TAM Flashcards

1
Q

Factors that provide stability; in threat assessment, can be used to provide support or stability to a subject who is struggling or represent reasons that an individual would not engage in targeted violence

A

Anchors

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2
Q

This refers to the type, frequency and intensity of the subject’s attempts to be physically proximal (close) to the target…includes successful and unsuccessful attempts to approach the target.

A

Approach behavior

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3
Q

the act of detaining someone in legal custody, usually by a law enforcement officer. The actual deprivation of a person’s liberty can be physical detention for a short or prolonged period of time in response to a criminal charge.

A

Arrest

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4
Q

Specific behaviors that are needed in order to launch a physical assault on a target. These behaviors are displayed as steps on the pathway to violence

A

Attack-related behaviors

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5
Q

An observable action that provides evidence of an underlying element that may be relevant to a threat assessment and management case.. a subject’s actions (e.g., talking to himself or herself) might lead the threat assessor to believe the person has a mental health disorder that influences the level of threat posed by that individual

A

Behavioral indicator

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6
Q

Threat assessment orientation based on the idea that the subject will exhibit identifiable behaviors indicating the intent to commit an act of targeted of violence

A

Behavioral Threat Assessment

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7
Q

observable, identifiable behaviors that an individual exhibits while he or she is progressing on the pathway of violence

A

Behaviors of concern

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8
Q

An event that is rare, predictable only in retrospect, with extreme impacts

A

Black swan event

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9
Q

A gap or break… a situation where usual security measures have been circumvented

A

Breach

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10
Q

When an individual or group becomes defensive and surrounded by fortifications (real and virtual) to keep information in or detractors out…can lead to under- or overestimation of risk

A

Bunkers

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11
Q

The continuous interaction between what is known and unknown in a particular case, and the evolving assessments used to determine the appropriate protective response at any given point in time

A

Situation/case dynamics

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12
Q

In addition to known and unknown elements in case dynamics, this includes the intervention implemented by the assessor.

A

intervention strategy

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13
Q

This is a process used to document the chronological history of evidence to maintain
the security, integrity and accountability of its handling.

A

Chain of custody

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14
Q

“Circumstances, content and contextual factors” related to a subject’s inappropriate communication or contact

A

CirCon Factors

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15
Q

Orders issued by a court to convince the subject to stop threatening behaviors or stay away from the target and are periodically employed as a threat
management intervention (e.g., restraining, stay-away, protective orders)

A

Civil actions

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16
Q

Thinking; in more complex terms, it is the processes in the human mind involved in acquisition, storage, retrieval and processing of information.

A

Cognition

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17
Q

Ability to perceive nuances or subtle differences. If high in this trait, usually sensitive to small changes in a task, activity, behavior or the environment; Sometimes referred to as intuition or street smarts. A person may have high this trait even with little formal education

A

Cognitive complexity

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18
Q

The media used to transmit messages are referred to as ___________________.
Threat assessment uses this phrase when referring to the ways that information
about threatening individuals can be gained by threat assessment teams

A

Communication channels

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19
Q

Safeguarding sensitive information, usually involving case intelligence or personal information.

A

Confidentiality

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20
Q

The information contained and conveyed in the words, style and method of a threat

A

Content factors

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21
Q

The situation and environment surrounding the subject or the target. These can be personal, organizational, or on a larger scale (e.g., economic climate, world
news, etc.).

A

Contextual

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22
Q

A threat, direct or veiled, that is thought to be real, not just hypothetical. One test of whether a threat is ______ is the ability and intent of the entity posing the threat

A

Credible threat

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23
Q

Any information which is collected, analyzed, or distributed for use in inhibiting or monitoring criminal activity.

A

Criminal intelligence

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24
Q

Set of behaviors, attitudes, and policies that make it possible for people to work effectively across cultures. In threat assessment, it is having knowledge of differences and the ability to foresee how those differences may impact the investigation, analysis, or management of a case.

