UNIT 2 Ch. 6-11 Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
A(n) ______ is a microbe which prefers environments near or at a pH of 7.
A
NEUTROPHILE
2
Q
Which organism is an important human pathogen, and is classified as a facultative halophile?
- E. coli
- S. aureus
- S. pneumoniae
- Neisseria
A
S. AUREUS
3
Q
An organism that prefers a habitat where the pH is below 7 is called a(n)
A
ACIDOPHILE
4
Q
Which term best describes the association between a human host and the normal microbiota that aids in digestion?
A
MUTUALISTIC
5
Q
Hydrogen peroxide formed during aerobic respiration is converted to water and oxygen by the enzyme
A
CATALASE
6
Q
A microbe that can use gaseous oxygen in its metabolism and possesses the enzymes needed to process toxic oxygen products is called a(n)
A
AEROBE
7
Q
An interrelationship between two or more free-living organisms that benefits them but is not necessary for their survival is
A
SYNERGISM
8
Q
Some microbes live in mixed communities attached to a surface and are fairly resistant to antibiotics. These formations are called ____ and often grow on materials such as catheters
A
BIOFILMS
9
Q
____ are resistant to salt, but do not normally reside in high salt environments
A
FACULTATIVE HALOPHILS
10
Q
Bacteria reproduce by ___ FISSION
A
BINARY
11
Q
A relationship where microorganisms compete for survival in a common environment is known as
A
ANTAGONISM
12
Q
Cells in the lag phase of the growth curve ______.
-undergo rapid binary fission
-are metabolically dormant
-are metabolically active
-are most susceptible to pH changes
A
ARE METABOLICALLY ACTIVE
13
Q
an organism that uses inorganic CO2 as its carbon source. not nutritionally dependent on other living things.
A
AUTOTROPH
14
Q
an organism that must obtain its carbon in an organic form
A
HETEROTROPH
15
Q
Can get energy from the energy in light. Photosynthesizes
A
PHOTOTROPH
16
Q
Microbes that gets its energy from chemical compounds.
A
CHEMOTROPH
17
Q
How to classify nutritional categories
A
- SOURCE OF ENERGY
- NUTRITIONAL TYPE
18
Q
List all Essential Nutrients
A
-CARBON (ORGANIC)
-HYDROGEN (ORGANIC AND INORGANIC)
-OXYGEN (ORGANIC AND INORGANIC)
-NITROGEN (FUNDAMENTAL FOR PROTEIN)
-PHOSPHATE (CELL MEMBRANE)
-SULFUR (SULFER BINDS TOGETHER. ESSENTIAL FOR VITAMINS)
19
Q
water moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
A
OSMOSIS
20
Q
Environmental factors
A
- temp
- pH
-gases
-radiation - osmotic pressure
-hydrostatic pressure
21
Q
Cardinal temperatures
A
-MINIMUM TEMPERATURE
-MAXIMUM TEMPERATURE
-OPTIMUM TEMPERATURE
22
Q
Optimum temperature below 15C. Rarely pathogenic. grow in freezer :(
A
PSYCHROPHILES
23
Q
Grow slowly in the cold temperature. Optimum temperature between 15-30C
A
PSYCHROTOLERANT
24
Q
Grow between 20-40C. Most common pathogen
A
MESOPHILES
25
Grow at temperatures greater than 45C
THERMOPHILES
26
3 categories of microbes in regard to O2
- USE O2 AND DETOXIFY IT
- CAN NEITHER USE NOT DETOXIFY IT
- DO NOT USE BUT DETOXIFY IT
27
Organisms that grow best at a higher CO2 tension that is normally present in the atmosphere
CANOPHILES
28
Organisms that thrive in acidic environments
ACIDOPHILES
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live in habitats with high solute concentration
OSMOPHILES
30
perefer high concentration of salt
HALOPHILES
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acidophile. grows at pH 0-1
EUGLENA MUTABILIS
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Acidophiles. grows at pH 1-2. lack archaea wall. Will die if exposed to pH of 7.
THERMOPLASMA
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Acidophiles. Grows at pH of 0.7 or of 0
PICROPHILUS
34
new cells require a period of adjustment, enlargement, and synthesis. Cells not yet multiplying at maximum rate.
LAG PAHSE
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Cells reach maximum rate of cell division
EXPONENTIAL GROWTH PHASE (LOG)
36
- DNA wound around histone proteins
- located in the nucleus
- diploid or haploid
- more or less linear
EUKARYOTIC CHROMOSOME
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- DNA condensed into a packet by means of histone like proteins
- one two or sometimes several chromosome
BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME
38
3 categories of genes
- STRUCTURAL GENES
- GENOTYPE
- PHENOTYPE
39
The sum of all genes types; an organism's distinctive genetic makeup
GENOTYPE
40
the 'expression' of the genotype creates traits. what we can see or measure
PHENOTYPE
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DNA becomes fragmented and spliced to change. Any event in which one bacterium donates DNA to another bacterium.
