Systems Validation Flashcards

Questions similar to those you may find on the systems validation test.

1
Q

What are the dimensions of the A321?

Length, wingspan, and height.

Aircraft General

A

Length: 146’
Wingspan: 117’ 5”
Height: 38’ 7”

DSC-20-20 P 3/6 (164)

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2
Q

What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180° turn?

Aircraft General

A

93’. 99’ recommended.

DSC-20-30 P 2/4 (169)

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3
Q

What are the unpressurized areas of the A321?

Aircraft General

A
  1. Radome
  2. Nose gear bay
  3. Air conditioning compartment
  4. Main gear bay
  5. Tail cone

DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)

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4
Q

Where is the VHF 2 antenna located?

Aircraft General

A

Rear lower fuselage

DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)

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5
Q

Where are the GPS antennas located?

Aircraft General

A

Upper forward fuselage

DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)

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6
Q

Where are the HF antennas located?

Aircraft General

A

Mid vertical stabilizer

DSC-20-20 P 4/6 (165)

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7
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the A321?

Aircraft General

A

206,132 lbs

LIM-AG-WGHT P 1/2 (3,580)

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8
Q

What is the maximum landing weight for the A321?

Aircraft General

A

174,606 lbs

LIM-AG-WGHT P 1/2 (3,580)

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9
Q

How many cabin exits are there on the A321?

Doors

A

8

DSC-52-10-10 P 1/2 (2,110)

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10
Q

How does the opening of the passenger doors differ from the cabin emergency exits during slide deployment?

Doors

A

Passenger doors drive full open and do not hesitate in opening for slide inflation. Cabin emergency exits have intermediate opening to prevent passengers exiting during slide inflation - this can be manually overridden.

Cannot find FCOM reference.

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11
Q

What happens to the cockpit door if electrical power is lost?

Doors

A

The door is unlocked but remains closed.

DSC-52-40-10 P 2/2 (2,133)

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12
Q

What would a strike light illuminated on the upper overhead panel indicate?

Doors

A

The corresponding (upper, mid, or lower) locking latch is faulty.

DSC-52-40-20 P 4/4 (2,137)

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13
Q

The cockpit window handle must have what color band showing to indicate the window is locked?

Doors

A

Red

Cannot find FCOM reference.

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14
Q

What does a white SLIDE indication on the ECAM DOORS page indicate?

Doors

A

The slide is armed.

DSC-52-20 P 1/2 (2,130)

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15
Q

Where is the slide located for the cabin emergency exits?

Doors

A

Below the floor

DSC-52-10-30 P 2/2 (2,117)

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16
Q

Where is the manual slide deployment located for the passenger doors? Cabin emergency exits?

Doors

A
  • Passenger doors: floor right side
  • Cabin emergency exits: in the door jamb upper right side

Pax: DSC-52-10-80 P 1/4 (2,126)
Cabin: DSC-52-10-30 P 2/2 (2,117) not labeled

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17
Q

What is the only cockpit light that will work when batteries are supplying electrical power?

Lights

A

First Officer dome light

DSC-33-10-10 P 1/2 (1,646)

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18
Q

How do you tell a NAV or STROBE light is reaching the end of its service life?

Lights

A

A blue LED light will blink

DSC-33-20-20 P 3/6 (1,660)

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19
Q

Cabin signs will automatically illuminate at what cabin altitude?

Lights

A

11,300’ ± 350’

DSC-33-40-10 P 2/2 (1,669)

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20
Q

What is the required emergency equipment?

Equipment

A

Ropes, Axe, Masks, PBE, AVSAX, Gloves, Extinguisher, Flashlights, Vests

RAMPAGE FV

PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 14/16 (3,107)

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21
Q

Where is the fire extinguisher located?

Equipment

A

Behind the FO - all the fire fighting equipment is behind the FO

DSC-25-20 P 1/4 (1,240)

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22
Q

Where are the life jackets for the 3rd and 4th occupant located?