A

Cultural competence

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25
Q

This is an unambiguous statement of threat to either the target or law enforcement detailing intention to commit an act of targeted violence

A

Directly communicated threat

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26
Q

The cumulative effect an event can have when it initiates a succession of similar event. Used to describe the tendency for the loss of one inhibitor to affect other aspects of a subject’s life and create a downward spiral where other inhibitors are compromised as well.

A

Domino Effect

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27
Q

This is a preattack increase in intensity (frequency and/or duration) or variety of warning behaviors, usually indicating an attack is imminent

A

Energy burst

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28
Q

The sum of background factors (peer group, security, access to weapons, etc.) affecting the situation of both the subject and the target. This includes organizational or cultural factors that impact tolerance or reporting of behaviors on the pathway to violence

A

Environmental influences

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29
Q

Violent action for which the impetus of the attack is born out of an ideological system, usually intended to enact some change or disrupt activities deemed unacceptable by followers of that ideology

A

Extremist violence

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30
Q

Process of acquiring information and evidence (about the target, the subject, contacts, communication, past and present behavior, context) to support accurate and complete assessment of risks and the best way to defuse them

A

Fact finding

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31
Q

Governs the gathering, maintenance, and accessibility of educational records. Schools need written permission from the student to release educational records to anyone other than the student.

A

Family and Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

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32
Q

Exceptions to FERPA

A

To comply with a judicial order or lawfully issued subpoena, to appropriate officials in cases of health and safety emergencies, and to state and local authorities, within a juvenile justice system, pursuant to specific state law. Observations or interactions with students.

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33
Q

Prebreach preparations made by the person(s) posing a threat right before the threat is carried out. This can include acts like disseminating reasons for the attack or executing a last will and testament

A

Final act behavior

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34
Q

Exceptions to HIPAA

A

The Privacy Rule permits use and disclosure of protected health information, without an individual’s authorization or permission, for national priority purposes to law enforcement officials under specific circumstances (See 45 C.F.R. § 164.512). Disclosure must also be made to someone believed to be able to prevent or lessen a threat or to law enforcement if the information is needed to identify or apprehend an escapee or violent criminal.

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35
Q

Individuals who threaten to facilitate a personal relationship with the target; express infatuations/obsessions

A

Binder howler

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36
Q

Individuals who are motivated to threaten individuals because of their high public profile.

A

Celebrity-seeking Howlers..this is an impersonal sinister type of howler

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37
Q

Individuals who threaten as means of control over the target, usually a partner or family member.

A

Controller Howler..this is a personal sinister type of howler

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38
Q

Individuals who threaten as a reaction to other threats or reports of violence.

A

Copycat Howlers…this is an impersonal sinister type of howler

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39
Q

Individuals who threaten as a means to further a personal cause.

A

Crusader Howlers…this is an impersonal sinister type of howler

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40
Q

Individuals who threaten as a result of delusional relationship (or potential relationship) with the target.

A

Deluded Howlers…a personal binder type of howler….

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41
Q

Individuals for whom delusional content plays a direct role in their threats They don’t want a relationship but the delusions are causing threats.

A

Delusional Howlers…this is an impersonal sinister type of howler

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42
Q

Individuals who threaten in order to implicate a third party as the perpetrator of the threats.

A

Dirty-trickster Howlers…this is a personal sinister type of howler

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43
Q

Individuals who make threats on a continual basis, much like a hobby

A

Habitual Howlers…impersonal sinister type of howler

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44
Q

Individuals who threaten someone they do not know.

A

Impersonal Howlers

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45
Q

Individuals who threaten as a way of intimidating the target, who is typically a member of one of their social circles (e.g. supervisor, coworker, teacher, classmate).

A

Intimidator Howlers..this is a personal sinister type of howler

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46
Q

Individuals who threaten as an attempt to continue a relationship that the target wishes to end it.

A

Maintainer Howlers…a personal binder type of howler….different from Seeker bc a maintainer wants to CONTINUE a relationship that’s ended and seeker wants to ESTABLISH one

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47
Q

Individuals who threaten someone they know - seek to control targets - physical intimidation

A

Personal Howlers

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48
Q

Individuals who threaten as a means to establish an intimate relationship with the target, even when the target has repeatedly rebuffed them.

