TEST 4 Lecture Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
presence of viruses in the blood
A
VIREMIA
2
Q
presence of fungi in the blood
A
FUNGEMIA
3
Q
Presence of bacteria in the blood
A
BACTEREMIA
4
Q
bacteria growing and flourishing in the blood
A
SPETICEMIA (SEPSIS)
5
Q
cascading immune responses to septicemia, resulting in decreased blood pressure, life threatening condition
A
SEPTIC SHOCK
6
Q
What is the dominant protozoan disease
A
MALARIA
7
Q
Species of plasmodium that infect humans (5)
A
P. malariae
P. vivax
P. knowlesi
P. ovale
P. falciparum
8
Q
What plasmodium species is responsible for the most deaths?
A
P. falciparum
9
Q
type of virus that can permanently integrate viral genes into the host genome that is passed on to progeny cells
A
RETROVIRUS
10
Q
Approximately how many white blood cells are found in one microliter of blood?
A
5,000-1,000
11
Q
If any microbes are found in the cardiovascular system, they are considered which of the following?
A
TRANSIENT
12
Q
The dominant protozoan disease worldwide is
A
MALARIA
13
Q
The signs/symptoms of malaria include which of the following? (5)
A
MALAISE
FATIGUE
VAGUE ACHES
NAUSEA
FEVER
14
Q
Plasmodium species are protozoa in the ____ group
A
sporozoan
15
Q
The principal mode of transmission of malaria is via the female ___ mosquito
A
ANOPHELES
16
Q
Malaria is caused by members of which of the following genera?
A
PLASMODIUM
17
Q
The target cells of HIV are leukocytes and tissue cells that possess the CD4 receptor and a co-receptor
A
CCR-5
18
Q
Both acute and subacute forms of endocarditis show signs and symptoms such as fever, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, and symptoms similar to a
A
myocardial infection
19
Q
Reverse transcriptase is what type of compound?
A
protein
20
Q
Staphylococcus aureus causes approximately what percent of acute endocarditis cases?
A
40
21
Q
S. mutans, S. oralis, and S. sanguis are alpha-hemolytic ____ which can cause subacute endocarditis
A
streptococci
22
Q
Identify the three possible types of plague infection.
A
bubonic
pneumonic
septicemic
23
Q
Staphylococcus aureus causes approximately what percent of acute endocarditis cases?
A
bull’s-eye rash
erythema migrans.
24
Q
The progression of a plague infection to massive bacterial growth in the blood is known as — plague
A
septicemic
25
EBV is linked to infectious mononucleosis and Burkitt's lymphoma and is a member of the ---- family
herpesvirus
26
Two organs that may become enlarged during an infectious mononucleosis infection are the --- and --
liver
spleen
27
Which of the following are second and third line defenses for the respiratory system?
- Alveolar macrophages
- secretory IgA
28
The most common cause(s) of pharyngitis is/are which of the following?
viruses
29
Streptococcus pyogenes and Fusobacterium ___ cause the most serious cases of pharyngitis.
necrophorum
30
Which of the following are first line defenses for the respiratory system? (5)
- mucus production
- ciliated epithelium
- coughing
- nasal hair
- sneezing
31
First line of defense for digestive system (6)
– Intestinal barrier
– Mucus
– Lysozyme
– HCl, bile salts and digestive enzyme
– Motility
– Gut microbiome
32
Second line of defense for GI tract (5)
- Phagocytic cells
- Antimicrobial peptides
- Cytokines
- Fever
- Acute inflammation
33
mucinous glycoprotein covering on the tooth to which streptococci attach
pellicle
34
Where is most of the normal biota found in GI tract
large intestine
35
E. coli synthesizes vitamin ___
K
36
3 or more loose stools in a 24 hour period
acute diarrhea
37
How are most cases of acute diarrhea transmitted?
fecal contaminated food
38
Does salmonella have high or low infectious dose?
HIGH
39
Treatment for salmonella
fluid and electrolytes
40
diarrhea containing blood
dysentery
41
Does shigella have a large or small infectious dose?
small 10-200
42
treatment for shigella
no antibiotics only for immunocompromised
43
What does STEC stand for?
Shiga toxin producing E. coli
44
Cold symptoms typically occur how many days after infection?
2-3
45
Sinusitis is caused by which general types of microorganisms
fungi
viruses
bacteria
46
The common cold is caused by which general type of microorganism?
rhinovirus
47
Which of the following is the current treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media
wait for resolution
48
Which of the following is the current treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis media
wait for resolution
49
causes the greatest number of lethal cases of pneumonia compared to any other microorganism.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
50
Atypical pneumonias are often caused by which agents?
Chlamydia
mycoplasma
51
What fungus is often present in soils contaminated with bat or bird droppings?