Equipment

A

Below their associated seats

DSC-25-20 P 2/4 (1,241)

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23
Q

Pressing a switch IN is normally associated with turning the switch ____.

Equipment

A

On/auto

DSC-25-10-10 P 2/4 (1,215)

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24
Q

What do 2 dots on a pushbutton indicate?

Equipment

A

That portion of the switch is not used.

DSC-25-10-10 P 2/4 (1,215)

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25
Where is circuit breaker panel 49VU located? ## Footnote Equipment
Overhead panel ## Footnote DSC-25-10-70 P 1/2 (1,236)
26
What does "=" throughout the PFD indicated? | Note: "=" would be green. ## Footnote Indications and Recording
This indicates "normal law," a limit, or protection available. ## Footnote DSC-31-40 P 4/32 (1,511)
27
Can the flight crew manually start the DFDR? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
The flight crew can manually start the DFDR and does this by pressing the GND CTL switch. This is a normal procedure on the ground before the before start checklist to ensure the checklist is recorded. ## Footnote DSC-31-60-10 P 2/2 (1,581)
28
Instead of airspeed, the BUSS uses ____. For altitude information, the BUSS uses altitude from ____. ## Footnote Indications and Recording
AOA; GPS ## Footnote DSC-34-NAV-10-30-10 P 1/4 (1,684)
29
Which DUs will automatically switch in the event of a failure? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
PFD to ND, E/WD to SD (3 total screens switch) ## Footnote DSC-31-05-60 P 1/6 (1,454)
30
What on screen indication would you get if DMC 1 fails? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
Captain side screen would indicate "invalid data" and the ECAM would flash off then on. ## Footnote DSC-31-05-50 P 1/2 (1,452)
31
How do the DMCs reconfigure if DMC 1 fails? Does anything happen to the screens when DMC 1 fails? What does the crew need to do? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
DMC 2 automatically takes over to display information on the ECAM. The captain's screen would shut off and the ECAM will "blink." The crew needs to select EIS DMC to CAPT 3 to allow the captain's screen to use DMC 3. ## Footnote DSC-31-05-50 P 1/2 (1,452)
32
What is the difference between level 1, 2, and 3 ECAM warnings/cautions? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
3 has CRC; 2 has SC; 1 has no chime. ## Footnote DSC-31-10 P 3/8 (1,462)
33
How would you identify a primary failure? ## Footnote Indications and Recording
A primary failure is indicated by a BOX around the item. ## Footnote DSC-31-15 P 4/8 (1,471)
34
How long does the cabin oxygen system supply oxygen for? ## Footnote Oxygen
15 min ## Footnote DSC-35-30-10 P 1/2 (1,832)
35
The masks for the cabin oxygen system will automatically drop at what cabin altitude? ## Footnote Oxygen
14,000' (+250'/-750') ## Footnote DSC-35-30-10 P 1/2 (1,832)
36
How long does the PBE supply oxygen for? ## Footnote Oxygen
15 min ## Footnote DSC-35-40-10 P 1/4 (1,836)
37
When does the quick don mask automatically provide overpressure oxygen supply? ## Footnote Oxygen
30,000' cabin altitude ## Footnote DSC-35-20-20 P 5/8 (1,826)
38
Know the battery contactor indicators (photo on back) ## Footnote Electrical
## Footnote DSC-24-20 P 13/22 (1,200)
39
The ENG generators supply ____ KVA of ____ power. ## Footnote Electrical
90; AC ## Footnote DSC-24-10-20 P 1/4 (1,166)
40
What is the generator priority? ## Footnote Electrical
GEN1/GEN2 (onside), external power, APU ## Footnote DSC-24-10-30-10 P 1/2 (1,170)