A

Seeker Howlers….a personal binder type of howler….different from Maintainer bc a maintainer wants to CONTINUE a relationship that’s ended and seeker wants to ESTABLISH one

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49
Q

Individuals who are just happy to communicate - the communications forge the relationship - seek to become lover, relative, or friend of a public figure

A

Relationship howler…a type of impersonal binder

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50
Q

Individuals who have a mental illness and believe that the public figure sends them messages through their daily activities or destiny will bring them together

A

Delusory howler…a type of impersonal binder

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51
Q

Individuals who don’t realize the inappropriateness of their communication with the target

A

Callow howler…this is a type of impersonal binder

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52
Q

Individuals who threaten as a defensive reaction to a perceived threat or attack from the target.

A

Self-defender Howlers….this is an impersonal sinister type of binder

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53
Q

Individuals who threaten in order to scare, cause anxiety, or intimidate the target

A

Sinister Howlers

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54
Q

Deliberate actions taken by a human against another human with the intention of causing harm.

A

Human-on-Human Violence

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55
Q

Individuals who intend to follow a path toward violence and behave in ways to further that goal

A

Hunters (aka biters)

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56
Q

Individuals who, though they have inappropriate, bizarre or threatening contact with the target, never intend on following a path to violence

A

Howlers (aka Barkers)

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57
Q

Entertaining ideas specific to the utility and acceptability of violence as a means to address the subject’s particular grievance

A

Ideation

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58
Q

Thoughts of the necessity and utility of violence by a subject that are made evident through behaviors such as researching previous attackers and collecting, practicing, and fantasizing about weapons

A

Identification

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59
Q

This is an act of spontaneous violence often sparked by situational or contextual triggers

A

Impromptu violence

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60
Q

Contact or communication with the target that is unwanted and intended by the subject to further the motives behind the threatening behavior. Contact can be written, verbal, or behavioral in nature and delivered in a variety of ways. These may be perceived by the target as intimidation, harassment, threatening, or out of context

A

Inappropriate Communication or Contact

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61
Q

Careful consideration of converging evidence in a case to ascertain the level of threat posed and progress toward violence.

A

Information Analysis

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62
Q

Process of obtaining information from all available sources to inform the analysis and decision making in a threat assessment

A

Information Gathering

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63
Q

Facilitation of the flow of information among entities responsible for a case so that all parties have access to current, relevant information on which to base decision making

A

Information Sharing

64
Q

Refers to information or knowledge that is kept
separate, is tightly controlled, and is not shared.

A

Silo Effect (stovepipe effect)

65
Q

Anything that serves to decrease the likelihood that a subject’s behavior will escalate to an act of targeted violence (e.g., familial bonds, strong friendships, or employment); sometimes referred to as buffers

A

Inhibitors

66
Q

Individual with access to a facility or organization who uses that access to disrupt or cause harm to the organization or others involved with that organization

A

Insider threat

67
Q

What are the criteria for intended violence?

A

Intent to commit the act….selecting an attack mode that ensures injury, death, or property damage….and a motive that does not profit the attacker.

68
Q

Purposeful questioning of a subject to obtain accurate, useful, and timely information relevant to an investigation

A

Interrogation

69
Q

The action taken in implementation of a threat management strategy (e.g., interviewing, monitoring, etc.)

A

Intervention

70
Q

Potential conflict between the intervention applied and its effects on the POC’s inhibitors and stabilizers.

A

Intervention Dichotomy

71
Q

The case dynamic intensified by the stimulus of what the threat manager or target does or does not do in response to the threat situations

A

Intervention Synergy

72
Q

Range of levels of confrontation with the subject of a threat management case

A

Intervention Vectors

73
Q

Strategies to engage a subject in the interview in order to elicit information

A

Interview approach

74
Q

Plan for the goals and approaches to an interview (e.g., deciding what information will be sought, how the subject will be redirected, where the interview will take place, etc.)

