Test Questions

Question 1

You are conducting stakeholder interviews to elicit requirements for your new project. As the interviewees are talking, you are evaluating their body language and tone, asking relevant questions and seeking clarity. What are you doing?

Answer 1

Effective listening

Question 2

System used for scheduling, critical path calculations and will assist with WBS, work authorization, resource tracking and reporting.

Answer 2

PMIS

Question 3

Linear Programming, Integer Algorithms, Dynamic Programming and multi-objective programming are examples of?

Answer 3

Constrained Optimization Methods used to predict success on complex projects

Question 4

Project Alpha has an expected IRR of 8% but is expected to take three years to complete. Project Beta has an expected IRR of 5% but will only take nine months to complete. Which project should your company decide to work on?

Answer 4

Project Alpha
*For IRR questions, always choose the project with the highest IRR.

Question 5

<> signals there could be an issue, while <> tells us the severity of the issue?

Answer 5

WORK PERFORMANCE Information signals there is an inconsistency to plan, while PERFORMANCE MEASURES will tell us how that inconsistency is to the project

Question 6

Your organization often groups together related projects into programs. Some projects, programs, and operations are also managed as portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. Which of the following is a framework in which the management of portfolios, programs, and projects are integrated with organizational enablers to achieve strategic objectives?

Answer 6

Organizational Project Management (OPM) is defined as a framework in which portfolio, program and project management are integrated with organizational enablers to achieve strategic objectives.

Question 7

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

Answer 7

Portfolio Management

Question 8

A project comprises of activities A, B, C and D. The longest path includes activities A, C, and D which take two days, ten days and 20 days respectively. Activity B, on the other hand, takes eight days to complete. If activity D takes two extra days to complete, what is the shortest possible project duration?

Answer 8

34
The critical path for this project is A-C-D, and it, therefore, determines the shortest possible project duration as 2+10+20 = 32 days. As D needs two more days to complete, 32+2 = 34 days becomes the new project duration.

Question 9

Treating others with conduct that may result in harm, fear, humiliation, manipulation, or exploitation. For example, berating a project team member because they’ve taken longer than expected to complete a project assignment may be considered humiliation.

Answer 9

Abusive manner

Question 10

A situation where a project manager may have two competing duties of loyalty. For example, purchasing software from a relative may benefit the relative, but it may do harm to the performing organization.

Answer 10

Conflict of interest

Question 11

A project manager’s responsibility to be loyal to another person, organization, or vendor. For example, a project manager has this to promote the best interests of an employer rather than the best interests of a vendor.

Answer 11

Duty of loyalty

Question 12

A person who is serving in the capacity of a project manager or contributing to the management of a project, portfolio of projects, or program. For example, a program manager is considered to be a XXX under this definition.

Answer 12

Practitioner

Question 13

6 Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict

Answer 13

Withdrawal/Avoiding
Smoothing/accommodating
Forcing/directive
Compromising/reconcile
Confronting/problem solving
Collaborating

Question 14

A process is Out of Control when ___ data points exceed Control Limits,
or ___ consecutive points are above or below the mean.

Answer 14

1 / 7
Control Chart

Question 15

Continuous Delivery is facilitated by which Agile Framework

Answer 15

Kanban

Question 16

Term for the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed

Answer 16

Time box

Question 17

Which process is used to implement approved change requests:

A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer 17

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

• note: the question refers to implementation of an approved change request. If the change request had not yet been approved, then the Perform Integrated Change Control would facilitate the process of obtaining approval.

Question 18

The process Direct and Manage Project Work will produce the following as output (select 3)

Deliverables

Work Performance Data

Work Performance Reports

Change Requests

Schedule Forecasts

Answer 18

Deliverables
Work Performance Data
Change Requests

Question 19

Which of the following are among the Tools and Techniques of the process Collect Requirements (select 3):

A. Observation/Conversation

B. Focus Groups

C. Inspection

D. Interviews

E. Decomposition

Answer 19

A
B
D

Question 20

You are the project manager for your organization and your organization utilizes an agile approach to project management. The development team is rating the difficulty of completing the requirements in the current sprint. What term describes rating of the requirements to determine how many requirements can be completed in a sprint?

Answer 20

Story Points

Requirements are written as user stories. Story points score the difficulty of the tasks needed to complete a user story in a sprint.

Question 21

Performance Baseline includes these 3:
Many projects use a combination of the three to get a fuller picture of the project’s performance during the execution phase

Answer 21

Scope, cost and schedule baseline

Question 22

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
A. Procurement statement of work (SOW)
B. Procurement strategy
C. Terms of reference
D. Change request

Answer 22

B. Procurement strategy

Question 23

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project. Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?
A. Review stakeholder register and meeting
B. Data analysis and communication skills
C. Data gathering and data analysis
D. Communication skills and cultural awareness

Answer 23

C. Data gathering and data analysis

*Preparing=planning/new project/capture

Question 24

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?
A. Hierarchical
B. External
C. Formal
D. Official

Answer 24

D. Official

Official. Annual reports; reports to regulators or government bodies.

