TEST 11 Flashcards by Aamna Qandil

Which of the following is not a component of a skeletal muscle cell?
a) Sarcomere
b) Myofibril
c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) Sarcolemma

Sarcomere

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The basic functional unit of skeletal muscle is called:
a) Myofibril
b) Myofilament
c) Sarcomere
d) Myotendon junction

Sarcomere

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The contraction of skeletal muscles is initiated by the release of which ion?
a) Sodium (Na+)
b) Potassium (K+)
c) Calcium (Ca2+)
d) Magnesium (Mg2+)

Calcium (Ca2+)

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During muscle contraction, which protein binds with calcium ions to initiate the cross-bridge formation?
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Troponin
d) Tropomyosin

Troponin

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The neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting the signal from the nerve to the skeletal muscle cell is:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Serotonin
c) Dopamine
d) Epinephrine

Acetylcholine

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The region where the motor neuron meets the skeletal muscle fiber is known as:
a) Synaptic cleft
b) Axon terminal
c) Neuromuscular junction
d) Motor end plate

Neuromuscular junction

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Which of the following events occurs at the neuromuscular junction?
a) Release of acetylcholine
b) Activation of voltage-gated calcium channels
c) Binding of acetylcholine to postsynaptic receptors
d) All of the above

All of the above

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Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the:
a) Skeletal muscles
b) Cardiac muscles
c) Smooth muscles
d) Both a) and b)

Skeletal muscles

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Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the:
a) Nervous system
b) Skeletal muscles
c) Cardiovascular system
d) Respiratory system

Skeletal muscles

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Rigor mortis is caused by the depletion of:
a) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b) Calcium ions (Ca2+)
c) Acetylcholine (ACh)
d) Sodium ions (Na+)

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

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The structural and functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the ______________.

Muscle fiber

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The ______________ is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell.

Sarcolemma

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The contractile proteins found within a sarcomere are ______________ and ______________.

Actin and myosin

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During muscle contraction, calcium binds to ______________, which moves ______________, exposing myosin-binding sites on actin.

Troponin, tropomyosin

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The neurotransmitter ______________ is released from the motor neuron to initiate a muscle contraction.

Acetylcholine

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Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated. True or False?

True

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Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin in a relaxed muscle. True or False?

True

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Rigor mortis is a temporary state of muscle stiffness that occurs after death. True or False?

True

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Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the excessive release of acetylcholine. True or False?

False

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Muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene, leading to muscle weakness and degeneration. True or False?

True

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Which protein forms the thin filaments in a sarcomere?
a) Myosin
b) Tropomyosin
c) Troponin
d) Actin

Actin

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Which of the following is responsible for storing and releasing calcium ions during muscle contraction?
a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) Sarcolemma
c) T-tubules
d) Myofibrils

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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The functional connection between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is called a:
a) Synapse
b) Gap junction
c) Desmosome
d) Sarcomere

Synapse

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The process of muscle relaxation occurs when calcium ions are actively pumped back into the:
a) Motor neuron
b) Sarcolemma
c) T-tubules
d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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Which of the following is a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis? a) Muscle wasting and weakness b) Elevated levels of calcium ions c) Hyperactivity of motor neurons d) Enhanced muscle contractions

Muscle wasting and weakness

Which type of muscular dystrophy primarily affects boys and leads to progressive muscle weakness and loss of coordination? a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy b) Becker muscular dystrophy c) Myotonic dystrophy d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Rigor mortis occurs due to the inability of muscle cells to produce: a) Oxygen b) ATP c) Acetylcholine d) Calcium ions

ATP

Which of the following structures is responsible for transmitting action potentials deep into the muscle fiber? a) Sarcolemma b) T-tubules c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum d) Myofibrils

T-tubules

In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies attack and destroy: a) Motor neurons b) Neurotransmitters c) Acetylcholine receptors d) Muscle fibers

Acetylcholine receptors

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy? a) Late onset in adulthood b) Muscle weakness limited to the upper body c) Abnormalities in dystrophin protein d) Slowed muscle relaxation

Abnormalities in dystrophin protein

The ______________ is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

Sarcomere

The neurotransmitter ______________ is responsible for muscle relaxation.