A

Interview Strategy

75
Q

An active process of seeking out and finding information relevant to a threat assessment case.

A

Investigation

76
Q

Any verbal interaction between a law enforcement officer and a civilian for which the purpose is gathering information

A

Investigative Interview

77
Q

JACA

A

justification – alternatives – consequences – ability

78
Q

The subject’s decision to end his or her life can lead to an act of targeted violence as a means of attaining fame or martyrdom in addition to their suicide attempt

A

Last resort

79
Q

When a subject shares information with a third party that reveals clues related to his or her thinking, planning, or execution of an act of targeted violence

A

Leakage

80
Q

Generally, what 2 criteria must be met for a mental health/civil commitment?

A

(1) the person must have a mental disorder and (2) the mental disorder contributes to dangerousness regarding threat to self or others

81
Q

Threat management interventions that are dynamic and involve real-time observation of a subject’s behavior and/or movements through means such as surveillance or wiretapping.

A

Active monitoring

82
Q

Threat management interventions that involved the use of non-intensive methods of tracking subject’s behavior, such as having a third party
report on conduct.

A

Passive monitoring

83
Q

Style of management that focuses on short-term goals with immediate payoffs at the expense of strategies with superior but distant payoffs

A

Myopic management

84
Q

New acts of violence committed by the subject
that are unrelated to his or her planned act of targeted violence

A

Novel aggression

85
Q

Acts of intended violence involving general or nonspecific selection of victim

A

Opportunistic Violence

86
Q

Threat of a direct nature, describing a possible future act against the target (e.g., I will kill you)

A

Overt threat

87
Q

Sum of the physical protective measures (e.g., key locks, security guards, security cameras, etc.) designed to detect, mitigate, or eliminate a
threat

A

Physical security

88
Q

Act that is planned for by the attacker and does not involve reactive emotional components or an imminent threat to the attacker. It is
sometimes referred to as instrumental, premeditated, proactive, or cold-blooded
violence.

A

Predatory violence

89
Q

Behaviors associated with this include acquiring weapons, assembling equipment, arranging transportation, observing significant dates, rehearsing, conducting final act behaviors, or costuming

A

Preparation

90
Q

Process of gathering detailed information surrounding an inappropriate communication or contact. This information is used to create safety plans for the target.

A

Protective Fact Finding

91
Q

In threat assessment and management refer to strategies that employ measures comparable to the level of risk presented by the subject

A

Proportionate Responses

92
Q

Actions taken in response to a criminal act or imminent threat to secure the target and ensure the target’s safety

A

Protective Response

93
Q

Conversion of a follower of a legitimate belief system to an extremist ideology based on that system, often with the intent of using them to commit or support a future act of violence.

A

Radicalization

94
Q

Establishing a sense of connection between the interviewer and the interviewee to facilitate communication and information sharing

A

Rapport Building

95
Q

Refocusing the subject’s attention away from the target and toward another person, organization, or activity (e.g., toward the threat assessment
professional or law enforcement agency)

A

Redirection

96
Q

Seeking information about a target to facilitate an attack. This can include any number of dimensions, including surveillance of the target, Internet searches, and testing security around the target.

A

Research and Planning

97
Q

Began in systems engineering. Used as a
phrase that encompasses a process through which options for decreasing risk are considered along with the potential outcomes associated with their implementation, both positive and negative.

A

Risk Assessment

98
Q

Recognizing the limits of knowledge, experience, and capabilities that one possesses and performing only functions within the boundaries of professional training and duties.

A

Scope of Practice

99
Q

A cluster of behaviors, including unwanted communication, approach, or other contact, usually intended to threaten, harass, coerce, or intimidate the target into meeting the demands of the perpetrator.

A

Stalking

100
Q

A threat management intervention that involves direct contact with the subject for information gathering, refocusing or redirecting the subject, and warning or confronting the subject.