Histoplasma capsulatum
52
COVID-19 was first recognized with which of the following?
pneumonia manifestations
53
What fungal agent is responsible for frequent opportunistic infections in AIDS patients
Pneumocystis jiroveci
54
Which agents usually cause milder forms of pneumonia?
viruses
55
Histoplasma capsulatum belongs to which group of microorganisms?
fungi
56
Pneumocystis jiroveci belongs to which group of microorganisms?
fungi
57
The signs and symptoms of influenza include which of the following? (7)
fever
FATIGUE
headache
sore throat
stuffy nose
dry cough
body aches
58
Which viral agents are known to cause viral pneumonia as their primary disease?
hantavirus
sars coronavirus
59
The influenza virus has a high level of variation in its genome due to antigenic ____ and antigenic ___
shift ; drift
60
The influenza virus has a high level of variation in its genome due to antigenic ____ and antigenic ___
shift ; drift
61
A major change in the influenza virus due to swapping of genetic material between different viral strains is known as which of the following?
antigenic shift
62
Why is annual flu vaccination recommended?
the virus is altered by antigenic drift
63
the ____ stage is the second stage of pertussis characterized by uncontrollable coughing with a distinct sound.
paroxysmal
64
Pneumocystis jiroveci belongs to which group of microorganisms?
fungi
65
Major changes in the influenza A virus due to recombination of viral strains from 2 different host species are referred to as antigenic ____
shift
66
Which of the following agents usually causes minor colds in most patients, but can lead to a serious respiratory infection in young children?
respiratory syncytial virus
67
Which of the following is the most noticeable symptom seen in the paroxysmal stage of pertussis?
uncontrollable cough
68
An effective passive antibody preparation called ____ is used as a prevention for RSV in babies born prematurely.
Palivizumab
69
Secondary tuberculosis is also called _____ tuberculosis
reactivation
70
The large influx of mononuclear cells into the __ play a key role in the formation of infectious sites called tubercles in TB.
Lungs
71
A major change in the influenza virus due to swapping of genetic material between different viral strains is known as which of the following?
antigenic shift
72
the ____ _____ virus causes colds in most people, but can cause a potentially devastating infection in children and neonates.
respiratory syncytial
73
the ___ stage is the second stage of pertussis characterized by uncontrollable coughing with a distinct sound.
paroxysmal
74
Which of the following types of tuberculosis occurs when the infection spreads to other organs outside the lungs?
extrapulmonary
75
Which of the following agents usually causes minor colds in most patients, but can lead to a serious respiratory infection in young children?
respiratory syncytial virus
76
Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is also known as _____.
MDR-TB
77
List the major defenses against infection in the GI tract. (4)
Saliva contains lysozyme and lactoferrin
Secretory Ig A
Food kept moving via peristalsis in the GI tract
Surfaces coated with mucous layer
78
The usual route of shigellosis is the --- route
oral
79
Which of the following are characteristics of shigellosis?
Intense abdominal pain
Fever
Nausea
Bloody stools
80
Identify properties that are characteristics of Clostridioides difficile.
normal microbiota of the intestine
rod-shaped cells
81
Which of the following properties are characteristics of Clostridoides difficile?
Gram-positive
rod shaped
forms endospores
82
Which of the following are symptoms of Giardia infection?
Abdominal pain
Diarrhea of long duration
Flatulence
83
Which of the following are symptoms of Giardia infection?
Abdominal pain
Diarrhea of long duration
Flatulence
84
Which of the following properties are characteristics of Clostridoides difficile?
forms endospores
rod shaped
Gram-positive
85
Microbes in the genus Lactobacillus thrive in the ----- environment of the vagina, and discourage the growth of many other microorganisms.
acidic
86
Candida albicans, a yeast, is found in low levels in the genital tract of which of the following?
healthy females
87
Which of the following are common signs/symptoms of cystitis
Fever
Burning pain with urination
Cloudy, tinged urine
Frequent urge to urinate
88
The _____ urinary tract has fewer types of microbes and lower abundance of microbes than the _____ urinary tract.
upper; lower
89
Pyelonephritis is an infection of which of the following?
kidney
90
In the male, the normal biota of both the --- tract and the -- tract are the same.
urinary; reproductive
91
Microbes in which genus thrive in the acidic environment of the vagina, and discourage the growth of many other microorganisms?
Lactobacillus
92
Which of the following commonly cause urinary tract infections?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E. coli
93
The fungus commonly found in low levels in the healthy female genital tract is
Candida albicans
94
What is dysuria?
burning pain when urinating
95
Which of the following are the common signs/symptoms of symptomatic gonorrhea in males?
urethritis
painful urination
yellowish discharge
96
Neonates born to mothers with gonorrhea are at risk for which type of serious infections
eye
97
What is the most common bacterial cause for urinary tract infections?
e. coli
98
Gonorrhea infections are usually transmitted in which ways?
Maternal-neonate transmission
Sexual contact
99
In males, gonorrhea infection is usually limited to which structures of the reproductive system?
urethra
100
In males, gonorrhea infection is usually limited to which structures of the reproductive system?
urethra
101
Females may exhibit which of the following signs/symptoms of a chlamydia infection?
discharge
cervicitis
salpingitis
102
What infection results in inflammation of the vagina and presents with some degree of vaginal itching?
vaginitis
103
Candida albicans is which type of microorganism?
fungus
104
Which of the following are the possible signs/symptoms of vaginitis?
vaginal discharge
burning sensation
vaginal itching
105
Which of the following represent stages of untreated syphilis infection in an adult?
tertiary
primary
secondary
106
Which of the following describe the chancre of syphilis?
painless
hard
found at the site of entry of the pathogen
107
The primary lesion seen in syphilis infections is called which of the following?
chancre
108
a -- is a painful swollen syphilitic tumor characteristic of tertiary syphilis.
gumma
109
the -- stage of syphilis infection is characterized by systemic signs and symptoms, such as rashes, hair loss, fever, and sore throat, that are eventually resolved.
secondary
110
bladder infection
cystitis
111
infection of kidneys
pyelonephritis