Acetylcholine

The enzyme ______________ breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.

Acetylcholinesterase

The phenomenon of muscle contraction without a change in muscle length is known as ______________.

Isometric contraction

The protein ______________ forms the backbone of the thin filaments.

Actin

The sliding filament theory explains the mechanism of muscle contraction. True or False?

True

Motor units consist of a single motor neuron and multiple muscle fibers. True or False?

True

Excitation-contraction coupling refers to the sequence of events that link muscle excitation (action potential) to muscle contraction. True or False?

True

Muscle dystrophy is characterized by the progressive degeneration and weakening of cardiac muscles. True or False?

False

Rigor mortis typically begins within a few minutes after death and lasts for several hours before the muscles start to relax. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle is primarily composed of: a) Sarcomeres b) Actin and myosin filaments c) Troponin and tropomyosin d) Z discs and I bands

Actin and myosin filaments

Which of the following is not a type of smooth muscle? a) Multiunit smooth muscle b) Single-unit smooth muscle c) Skeletal smooth muscle d) Visceral smooth muscle

Skeletal smooth muscle

Smooth muscles are found in which of the following organs? a) Heart and lungs b) Intestines and blood vessels c) Biceps and quadriceps d) Liver and pancreas

Intestines and blood vessels

Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by which ion? a) Sodium (Na+) b) Calcium (Ca2+) c) Potassium (K+) d) Chloride (Cl-)

Calcium (Ca2+)

The autonomic nervous system innervates smooth muscles through the release of: a) Acetylcholine b) Norepinephrine c) Dopamine d) Serotonin

Acetylcholine

Smooth muscles exhibit which of the following properties? a) Voluntary control b) Striated appearance c) Spontaneous contraction d) Rapid fatigue

Spontaneous contraction

Smooth muscle contraction is characterized by the formation of: a) Sarcomeres b) Cross-bridges c) Motor end plates d) Neuromuscular junctions

Cross-bridges

Which of the following substances is responsible for smooth muscle relaxation? a) Acetylcholine b) Calcium ions c) Nitric oxide d) Sodium ions

Nitric oxide

Smooth muscle plays a crucial role in the regulation of which bodily functions? a) Digestion and blood pressure b) Vision and hearing c) Skeletal movement and balance d) Breathing and heartbeat

Digestion and blood pressure

Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle cells have: a) More sarcomeres b) Fewer actin and myosin filaments c) Striated appearance d) Greater ability to generate force

Greater ability to generate force

Smooth muscle cells are elongated and tapered, with a single ________________.

Nucleus

______________ smooth muscle is found in the walls of large arteries and airways.

Multiunit

The process of smooth muscle relaxation involves the dephosphorylation of ________________.

Myosin

Smooth muscle is innervated by the autonomic division of the ________________ nervous system.

Peripheral

Smooth muscles play a role in the movement of substances through various organs, such as the ________________ and ________________.

Stomach, intestines

Smooth muscle lacks striations and sarcomeres. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle cells are not under conscious control. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle contracts more slowly but can sustain contractions longer than skeletal muscle. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle contractions are dependent on the presence of calcium ions. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle is capable of generating a greater degree of force than skeletal muscle. True or False?

False

Smooth muscle cells possess a single nucleus. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are present in the walls of blood vessels, contributing to blood pressure regulation. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle contraction can occur spontaneously, without nerve stimulation. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle cells can divide and regenerate more readily than skeletal muscle cells. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle is found in the urinary bladder, allowing it to stretch and accommodate urine. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle is not involved in voluntary movements. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle relaxation is mediated by the release of nitric oxide. True or False?