A

Subject Interview

101
Q

Actively but unobtrusively observing a subject to gather information about their activities and whereabouts

A

Surveillance

102
Q

Probabilities of risk at the extreme ends (tails) of a normal distribution. In threat assessment, this pertains because targeted violence has a very low rate of occurrence; however, the risk should not be underestimated based on statistical probability that it will or will not happen.

A

Tail Risk

103
Q

A deliberate, justified decision to assign a case inactive status.

A

Take No Further Action at This Time

104
Q

Violent incidents involving an identifiable subject (perpetrator) who possesses the intent and potential to cause harm to an identifiable target.

A

Targeted Violence

105
Q

Act of violence or threats of violence used to further the agenda of the perpetrator while causing fear and psychological distress.

A

Terrorism

106
Q

Using a reliable third party to exercise control over the subject or unobtrusively monitor his or her behavior

A

Third Party Control or Monitoring

107
Q

A fact-based method of assessment/investigation that focuses on an individual’s patterns of thinking and behavior to determine whether, and to what extent, he or she is moving toward an attack on an identifiable target

A

Threat Assessment

108
Q

A condition in which the individual believes he or she is not in control of his or her actions, but instead is being commanded by an outside, usually malevolent

A

Threat/Control Override

109
Q

The entirety of the steps taken to identify, assess, and manage a threat assessment case. This includes developing, implementing, and monitoring a thorough plan unique to each subject and situation that includes protective measures for the intended target

A

Threat Management Process

110
Q

A coordinated plan of direct or indirect interventions with the subject that, based on
current information regarding level of threat posed, is designed to defuse the risk in a given situation at a particular point in time.

A

Threat Management Strategy

111
Q

An event or action that initiates a defensive/emotional response of some type. It moves the person along the path to violence.

A

Trigger

112
Q

Threat of an indirect nature, vaguely describing the possibility of negative consequences for the target

A

Veiled threat

113
Q

Locations in which violence occurs or could potentially occur, including (but not limited to) workplaces, residences, and schools.

A

Venues of Violence

114
Q

Working with the target to determine what a potential victim knows and needs to know, and how he or she finds out about the subject’s behaviors. Providing too much information can unnecessarily cause distress for the victim, while not presenting enough can lead to unsafe situations.

A

Victim Management

115
Q

The process by which a subject focuses on a target for his or her intended violence. This can include specific selection or opportunistic victims that happen to be at the location of an attack or included in some broad group which the subject has a grievance.

A

Victim Selection

116
Q

An intentional act of harm.

A

Violence

117
Q

The nature and intensity of violent rhetoric included in inappropriate contacts and
communications

A

Violence Content

118
Q

Continuous investigative and analytical process of evaluating an individual’s probability of committing an act of violence based on personal and situational variables by an individual qualified (through training, experience, or education) to make risk determinations and recommendations for response, management, and mitigation of that risk.

A

Violence Risk Assessment

119
Q

Reliable factors that have an established correlation with violent crime

A

Violence Risk Factors

120
Q

A broad determination by a threat management team as to whether individual’s behavior shows cause for concern and thus threat management procedures should be initiated.

A

Violence Risk Screening

121
Q

The process of forming and entertaining thoughts about violence as an acceptable means to address a grievance.

A

Violent Ideation

122
Q

According to Homeland Security definitions, it refers to degree to which a target is at risk for attack or disruption.

A

Vulnerability

123
Q

Unobtrusive monitoring of the subject to see if he or she will take additional actions in relation to the target

A

Watch and Wait

124
Q

Interview involving a third party, usually to inquire about information concerning threatening behaviors or contacts by the subject, or background information on the subject’s past or current behavior or mental status.

A

Witness Interview

125
Q

Two studies that found offenders did not threaten their targets directly but displayed identifiable behaviors prior to..

A

1) Exceptional case study project…shootings of public officials and figures from 1949-1994…included completed shootings and those who approached with lethal means and intent…all others excluded
2) Safe School Initiative…school shooting cases from 1974-2000

126
Q

When assessing for potential violence, focus on ______ and avoid the clinical tendency to ______

A

behavior…..diagnose

127
Q

frequency of events in certain population over a certain period of time

A

base rate

128
Q

people who report others’ concerning behaviors

A

upstander

129
Q

What is a threat?