41
How is the emergency generator powered? ## Footnote Electrical
Blue hydraulic system ## Footnote DSC-24-10-30-30 P 4/10 (1,179)
42
Can the entire network be powered by a single ENG generator? ## Footnote Electrical
No. The galley bus is shed. ## Footnote DSC-24-10-30-30 P 1/10 (1,176)
43
What is the difference between the emergency configuration and the smoke configuration? ## Footnote Electrical
The smoke configuration is a **reversible** configuration purposefully entered by the crew to identify the source of smoke and the fuel pumps are on (connected). Emergency configuration is due to an actual failure and might not be reversible. ## Footnote DSC-24-10-30-30 P 9/10 (1,184) *Can't find where FCOM mentions reversible*
44
What is the required voltage for the batteries prior to APU start? ## Footnote Electrical
Above 25.5 V ## Footnote PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 2/16 (3,095)
45
How do you recharge the batteries? ## Footnote Electrical
BATT pushbuttons on, aircraft connected to external power, 20 minutes. BATT pushbuttons off to display how much charge batteries have (battery charge indicators are always on) ## Footnote PRO-NOR-SOP-04 P 2/16 (3,095)
46
What does FAULT indicate on the EMER ELEC PWR panel? ## Footnote Electrical
The EMER gen is not supplying power. ## Footnote DSC-24-20 P 7/22 (1,194)
47
What fuel pumps normally deliver fuel to the APU? ## Footnote APU
Left tank pumps. If pressure is insufficient or during start, the APU has its own fuel pump. ## Footnote DSC-49-1-20 P 1/4 (2,090)
48
What switches do you push to start the APU? ## Footnote APU
MASTER, START ## Footnote DSC-49-1-20 P 1/4 (2,090)
49
What switches do you press to shutdown the APU? ## Footnote APU
After turning off bleed air, press MASTER
50
After using bleed air you go to shut off the APU, does the APU shut down immediately? ## Footnote APU
No, it undergoes a cooling period for 60-120 seconds and the shutdown process can be stopped by pressing MASTER. ## Footnote DSC-49-20 P 1/2 (2,094)
51
When securing the aircraft, what must the aircrew do before turning off the batteries? ## Footnote APU
Wait until the APU flap is fully closed (about 2 minutes after the APU AVAIL light goes out), before switching off the batteries. ## Footnote PRO-NOR-SUP-23 P 2/4 (3,371)
52
When would GND appear on the ECAM BLEED page? ## Footnote Pneumatics
Any time on the ground ## Footnote DSC-36-20 P 5/6 (1,864)
53
Bleed valves are ____ operated and ____ controlled. ## Footnote Pneumatics
Pneumatically; electrically ## Footnote DSC-36-10-20 P 1/6 (1,846)
54
What stage air is the normal source for engine bleed air? ## Footnote Pneumatics
IP air ## Footnote DSC-36-10-20 P 3/6 (1,848)
55
When would the BMC switch to HP air? ## Footnote Pneumatics
When the BMC senses IP air is unable to provide 65 ± 15 PSI. Generally low power settings. ## Footnote DSC-36-10-20 P 3/6 (1,848)
56
What would a FAULT light on the overhead AIR COND panel indicate? ## Footnote Pneumatics
Overheat, over pressure, leak, incorrect valve position ## Footnote DSC-36-20 P 2/6 (1,861)
57
____ bleed has priority over ____ bleed air. ## Footnote Pneumatics
APU; ENG ## Footnote DSC-36-10-30 P 1/2 (1,852)
58
Air conditioning valves are ____ operated, ____ controlled, and fail ____. ## Footnote Air Conditioning
Pneumatically; electrically; closed ## Footnote DSC-21-10-20 P 3/4 (188)
59
When will the packs automatically deliver NORM pressure? ## Footnote Air Conditioning
When LO is selected and the ACSC determines the system is unable to meet the cooling demands requested. ## Footnote DSC-21-10-30 P 2/2 (191)