True

Smooth muscle contractions are slower but can be sustained for longer periods compared to skeletal muscle contractions. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are less resistant to fatigue than skeletal muscles. True or False?

False

Smooth muscle is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are involuntary, while skeletal muscles are voluntary. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles lack striations, while skeletal muscles are striated. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles contract and relax more slowly than skeletal muscles. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles exhibit spontaneous contractions, while skeletal muscles require nerve stimulation to contract. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles can generate force for longer periods than skeletal muscles. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles have a single nucleus per cell, while skeletal muscles have multiple nuclei. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are found in various organs and blood vessels, while skeletal muscles are attached to bones. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles play a role in regulating processes such as digestion and blood pressure, while skeletal muscles enable voluntary movements. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are more resistant to fatigue than skeletal muscles. True or False?

True

Smooth muscles are innervated by the autonomic nervous system, while skeletal muscles are innervated by the somatic nervous system. True or False?

True

Which of the following is not a layer of the heart wall? a) Epicardium b) Myocardium c) Endocardium d) Pericardium

Pericardium

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by specialized cell-to-cell junctions called: a) Intercalated discs b) Sarcomeres c) Z lines d) T-tubules

Intercalated discs

The contraction of cardiac muscle is regulated by which of the following ions? a) Sodium (Na+) b) Potassium (K+) c) Calcium (Ca2+) d) Chloride (Cl-)

Calcium (Ca2+)

The action potential in cardiac muscle is characterized by which of the following phases? a) Depolarization, plateau, repolarization b) Depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization c) Resting, depolarization, repolarization d) Excitation, contraction, relaxation

Depolarization, plateau, repolarization

The prolonged action potential in cardiac muscle cells is primarily due to the influx of which ion? a) Sodium (Na+) b) Potassium (K+) c) Calcium (Ca2+) d) Chloride (Cl-)

Calcium (Ca2+)

Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves the release of calcium ions from which structure? a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum b) Sarcolemma c) T-tubules d) Myofibrils

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

An increase in extracellular calcium levels leads to which of the following effects on cardiac muscle contraction? a) Increased contraction strength b) Decreased contraction strength c) No effect on contraction strength d) Prolonged relaxation

Increased contraction strength

Potassium ions play a crucial role in cardiac muscle repolarization by: a) Enhancing calcium influx b) Facilitating sodium efflux c) Reducing potassium efflux d) Increasing chloride influx

Facilitating sodium efflux

Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can lead to: a) Increased heart rate b) Decreased heart rate c) Irregular heart rhythms d) Weakening of heart contractions

Irregular heart rhythms

How does an increase in temperature affect the contractility of cardiac muscle? a) Increases contractility b) Decreases contractility c) Has no effect on contractility d) Leads to muscle fatigue

Increases contractility

The microscopic functional unit of cardiac muscle is called the ________________.

Sarcomere

The depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential is primarily due to the influx of ________________ ions.

Sodium (Na+)

The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential is caused by the influx of ________________ ions and efflux of ________________ ions.

Calcium (Ca2+), Potassium (K+)

In excitation-contraction coupling, the binding of calcium ions to ________________ allows for cross-bridge formation.

Troponin

Increased extracellular ________________ levels can lead to increased cardiac muscle contraction.

Calcium (Ca2+)

The myocardium is the thickest layer of the heart wall. True or False?

True

Intercalated discs in cardiac muscle allow for rapid electrical and mechanical coupling between cells. True or False?

True

The prolonged action potential in cardiac muscle is primarily due to the slow influx of sodium ions. True or False?

True

The refractory period in cardiac muscle is longer than in skeletal muscle, allowing for complete relaxation and filling of the heart chambers. True or False?

True

Cardiac muscle contraction is primarily regulated by the autonomic nervous system. True or False?

True

In excitation-contraction coupling, calcium ions bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that exposes myosin-binding sites on actin. True or False?