A

Expression of intention to inflict injury or damage

130
Q

1) Content
2) Context
3) Circumstances

A

1) words or deeds used
2) before, during, and after a threat is made
3) Surrounding facts – method of delivery, relationship between threatener and target, type of target

131
Q

Over ___% of men who murdered their intimate partners explicitly threatened to do so beforehand

A

70

132
Q

Availability bias

A

assigning the most importance to behavior which immediately comes to mind

133
Q

Foresight bias

A

an unrealistic ability to predict future events

134
Q

What’s the difference between pathway to impromptu violence and pathway to targeted violence

A

targeted violence has the stages of research/planning & preparation

135
Q

Both impersonal and personal howlers can be _____ or ____

A

Sinister or binding

136
Q

Individuals who have a mental illness and believe that the public figure sends them messages through their daily activities or destiny will bring them together

A

Delusory howler…a type of impersonal binder

137
Q

The four Case Mgmt designations by Calhoun and Weston

A

1) Active
2) Inactive
3) Chronic/Habitual - repeated inappropriate approaches, frequently multiple targets over extended period of time but never escalates
4) Long-term - remains relatively low risk but worth keeping an eye on.can be passive or active (watch and wait)…doesn’t keep making inappropriate approaches towards targer

138
Q

Three most fundamental steps of a threat assessment and mgmt

A

1) Identify
2) Assess
3) Manage

139
Q

An active shooter is..

A

An individual killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area

140
Q

Calhoun and Weston’s Law of Communications

A

Difficulty in maintaining close communications increases in direct proportion to the increase in the number of people and organizations involved

141
Q

What are two approaches to assessing the subject’s stakes?

A

1) JACA…all four have to be “yes” to be considered high risk
2) Discerning the subject’s degree of emotional or mental investment..spectrum of reactions:
a. nothing is at stake
b. normal acceptance
c. mild loss
d. much to lose
e. everything to lose

142
Q

In addition to known and unknown elements in case dynamics, this includes the intervention implemented by the assessor.

A

intervention strategy

143
Q

Why didn’t Calhoun and Weston categorize hunters like they did howlers?

A

1) Determining to which category a hunter belongs may not be so clear until the latter stages
2) The category is not as important as how far along the pathway to intended violence they’re on

144
Q

When something happens that causes a howler to become a hunter

A

last straw syndrome

145
Q

sequential, reciprocal response pattern, in which interactants adjust to each other’s behaviors

A

symbolic interactionism

146
Q

A summation of any threatening communications or warnings made by most school shooters studied.

A

Signaling the attack

147
Q

There is evidence that alcohol is significantly lower in …

A

those individuals engaged in targeted violence than those in impulsive violence

148
Q

an artifact which claims the completion of a targeted violence attack or describes the motivation for it.

A

legacy token

149
Q

Anything in the person’s life that causes tension or anxiety, like an upcoming job performance review, chronic pain, unhappy home or work environment

A

Stressor

150
Q

Multiple precipitating events can lead up to a ….

A

last straw event

151
Q

A significant gap of information about which the threat assessor is aware but has not yet obtained…regarding silos this is called….

A

a known-unkonwn

152
Q

A facet of a case the threat assessor is not aware exists….this is…

A

an unknown-unknown

153
Q

How long does the FBI recommend before retiring a case?

A

18 months

154
Q

In ___ % of school shooters, researchers found the attacker told at least one person beforehand? In what percentage of cases did at least two other people know before hand?

A

81% and 59%

155
Q

The safe schools initiative found that how many mass attackers exhibited a history of suicide attempts or suicidal thoughts at some point prior to the attack?

A

78%

156
Q

What percentage of offenders between 2000-2013 committed suicide after the attack in a study of 160 active shooters?

A

50$

157
Q

The RAGE V is applicable to both ___ and ____ sectors

A

public and private