Question 25

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?
A. Verify Deliverables
B. Validate Deliverables
C. Review Deliverables
D. Analyze Deliverables

Answer 25

A. Verify Deliverables

Question 26

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?
A. Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project
B. Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met
C. Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner
D. Develops an appropriate and plan for communication of project activities

Answer 26

B. Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met

Question 27

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?
A. Expert judgment
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Team agreements
D. Communication skills

Answer 27

A. Expert judgment

Question 28

Which is a major component of an agreement?
A. Change request handling
B. Risk register templates
C. Lessons learned register
D. Procurement management plan

Answer 28

A. Change request handling

Question 29

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should the project manager consult?
A. Risk management plan
B. Communications management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Stakeholder engagement plan

Answer 29

B. Communications management plan

Question 30

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer 30

D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 31

Which format can a network diagram take?
A. Flow chart
B. Control chart
C. Affinity diagram
D. Cause-and-effect diagram

Answer 31

A. Flow chart

Question 32

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project. Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.
Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
A. The project and the organization
B. The organization and the industry
C. The subject matter experts and the project
D. The change control board and the organization

Answer 32

A. The project and the organization

Question 33

Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?
A. Defining, sequencing, estimating activity durations, and developing a schedule model are so tightly linked that they are viewed as a single process.
B. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge.
C. An iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required.
D. To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted.

Answer 33

B. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge.

Question 34

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Work performance information
B. Bidder conferences
C. Complexity of procurement
D. Procurement management plan

Answer 34

C. Complexity of procurement

Question 35

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?
A. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
B. When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit
C. When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule
D. When they are from the same unit of the organization

Answer 35

A. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

Question 36

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?
A. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans
B. Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified
C. Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members
D. Engage only with the project sponsors

Answer 36

A. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plan

Question 37

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Expected monetary value analysis
D. Decision tree analysis

Answer 37

A. Sensitivity analysis

Question 38

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?
A. Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, audits, and decision making
D. Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Answer 38

B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings

Question 39

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?
A. Cultural influences
B. Physical environmental elements
C. Commercial databases
D. Infrastructure

Answer 39

D. Infrastructure

Question 40

A protect manager needs to request outside support for a statement of work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?
A. Time and material (T&M)
B. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
C. Fixed price
D. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Answer 40

A. Time and material (T&M)

Question 41

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training

Answer 41

C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

Question 42

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
B. Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology
D. Glossary of common terminology, constraints derived from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

Answer 42

A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

Question 43

What does earned value (EV) measure?
A. Budgeted work that has been completed
B. Total costs incurred while accomplishing work
C. Budget associated with planned work
D. Cost efficiency of budgeted resources

Answer 43

A. Budgeted work that has been completed

Question 44

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes EXECUTING the scope?
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
B. Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
C. Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
D. Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Answer 44

A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.

Question 45

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.
C. Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks.
D. Identify positive and negative risks.

Answer 45

A. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.

Question 46

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager’s key responsibility during this phase?
A. Defining the scope of the project
B. Building a collaborative environment
C. Creating a detailed project management plan
D. Directing the delivery of the project

Answer 46

B. Building a collaborative environment

Question 47

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control Quality process?
A. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
B. Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
C. Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same.
D. Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control Quality is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group.

Answer 47

A. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

Question 48

A project Manager is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management and is clarifying and resolving previously identified issues. Is this manage or monitor stakeholder engagement?

Answer 48

Manage
Manage stakeholder engagement involves making certain communication needs and expectations are met, managing any issues they might raise that could become future issues and resolving previously identified issues.

Monitor is keeping stakeholders informed and engaged throughout the project.

Question 49

During which process of project cost management does a PM produce the cost baseline?

Answer 49

Determine Budget

The cost baseline is the approved version o the time phased project budget.

Question 50

Statistical Sampling is one of the tools and techniques used in which process of Quality Management?

Plan Quality
Perform Quality Response
Control Quality
Manage Quality

Answer 50

Statistical Sampling, Control Chart, Pareto Chart, Run Chart etc tools and techniques used in Control Quality.

Question 51

All of the followings are true regarding Contract Change Control system EXCEPT:

It should include contract dispute resolution procedures
It should be defined in the contract
It is used in Control Procurements Process
It is part of the Integrated Change Control system

Answer 51

It should be defined in the contract

Question 52

Float of activities in critical paths is:

0
1
2
Can not be said and depends on the activity duration, dependencies with others

Answer 52

Float for critical activity is zero. A is correct.

Question 53

Initial Cost Management Plan is available in which of the following knowledge area?

Integration Management
Cost Management
Scope Management
Schedule Management

Answer 53

Initial cost management plan is prepared in Integration Management. It is done in Develop Project Plan process area.

Question 54

The value 3 Sigma stands for how many defects per million opportunities?