True

An increase in extracellular potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. True or False?

True

Hypercalcemia, or high levels of calcium in the blood, can lead to increased heart rate and stronger contractions. True or False?

True

Cardiac muscle contraction is independent of extracellular calcium levels. True or False?

False

An increase in temperature enhances the contractility of cardiac muscle. True or False?

True

Hypokalemia, or low levels of potassium in the blood, can lead to weakened heart contractions. True or False?

True

The action potential in cardiac muscle cells is longer than in skeletal muscle cells. True or False?

True

Cardiac muscle cells are interconnected by gap junctions, allowing for the spread of electrical signals and coordinated contraction. True or False?

True

The influx of calcium ions triggers the release of more calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle. True or False?

True

The resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells is around -90 mV. True or False?

True

Which of the following is responsible for initiating the electrical signal in the heart? a) Sinoatrial (SA) node b) Atrioventricular (AV) node c) Bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers

Sinoatrial (SA) node

Cardiac muscle cells are characterized by their ability to generate spontaneous action potentials due to the presence of: a) Gap junctions b) Pacemaker cells c) T-tubules d) Sarcomeres

Pacemaker cells

The term "preload" refers to: a) The force exerted by blood against the walls of blood vessels b) The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole c) The pressure in the aorta during systole d) The amount of calcium available for muscle contraction

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole

The "afterload" of the heart refers to: a) The force exerted by blood against the walls of blood vessels b) The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole c) The pressure in the aorta during systole d) The amount of calcium available for muscle contraction

The pressure in the aorta during systole

The Frank-Starling mechanism refers to: a) The ability of the heart to contract spontaneously b) The coordination between the SA node and the AV node c) The relationship between stroke volume and end-diastolic volume d) The transmission of electrical signals through gap junctions

The relationship between stroke volume and end-diastolic volume

Cardiac muscle is characterized by the presence of ________________, which are invaginations of the sarcolemma that allow for rapid propagation of the action potential.

T-tubules

The ________________ is the region of the heart that contains a dense network of specialized conducting cells responsible for the rapid transmission of electrical signals.

Atrioventricular (AV) node

During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, ________________ channels open, causing an influx of calcium ions.

L-type (slow) calcium

The process by which calcium ions are actively pumped out of the cytosol back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum is called ________________.

Calcium reuptake

The ________________ reflex is a protective mechanism that increases heart rate and contractility in response to decreased blood volume or pressure.

Bainbridge reflex

The myocardium is composed of cardiac muscle cells. True or false?

True

The repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential is primarily due to the efflux of potassium ions. True or false?

True

The atria contract simultaneously, followed by the contraction of the ventricles. True or false?

False

Cardiac muscle cells are capable of undergoing mitosis and regenerating damaged tissue. True or false?

False

The release of acetylcholine by the parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate. True or false?

True

An increase in extracellular potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrest. True or false?

True

An increase in extracellular calcium levels decreases the force of cardiac muscle contraction. True or false?

False

Which of the following is the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron? a) -70 mV b) +30 mV c) -90 mV d) +60 mV

-70 mV

Action potentials are typically generated by which type of cells? a) Neurons b) Muscle cells c) Epithelial cells d) Connective tissue cells

Neurons

The depolarization phase of an action potential is primarily caused by the influx of which ion? a) Sodium (Na+) b) Potassium (K+) c) Calcium (Ca2+) d) Chloride (Cl-)

Sodium (Na+)

Which of the following is responsible for propagating an action potential along an axon? a) Myelin sheath b) Nodes of Ranvier c) Axon terminals d) Dendrites

Nodes of Ranvier

Which of the following best defines homeostasis? a) The maintenance of a constant internal environment b) The regulation of temperature in the body c) The balance between water intake and output d) The response to external stimuli

The maintenance of a constant internal environment

Which organ is primarily responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels? a) Lungs b) Liver c) Kidneys d) Pancreas