RECOMBINATION
42
protein tube that will let one stranded DNA through
PILUS
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cell that has the plasmid
F+
44
The study of the inheritance of living things is called
GENETICS
45
The ______ is the sum total of genetic material in an organism.
GENOME
46
Genomes of cells are composed of ______.
DNA
47
A discrete cellular structure composed of a neatly packaged DNA molecule is called a(n)
CHROMOSOME
48
Where are the chromosomes of yeast cells located?
IN THE NUCLEUS
49
In the bacterium Escherichia coli, where is the chromosome located?
CYTOPLASM
50
Eukaryotic chromosomes are located in the ______, while prokaryotic chromosomes are found in the ______.
NUCLEUS; NUCLEOID
51
An organism's distinctive genetic makeup, including all of its structural, ribosomal and regulatory genes, is called its ______.
GENOTYPE
52
Which term refers to the transfer of genes from donor to recipient microorganisms?
RECOMBINATION
53
In a protozoal or fungal cell, chromosomes are located in the
NUCLEUS
54
Gene transfer that results in organisms acquiring genes that did not come directly from parent organisms is called ____ gene trasnfer
HORIZONTAL
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A small circular segment of DNA found in the cytoplasm of bacteria that is capable of independent replication and usually contains nonessential genes is called a(n)
PLASMID
56
_______ involves the use of a connecting bridge, _______ requires a bacterial virus vector, and ______ entails transfer of naked DNA.
CONJUCATION; TRANSDUCTION; TRANSFORMATION
57
A pilus connects two bacterial cells to facilitate the transfer of genetic material during the process of
CONJUGATION
58
Transfer of DNA from a source other than the parent organisms
HORIZONTAL GENE TRANSFER
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Transfer of DNA from parent organisms during reproduction
VERTICAL GENE TRANSFER
60
A(n) ______ cell has a separate fertility plasmid, whereas a(n) _____ cell has the F factor incorporated into its chromosome.
F+ ; Hfr
61
Which two types of horizontal gene transfer do NOT require direct contact between the donor and the recipient cells?
TRANSDUCTION ; TRANSFormation
62
Donor and recipient bacterial cells are connected by a(n) ______ during conjugation
PILUS
63
A(n) ______ is a bacterial virus involved in _______, a means of horizontal gene transfer.
BACTERIOPHAGE ; TRANSDUCTION
64
Any change to the nucleotide sequence in the genome is called a(n)
MUTATION
65
What is commonly shared between bacteria through the process of conjugation?
GENES FOR VIRLENCE FACTORS
RESISTANCE PLASMID
66
Which is an agent that induces changes in DNA?
MUTAGEN
67
A phage is a virus that infects ______.
BACTERIA
68
Mutation can provide adaptive advantages for cells, such as ______.
ACQUIRED DRUG RESISTANCE
69
Permanent loss of reproduction capability even when put in optimum environment
MICROBIAL DEATH
70
Cellular targets of the mode of action of the agent
CELL WALL
CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE
CELLULAR SYNTHESIS
PROTEINS
71
Elevated temperatures are ____
MICROBICIDAL
72
Lower temperatures are _____
MICROBISTATIC
73
Shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specific temperature
(TDT) THERMAL DEATH TIME
74
The lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a sample in 10 minutes
(TDP) THERMAL DEATH POINT
75
Quinine is a drug used to treat
MALARIA
76
Antimicrobial drugs often cannot penetrate the sticky extracellular material surrounding organisms in a ______
BIOFILM
77
A situation where microbes begin to tolerate an antimicrobial agent at a level which would normally be inhibitory is called
ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE
78
Which term refers to bacteria that slow or stop their metabolism so that they cannot be harmed by an antibiotic?
PERSISTERS
79
Plasmids called ______ factors confer antibiotic resistance through horizontal transfer.
RESISTANCE
80
Which of the following is an enzyme secreted by certain bacteria that cleaves the beta-lactam ring of penicillin and cephalosporin and thus provides for resistance against these antibiotics?
PENICILLINASE AND BETA-LACTAMASE
81
An R factor is a type of ____ that confers antibiotic resistance.
PLASMID
82
A bacterial system that can be used to cause very specific cuts in genes is termed _____.
CRISPR
83
Who discovered penicillin
ALEXANDER FLEMMING
84
Antibiotics are originally metabolic products of ____ and ____
BACTERIA AND FUNGI
85
an agar diffusion test that provides useful data on antimicrobial susceptibility
KIRBY BAUER TECHNIQUE
86
What do excellent selectively toxic antibiotics kill bacteria? Give an example.
