DSC-70-80-30 ]
* EIU failure
* Flame-out detected
* Ignition delay during start
402
How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts? [ FCOM-DSC-70-80-30 ]
* Both A and B
403
What is the power source for the FADEC? [ FCOM-DSC-70-20, FCOM-DSC-70-98 ]
* The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical
system when N2 is above a set value
* If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
404
When will the FADEC abort a start? [ FCOM-DSC-70-80-40 ]
* Hot start
* Stalled start
* No ignition
405
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required? [ FCOM-DSC-70-80-40 ]
* No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted)
automatically
406
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed? [ FCOM-DSC-70-40-40, FCOM-DSC-70-40-50 ]
* Bleed demands
* Approach Configuration
* High engine or IDG temperatures
407
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command? [ FCOM-DSC-70-30-30 ]
* The position detent of the thrust lever
408
What controls the engine LP fuel valves? [ FCOM-DSC-70-40-10 ]
* Engine MASTER switch
* ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
409
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate? [ FCOM-DSC-70-90 ]
* Auto start abort
* The position of the HP fuel shutoff valve is abnormal
* Thrust control malfunction