Pancreas

The process of digestion primarily occurs in which organ system? a) Respiratory system b) Cardiovascular system c) Digestive system d) Muscular system

Digestive system

Which of the following is not a mechanism for regulating bodily fluids? a) Osmosis b) Filtration c) Diffusion d) Peristalsis

Peristalsis

Which of the following is a characteristic of a negative feedback control system? a) It amplifies the initial stimulus b) It maintains homeostasis by opposing the initial change c) It requires the activation of multiple effectors d) It is rarely found in biological systems

It maintains homeostasis by opposing the initial change

The concentration of which ion is higher inside the cell compared to the outside during the resting membrane potential? a) Sodium (Na+) b) Potassium (K+) c) Calcium (Ca2+) d) Chloride (Cl-)

Potassium (K+)

Action potentials are generated when the membrane potential reaches the ________________ threshold.

Excitation or firing

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is regulated by ________________ channels.

Ion or protein

Homeostasis is maintained through ________________ feedback mechanisms.

Negative

In the lungs, ________________ is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Diffusion

The liver plays a key role in detoxifying ________________ and storing ________________.

Substances or chemicals; glycogen

Membrane potential refers to the electrical charge difference across a cell membrane. True or false?

True

Action potentials are all-or-none responses. True or false?

True

Physiology is the study of the functions and processes of living organisms. True or false?

True

The digestive system is responsible for the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. True or false?

True

Positive feedback mechanisms are more common in maintaining homeostasis than negative feedback mechanisms. True or false?

False

The liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. True or false?

True

Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration. True or false?

False

The hypothalamus plays a key role in regulating body temperature. True or false?

True

The stomach produces hydrochloric acid, which aids in the digestion of proteins. True or false?

True

Control systems in the body can be classified as neural or hormonal. True or false?

True

The process of filtration occurs in the kidneys to remove waste products from the blood. True or false?

True

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is an active process that requires energy. True or false?

True

Homeostasis is a dynamic process that constantly adjusts to external and internal changes. True or false?

True

Diffusion is a passive process that does not require energy expenditure. True or false?

True

The control center in a feedback system receives information from the receptor and initiates an appropriate response. True or false?

True

Which of the following is responsible for transmitting electrical signals between neurons? a) Synapse b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Golgi apparatus

Synapse

Homeostasis involves maintaining a stable internal environment regardless of external conditions. True or false?

True

The movement of substances against their concentration gradient requires ________________.

Energy or ATP

Organic chemistry is the study of: a) Carbon-based compounds b) Inorganic compounds c) Mineralogy d) Physical properties of elements

Carbon-based compounds

Who is known as the "father of organic chemistry"? a) Linus Pauling b) Friedrich Wöhler c) Dmitri Mendeleev d) Marie Curie

Friedrich Wöhler

How many atomic orbitals are there in the second electron shell? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Hybridization of atomic orbitals occurs when: a) Electrons are gained or lost b) Electrons are shared between atoms c) Atomic orbitals overlap d) Electron shells are rearranged

Atomic orbitals overlap

Valency bond theory explains chemical bonding in terms of: a) Electron configuration b) Atomic mass c) Hybrid orbitals d) Atomic number

Electron configuration

Ethane (C2H6) consists of: a) Two carbon atoms bonded by a triple bond b) Two carbon atoms bonded by a double bond c) Two carbon atoms bonded by a single bond d) Two carbon atoms bonded by a quadruple bond

Two carbon atoms bonded by a single bond

Ethylene (C2H4) is an example of a(n): a) Alkane b) Alkene c) Alkyne d) Aromatic compound

Alkene

Acetylene (C2H2) is an example of a(n): a) Alkane b) Alkene c) Alkyne d) Aromatic compound

Alkyne

According to molecular orbital theory, the bonding molecular orbital is formed by: a) Constructive interference of atomic orbitals b) Destructive interference of atomic orbitals c) Combination of s and p orbitals d) Combination of different hybrid orbitals

Constructive interference of atomic orbitals

Enantiomers are molecules that: a) Have the same molecular formula but differ in connectivity b) Have the same molecular formula and identical three-dimensional structures c) Are mirror images of each other and cannot be superimposed d) Have the same chemical properties but different physical properties

Are mirror images of each other and cannot be superimposed

Stereochemistry is the study of the ________________ and ________________ of molecules.