60
When will the packs automatically deliver HI pressure? ## Footnote Air Conditioning
Single pack operation or when the APU is the source of bleed air ## Footnote DSC-21-10-30 P 2/2 (191)
61
When do the cabin pressure controllers switch? ## Footnote Pressurization
By cycling the MODE SEL switch to manual and back to automatic or by waiting 70 seconds after landing. ## Footnote DSC-21-20-30 P 1/4 (214) and DSC-21-20-40 P1/8 (218)
62
How many motors are on the outflow valve? ## Footnote Pressurization
3 motors (2 automatic AC faster motors; 1 manual DC slower motor) ## Footnote DSC-21-20-20 P 1/2 (212)
63
Seatbelt signs will automatically come on when cabin altitude reaches what value? ## Footnote Pressurization
11,300' ± 350' ## Footnote DSC-33-40-10 P 2/2 (1,669)
64
How many safety valves does the A321 have? ## Footnote Pressurization
2 ## Footnote DSC-21-20-20 P 1/2 (212)
65
What are the 3 systems that are ventilated? ## Footnote Ventilation
Battery, lavatory/galley, avionics ## Footnote DSC-21-30-10 P 1/2 (226)
66
When is the avionics system in the open configuration on the ground? ## Footnote Ventilation
The skin temperature is above a threshold (≥ 40°C) | Book says duct temp, slides say skin temp. ## Footnote DSC-21-30-20 P 2/8 (229)
67
When is the avionics system in the intermediate configuration in the air? ## Footnote Ventilation
The skin temperature is above a threshold (35°C, temp increasing OR 32°C, temp decreasing) ## Footnote DSC-21-30-20 P 4/8 (231)
68
What portion of the wing is heated with bleed air? ## Footnote Ice and Rain Protection
The 3 outboard slats (3, 4, 5) ## Footnote DSC-30-20-10 P 1/2 (1,410)
69
Wing anti ice valves fail ____. ## Footnote Ice and Rain Protection
Closed ## Footnote DSC-30-20-10 P 1/2 (1,410)
70
Engine anti ice valves fail ____.
Open ## Footnote DSC-30-30-10 P 1/2 (1,416)
71
How do you perform the APU fire test on a cold dark airplane? What indications should you see? ## Footnote Fire Protection
BATT 1 and 2 pushbuttons on, press the TEST button. APU FIRE pushbutton and SQUIB/DISCH switch should illuminate. ## Footnote DSC-26-20-20 P 3/6 (1,254)
72
What indications would you see for a successful APU and Engine Fire test with AC power? ## Footnote Fire Protection
* APU: Continuous repetitive chime, 4 lights (2 MASTER WARNINGS, 1 APU FIRE pushbutton light, 1 SQUIB/DISCH pushbutton light), ECAM APU FIRE warning * ENG: Continuous repetitive chime, 6 lights (2 MASTER WARNINGS, 1 ENG FIRE pushbutton light, 2 SQUIB/DISCH lights, 1 FIRE/FAULT light), ECAM ENG FIRE warning ## Footnote APU: DSC-26-20-20 P 3/6 (1,254) ENG: DSC-26-20-20 P 2/6 (1,253)
73
What indications would you have for smoke detected in the avionics bay? ## Footnote Fire Protection
* Single chime * 5 lights (2 master cautions, 1 smoke light on emer elec panel, 1 blower fault light, 1 extract fault light) * ECAM AVIONICS SMOKE ## Footnote DSC-26-30-10 P 1/2 (1,258)
74
What indication does the crew have to identify when a fire has gone out? ## Footnote Fire Protection
The associated FIRE pushbutton will no longer be illuminated for APU and ENG fires. There is no way to tell if a cargo fire has gone out (halon will trigger the smoke detectors). ## Footnote ENG: PRO-ABN-ENG P 48/126 (2,637) Cargo: PRO-ABN-SMOKE P 14/16 (3,011)
75
How many extinguishing bottles per engine? APU? Cargo? ## Footnote Fire Protection
* Engine: 2 per engine * APU: 1 * Cargo: 2 shared ## Footnote ENG: DSC-26-20-10 P 2/2 (1,251) APU: DSC-26-20-10 P 2/2 (1,251) Cargo: DSC-26-50-10 P 2/4 (1,265)
