Test 2 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

hearing assessment protocol

A

case history
otoscopy
tympanometry
otoacoustic emissions
audiometry (bone conductions, air conduction, speech)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

peds case history questions

A

-did child pass newborn screening?
-family history?
-speech/language delay?
-developmental delay?
-what concerns do parents have with hearing/speech?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

adult case history questions

A

-what brings you in?
-what issues day to day?
-family history?
-pertinent medical history? (cancer or viral infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

transducers

A

headphones, inserts, bone oscillator used to test hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when to use different transducers

A

headphones: infection
inserts: collapsed canal or children
bone oscillator: placed on mastoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

otoscope

A

illuminates and magnifies ear canal and tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

specula

A

goes on end of otoscope

children: 2 or 3 cm
adults: 4 or 5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

otoscopy

A

examination of ear using otoscope

patient seated with examiner at ear level, using finger to brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tympanometry

A

examination used to test condition of middle ear, measuring mobility of tympanic membrane and ossicles

purpose: determine point and magnitude of greatest compliance of TM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tympanometry testing procedure

A

probe with 3 plastic tube creates air tight seal and emits pure tone of 226 Hz followed by positive and negative pressure in ear canal

tympanometer- measures TM compliance as pressure in canal is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type A tympanometry*

A

suggests normal ear function

point of greatest compliance is a 0daPa and curve is inverted V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type As tympanometry*

A

curve shows same characteristics peak below .3

with normal ear pressure, peak is shallower than Type A, indicating stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type Ad tympanometry*

A

same curve as Type A but amplitude of curve is high

associated with flaccidity of TM or separation of ossicular chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type B tympanometry*

A

no peak pressure or compliance measure= flat line

caused by fluid in ear, PE tubes, perforation, or wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type C tympanometry*

A

peak pressure falls below normal, compliance is normal; indicates negative pressure in middle ear

peak is present, but shifted to negative side of the graph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acoustic reflex

A

contraction of the middle ear muscles in response to intense sounds which has the effect of stiffening the middle ear system and decreasing static acoustic compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

threshold

A

softest level that an acoustic reflex is measured 50% of the time

responses obtained in ipsilateral and contralateral conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

otoacoustic emissions

A

sound produces by activity of outer hair cells that can be measured in the external ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

types of otoacoustic emissions

A

spontaneous
transient evoked
distortion product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

spontaneous otoacoustic emissions (SOAEs)

A

spontaneous and not evoked by sound stimulation

absent in some normal hearing people; recorded in 70% of normal ear, mostly females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAs)

A

elicited with a very brief sound presented at intensity level of 80dB SPL (sound pressure level) at 500-4000Hz

22
Q

distortion product otoacoustic emissions (DPOAEs)

A

elicited with pairs of two pure tones usually at frequencies closely spaced together and presented simultaneously at 55-65 dB SPL at 500-8000 Hz

When two pure tones are presented to the ear, the outer hair cells (OHCs) in the cochlea generate sound waves at frequencies that are multiples of the original tones. These sound waves, known as distortion products, travel back up the ear canal and can be detected by a microphone.

23
Q

When to use OAEs

A

with children who cannot sit for long periods of time and individuals with little trunk control (cerebral palsy, etc.)

as a screening tool for further evaluations

24
Q

process of recording OAEs

A

probe inserted and will calibrate once test starts. DPOAEs activation follows simultaneous presentations of 2 different pure tone stimuli which activates outer hair cells and creates distortion product

you want a robust response above the noise floor

25
air conduction
sound goes through outer, middle, and inner ear
26
bone conduction
sound bypasses outer and middle ear and goes to inner ear
27
pure tone audiometry
measurement of hearing threshold for pure tones
28
audiometer
electronic device used to conduct hearing test typically two channels (one for each ear) and comprised of buttons and dials
29
audiometry
hearing test procedure
30
what does pure air audiometry test?
frequencies 250-8000Hz; -10 to 110 dB
31
what does bone audiometry test?
frequency 250-4000Hz; -10 to 50d dB or 80 dB
32
air audiometry testing procedure
place earphone over ear or compress into canal (red-right/blue-left) and instruct patient to press button each time they hear a tone/beep
33
air audiometry testing criteria
test 500, 1000, 2000, 4000 begin test at 1000Hz at 70 dB; if response obtained, move to 30dB and 20dB (if response obtained, patient passes frequency) if no response at 20dB for 1000-4000Hz or no response at 30dB for 500Hz, patient fails screening
34
pure tone air conduction testing
ASHA ascending testing procedure -test at 250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000, and 8000 Hz -begin at 30 dB at 1000 Hz -if response is obtained: down 10 dB and up 5 dB -if no response: increase by 5 dB until response, then down 10 dB, up 5 dB
35
how many times does a patient have to respond to find the pure tone air conduction threshold?
found when patient responds at the same level 3 times
36
pure tone air conduction average
average of 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, and 2000 Hz thresholds
37
speech audiometry
audiologist presents the word without the patient being able to read their lips in any way, and the patient repeats the word
38
speech detection threshold
(SDT) lowest level in decibels at which a patient can barely detect the presence of speech and identify it as speech
39
speech recognition threshold
(SRT) lowest level in decibels at which speech can be understood (50% of the words correctly identified) uses spondee word list at 30dB, then down 10, up 5 dB
40
speech recognition threshold can be predicted by
pure tone average and should be in agreement within 6dB
41
degrees of hearing loss
mild, moderate, severe, profound
42
configurations of hearing loss
used to describe how hearing thresholds change as a function of test frequency
43
3 common factors of configurations of hearing loss
flat, rising, sloping
44
flat configuration of hearing loss
hearing thresholds between any testing frequency does not exceed 15 dB difference (essentially straight horizontal line)
45
rising configuration of hearing loss
features poorer thresholds in lower frequency rising to higher frequency (diagonal low to high)
46
sloping configuration of hearing loss
features better thresholds in lower frequency to poorer in high frequency
47
types of hearing loss
conductive sensorineural mixed
48
conductive hearing loss
-caused by problem with outer and middle ear -air conduction thresholds are abnormal, bone conductions thresholds are normal
49
sensorineural hearing loss
-caused by problem with inner ear or auditory nerve -air and bone conduction thresholds are normal
50
mixed hearing loss
-caused by problems with a combination of outer, middle, and inner ear or auditory nerve -some bone and air thresholds are normal and some are abnormal