Three-dimensional or spatial; arrangement or configuration

Meso compounds are optically inactive due to the presence of a ________________ plane of symmetry.

Horizontal or vertical

Clinical importance of stereochemistry is evident in drug development as enantiomers may exhibit different ________________ and ________________ in the body.

Pharmacological or therapeutic; effects or activities

Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain only single bonds. True or false?

True

Alkenes are hydrocarbons that contain at least one double bond. True or false?

True

Newborn jaundice is a condition caused by the buildup of bilirubin in the blood. True or false?

True

Hybridization of atomic orbitals is a random process. True or false?

False

Ethylene is an example of a cyclic hydrocarbon. True or false?

False

Valence bond theory is also known as electron cloud theory. True or false?

False

Meso compounds are optically active due to their mirror-image symmetry. True or false?

False

Organic chemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with the study of: a) Carbon compounds only b) All elements and their compounds c) Inorganic compounds only d) Noble gases

Carbon compounds only

Who is credited with the discovery of benzene's structure? a) Friedrich Wöhler b) Kekulé c) Linus Pauling d) Robert Boyle

Kekulé

How many valence electrons does carbon have? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

The atomic orbitals in the second electron shell are denoted by the letters: a) s and p b) p and d c) d and f d) f and g

p and d

Hybridization of atomic orbitals is necessary to explain the: a) Formation of covalent bonds b) Formation of ionic bonds c) Formation of metallic bonds d) Formation of hydrogen bonds

Formation of covalent bonds

Ethane (C2H6) is an example of a(n): a) Alkane b) Alkene c) Alkyne d) Aromatic compound

Alkane

The molecular formula of ethylene is: a) C2H4 b) C2H2 c) C2H6 d) C3H8

C2H4

Acetylene (C2H2) is an example of a(n): a) Alkane b) Alkene c) Alkyne d) Aromatic compound

Alkyne

According to molecular orbital theory, the bonding molecular orbital is formed by the: a) Addition of atomic orbitals b) Subtraction of atomic orbitals c) Overlap of atomic orbitals d) Repulsion of atomic orbitals

Overlap of atomic orbitals

Stereochemistry is the study of the ________________ and ________________ of molecules.

Three-dimensional or spatial; arrangement or configuration

Enantiomers have ________________ physical properties but differ in their interaction with ________________ light.

Similar or identical; polarized

Hybridization of atomic orbitals can result in the formation of sp3, sp2, and sp hybrid orbitals. True or false?

True

Molecular orbital theory predicts the behavior of electrons in molecules based on the combination of atomic orbitals. True or false?

True

Which of the following is an example of a chiral molecule? a) Ethane b) Benzene c) Propane d) Lactic acid

Lactic acid

What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in ethyne (acetylene)? a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) dsp2

Which of the following statements about enantiomers is true? a) They have identical physical properties. b) They rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions. c) They cannot exist in the same solution. d) They have different molecular formulas.

They rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions.

A meso compound possesses ________________ symmetry elements, resulting in its optical inactivity.

Internal or plane or center

In molecular orbital theory, the ________________ molecular orbital is formed by constructive interference of atomic orbitals, while the ________________ molecular orbital is formed by destructive interference of atomic orbitals.

Bonding or sigma or pi; antibonding or sigma* or pi*

Valence bond theory focuses on the overlap of atomic orbitals to form chemical bonds. True or false?

True

A molecule can exhibit chirality even if it contains a plane of symmetry. True or false?

False