IT INHIBITS SYNTHESIS IN CELL WALL OF BACTERIA. PENICILLIN
87
Antimicrobial drug categories
- INHIBITION OF CELL WALL SYNTHESIS
- INHIBITION OF NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
- INHIBITON OF PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
- INTERFERENCE WITH CELL MEMBRANE STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
88
effective against more than one group of bacteria
BROAD SPECTRUM DRUGS
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Target a specific group of bacteria
NARROW SPECTRUM DRUGS
90
Agents used to treat fungal infections
Macrolide polyenes
Azoles
Echinocandins (-fungin)
Allylamines (-fine)
91
a system found in bacteria that can cause very specific cuts in genes
CRISPR
92
preparations of live microorganisms fed to animals and humans to improve intestinal biota
PROBIOTICS
93
nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestine
PREBIOTICS
94
used to treat recurrent Clostridioides difficile infection and ulcerative colitis
FECAL TRANSPLANT
95
microbes that were once small in number can begin to overgrow and cause disease
SUPER INFECTION
96
UTI caused by E. coli treated with antibiotics (broad spectrum)
Overgrowth of Candida albicans causing yeast infection
97
the sum total of all microbes found on and in a normal human
HUMAN MICROBIOME
98
relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microbe. Degree of pathogenicity
VIRULENCE
99
any characteristic or structure of the microbe that contributes to its ability to establish itself in the host and cause damage
VIRULENCE FACTORS
100
examples of virulence factors
- ability to create a capsule
- having fimbriae
101
infections with contributions from more than one microbe
POLYMICROBIAL
102
the route that a microbe takes to enter the tissue of the body to initiate an infection
PORTAL OF ENTRY
103
originating from a source outside the body
EXOGENOUS MICROBE
104
Microorganisms with smaller infectious doeses have ____ virulence
GREATER
105
structures that help bacterial, protozoan, and fungal attach
Fimbriae
surface proteins
adhesive slimes or capsule
106
kill phagocytes outright
LEUKOCIDINS
107
4 steps leading to Disease
1. Portal of Entry
2. Attaching to Host Cells
3. Surviving Host Defense
4. Causing disease
108
Enzymes secreted by microbes that break down and inflict damage on tissues
EXOENZYME
109
Three ways that microorganisms cause damage to their host:
- Directly through stuff the action of enzyme or toxins
- Indirectly by inducing the hosts defense to respond EXCESSIVELY
- Epigenetic changes made to host cells by microbes
110
Parasitic worms attach by....
Hooks
suckers
barbs
111
increased in white blood cells
LEUKOCYTOSIS
112
decreased in white blood cell levels
LEUKOPENIA
113
primary habitat in the natural world from which a pathogen originates
reservoirs
114
The invasion and multiplication of a pathogen in the human host is referred to as a(n)
INFECTION
115
The main portals of entry include ______.
UROGENITAL TRACT
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
SKIN
RESPIRATORY TRACT
116
______ can be characterized as any deviation from the healthy state.
DISEASE
117
minimum number of microbes that must enter the body to cause infection?
INFECTIOUS DOSE
118
A pathogen that can cause disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses is referred to as a(n) _______ pathogen
TRUE
119
A microbe that usually does not cause disease in a normal healthy host, but can cause disease in an immunocompromised host is called a(n) ________ pathogen.
OPPURTUNISTIC
120
When an infectious agent spreads from a local site and is carried to other tissues, the infection is called a(n) _____ INFECTION
FOCAL
121
A(n) ______ infection invades many compartments and organs via the bloodstream.
SYSTEMIC
122
After entering the body, microbes remain confined to a specific tissue in a(n) ______ infection.
LOCALIZED
123
The term ______ infection refers to an additional infection, with a different microbe, that follows an initial infection.
SECONDARY
124
An infection that persists over a long duration is referred to as a _____ INFECTION
CHRONIC
125
An infection characterized by a rapid onset and short duration is called a(n) ______ infection.
ACUTE
126
Suppose a patient who is suffering from influenza develops bacterial pneumonia within a week of first becoming sick with the flu. In this sequence of illnesses, influenza virus caused the ______ infection.
PRIMARY
127
Any subjective evidence of disease that is sensed by the patient is called a(n) _______.
SYMPTOMS
128
A(n) ________ infection occurs when several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site.
POLYMICROBIDIAL
129
After the initial symptoms in certain chronic infectious diseases, the infectious agent retreats into a dormant state called ______.
LATENCY
130
When the infectious agent can be transmitted from infected host to a new host, a disease is considered to be __________
communicable
131
If the disease agent is highly communicable, especially through direct contact, the disease is considered to be _______
CONTAGIOUS
132
Suppose that a person takes a fall while hiking and develops tetanus when the pathogen enters through an open wound in their arm. They do not spread the tetanus infection to anyone else. The tetanus infection is considered to be ______.
NONCOMMUNICABLE
133
______ transmission occurs when an agent is transferred from an infected person to another person without an intermediate object, substance, or space.
CONTACT
134
Transmission of infectious agents from host to host with the involvement of an intermediate inanimate material is considered to be ______ transmission.
INDIRECT
135
Which of the following is considered a common mechanical vector, for it transmits an infectious agent via contaminated external body parts?
HOUSEFLY
136
Which is the term used to describe an infectious disease that is acquired during a stay in a health care facility?
NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION
137
A vector that transports an infectious agent without being infected itself is called a(n) ____ vector
MECHANICAL
138
A(n) ______ disease is a disease that must be brought to the attention of local, district, state or national agencies by medical personnel aware of the condition.
REPORTABLE
139
An infectious disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long time period in a particular geographic locale is _____.
ENDEMIC