76
How long does AGENT 1 take to discharge? ## Footnote Fire Protection
60 seconds ## Footnote DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
77
On the cargo smoke panel, when does the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate? ## Footnote Fire Protection
60 minutes after discharging agent 1 ## Footnote DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
78
How long does AGENT 2 take to discharge? ## Footnote Fire Protection
Over 140 minutes ## Footnote DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
79
How much total fire protection do we have? ## Footnote Fire Protection
200 minutes of coverage (60 min from AGENT 1, 140 min from AGENT 2) ## Footnote DSC-26-50-10 P 3/4 (1,266)
80
When do the hydraulic system labels on ECAM display in amber? ## Footnote Hydraulics
When below 1,450 PSI ## Footnote DSC-29-20 P 6/8 (1,401)
81
Be familiar with the PTU SD indications (see back of card). ## Footnote Hydraulics
## Footnote DSC-29-20 P 6/8 (1,401)
82
What hydraulic system are the normal brakes on? Alternate brakes? Parking brake? NWS? EMER GEN? MLG? ## Footnote Hydraulics
* Normal Brakes: green * Alternate Brakes: yellow * Parking Brake: yellow * NWS: yellow * EMER GEN: blue * MLG: green ## Footnote DSC-29-10-30 P 1/2 (1,394)
83
What systems contain electric pumps? ## Footnote Hydraulics
Blue and yellow ## Footnote DSC-29-10-20 P 1/6 (1,388)
84
When does the blue electric pump operate? The yellow one? ## Footnote Hydraulics
* Blue: after the first engine start * Yellow: whenever manually selected on or during cargo door operations ## Footnote Blue: DSC-29-20 P 1/8 (1,396) Yellow: DSC-29-20 P 2/8 (1,397)
85
Hydraulic pumps provide ____ PSI except the RAT which provides ____ PSI. ## Footnote Hydraulics
3000; 2500 ## Footnote DSC-29-10-10 P 1/2 (1,386)
86
When will the PTU operate? ## Footnote Hydraulics
Differential pressure of at least 500 PSI with the parking brake released ## Footnote DSC-29-10-20 P 1/6 *Cannot find referece to "with the parking brake released" in FCOM*
87
What computes the rudder travel limit? ## Footnote Flight Controls
Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) ## Footnote DSC-22_40-10 P 1/2 (1,062)
88
What are the only 2 mechanically controlled flight surfaces? ## Footnote Flight Controls
Rudder, pitch trim ## Footnote DSC-27-10-10 P 2/6 (1,275)
89
How many flight control computers are there? ## Footnote Flight Controls
7 (2 FAC, 2 ELAC, 3 SEC) ## Footnote DSC-27-10-10 P 3/6 (1,276)
90
In the event of a sidestick malfunction, how would a pilot takeover control and deactivate the other sidestick? ## Footnote Flight Controls
Press and hold the sidestick priority button for 40 seconds. Control can be regained if the opposite sidestick priority pushbutton is pressed. ## Footnote DSC-27-20-30 P 5/16 (1,328)
91
Looking at the PFD, how would you be able to identify normal law? Alternate law? Direct law? Mechanical law? ## Footnote Flight Controls
* Normal: "=" * Alternate: "x" * Direct: "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" * Mechanical: "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY" ## Footnote Normal: DSC-31-40 P 4/32 (1,511) Alternate: DSC-27-20-20 P 6/10 (1,319) Direct: DSC-27-20-20 P 8/10 (1,321) Mechanical: DSC 27-20-20 P 9/10 (1,322)
92
What happens in alternate law when the gear is extended? ## Footnote Flight Controls
It goes into flare mode (which is direct law) ## Footnote DSC-27-20-20 P 6/10 (1,319)
93
The alpha floor function activates regardless of ____ position or ____ engagement status. ## Footnote Flight Controls
Thrust lever; A/THR ## Footnote DSC-22_40-30 P 2/4 (1,067)
94
Can the aircraft be refueled on battery power only? ## Footnote Fuel
Yes. There is a 10 minute limit. ## Footnote DSC-28-10-70 P 1/2 *unable to find reference to 10 minute limit in FCOM*
95
At what fuel value would a LO LVL indication be displayed on the ECAM? ## Footnote Fuel
1,650 lb in the associated wing ## Footnote DSC-28-10-80 P 1/2 (1,366)
96
How does fuel get from an ACT to the center tank? ## Footnote Fuel
When the high level sensor in the center tank is dry for 10 minutes, the FLSCU modulates valves and the ACT transfer pump to take fuel from the ACT to the center tank. ## Footnote DSC-28-10-30 P 3/4 (1,358)
97
How does fuel get from the center tank to the wing tanks? ## Footnote Fuel
After 550 lbs of fuel is burned from the wing tank, the XFR valve is opened to allow jet pumps to suck fuel from the center tank into the wings. ## Footnote DSC-28-10-30 P 3/4 (1,358)
98
How does fuel get from the wing tanks to the engines? ## Footnote Fuel
2 fuel pumps per wing ## Footnote DSC-28-10-30 P 1/4 (1,356)
99
What are the 3 times the FD will automatically engage? ## Footnote Autoflight
1. FMGC powerup, 2. TCAS event 3. Go around ## Footnote DSC-22_30-20-20 P 1/2 (810)
100
What does -FD2 indicate? ## Footnote Autoflight
FD 1 is off ## Footnote DSC-22_30-20-50 P2/2 (817)
101
Managed guidance is achieved by ____ knobs; selected guidance is achieved by ____ knobs. ## Footnote Autoflight
Pushing; pulling ## Footnote DSC-22_10-40-20 P 2/8 (285)
102
Where is AP, FD, and A/TH engagement displayed? ## Footnote Autoflight
5th column of the FMA ## Footnote DSC-22_30-80-20 P 1/32 (1,022)
103
Which RMP works in the EMER ELEC configuration? ## Footnote Communications
RMP 1 ## Footnote DSC-23-10-20 P 1/4 (1,098)
104
How can you erase the CVR? ## Footnote Communications
When the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is on, press the ERASE button for 2 seconds. ## Footnote DSC-23-10-40 P 2/2 (1,107)
105
When does DECEL illuminate on the autobrake pushbuttons? ## Footnote Landing Gear
At 80% of the selected rate ## Footnote DSC-32-30-20 P 3/8 (1,632)
106
The landing gear panel attains information from which LGCIU? ## Footnote Landing Gear
1 ## Footnote DSC-32-10-40 P1/6 (1,610)
107
The brake pressure gauge on the main console shows pressure for which system? ## Footnote Landing Gear
Yellow ## Footnote DSC-32-30-20 P 2/8 (1,631)
108
When is the NAV accuracy check considered positive? Negative? ## Footnote Flight Management & Navigation
* Positive: error is ≤ 3 NM (FM position is reliable) * Negative: error is > 3 NM (FM position is not reliable ## Footnote *Reference in FCOM not found. Perhaps around PRO-SPO-51 (3,524)*
109
If the TERR ON ND pushbutton is off, what happens if the predictive functions of the GPWS generate a caution or warning? ## Footnote Flight Management & Navigation
The terrain is automatically displayed on the NDs and the ON light of the TERR ON ND pushbutton comes on. ## Footnote DSC-31-45 P 21/26 (1,560)
110
On the ground during an automatic start, how many igniters are used? ## Footnote Powerplant
1 during the first start, 2 during subsequent starts ## Footnote DSC-70-80-30 (2,199)
111
Which hydraulic system does each engine's reverse thrust use? ## Footnote Powerplant
* Eng 1: green * Eng 2: yellow | Each engine uses the "on side" hydraulic system ## Footnote DSC-70-70 P 1/4 (2,190)
112
Transient arcs on the engine indications are only displayed with what engaged? ## Footnote Powerplant
A/THR ## Footnote DSC-70-90-40 P 6/12 (2,223)