1,700
2,700
3.4
1.5

Answer 54

3 sigma stands for 99.73% of standard deviation, which means the defects are: 100 – 99.73 = 00.27% = 2,700 defect per million opportunities

Question 55

You are in the middle of a bidding of a huge project by an international conglomerate. This project is expected to bring a huge revenue stream down the line for your organization. You have prepared the plan for a long time with your team and have submitted the proposal. Recently, the buyer came up with certain new deadlines which will be difficult to adhere to. However, the buyer is insisting on those deadlines. You review the whole plan and came to the conclusion that there is no way this can be done with the new deadlines. Your boss is however not convinced and is concerned that if you do not agree to the new dates you will loose the contract. What should you do?
a. Ask your boss to make the commitment on behalf of the team
b. Appeal to the buyer for additional time for the work
c. Adhere to the estimates your team has made
d. Agree to the date the customer has required

Answer 55

Estimates made should be accurate and that should be presented to the customer. As you have rechecked the plan and found out that no way the new deadlines can be addressed, you should inform the estimate as developed by your team. Hence, Choice – C is the correct answer.

Question 56

All of the following tools are used in Quality Control EXCEPT:
Pareto Chart
Statistical Sampling
Histograms
Benchmarking

Answer 56

Benchmarking is not used in Perform Quality Control

Question 57

Which of the following best describes a project plan?
A formal and approved document which is used to guide project execution, control and closure
The document that outlines all of the work and only the work that must be performed
The scope management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan and quality management plan
The aggregate of all the work performed during planning

Answer 57

A project plan is a formal and approved document which is used to guide project execution, control and closure.

Question 58

A defect has been brought to your attention. As the manager of the team, you reviewed the defect with the concerned team member and asked her to submit a change request. Now the team is engaged in fixing the issue. Which project management process are you in?
Monitor and Control Project Work
Direct and Manage Project Execution
Perform Quality Control
Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer 58

Please note the last sentence  The team is now fixing (which is working on) the issue. Hence they are in Direct and Manage Project Execution process area. Choice B is correct.

Question 59

You have been appointed as the Project manager of an upcoming internal project. Who will provide you with the Statement of work (SOW)?

a) Customer
b) Project Sponsor
c) Project Manager provides SOW
d) None of the above

Answer 59

Solution: SOW is one of the inputs for Develop Project Charter process. If the project is external, the SOW is provided by the customer. However, if the project is internal, the SOW is provided by the Project Sponsor or Project Initiator.

Question 60

Incremental Delivery is facilitated by which Agile Framework

A. Kanban
B. Scrum
C Predictive Life Cycle
D. Passive Life Cycle

Answer 60

B. Scrum

Question 61

Incremental delivery is used to accomplish all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Reduce Risk
B. Reduce Cost of Changes
C. Reduce Time to Market
D. Reduce Transparency

Answer 61

D. Reduce Transparency

Question 62

It is a common practice for projects in an Agile environment to have a Daily Standup meeting. What is the purpose of this meeting?

A. To provide status reporting on a daily basis.
B. To solve problems as soon as they become apparent.
C. To engage the project sponsor and stakeholders in decision making and commitment towards project objectives.
Incorrect
D. To commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team.

Answer 62

D. To commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team.

Question 63

A Time Box refers to

A. The starting time for an Agile Event
B. The minimum duration for an Agile Event
C. the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed
D. the total duration of all Agile events for a given increment

Answer 63

C. the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed

Question 64

The project team has successfully delivered the final component of a year long project on-budget and ahead of schedule. The final product has been transitioned into operations and all necessary support requirements have been completed. As part of project closure, what would be done next?

A. Release all project resources
B. Validate Scope
C. Complete project closure documents
D. Close out all project accounts

Answer 64

C. Complete project closure documents

Question 65

Approved changes are implemented during:

A. Direct and manage project work
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Close Project or Phase

Answer 65

A. Direct and manage project work

Question 66

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate things to do in the initiating process group?

A. Ensure the product Scope is as final as practical
B. Ensure continued understanding of the work
C. Remove Roadblocks
D. Review Bids and select sellers

Answer 66

A. Ensure the product Scope is as final as practical

B, C and D are completed during Execuction

Question 67

Which of the following is a ‘Data Representation’ tool used in the process Monitor Stakeholder Engagement?

A. Resource Breakdown Structure
B. Organizational Breakdown Structure
C. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
D. Tornado Diagram

Answer 67

C. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

Question 68

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is primarily concerned with which of the following:

A. Identify people, groups and organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project.
Incorrect
B. Communicate and work with the stakeholders to satisfy their needs and expectations
C. Develop appropriate strategies and an actionable plan to effectively involve stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, and potential impact on the project.
D. Evaluating stakeholders impact on project performance and taking appropriate actions as the project evolves and its environment changes

Answer 68

B. Communicate and work with the stakeholders to satisfy their needs and expectations

Question 69

This Tool/Technique of Manage Stakeholder Engagement may be used to visually represent the stakeholders and their relationships to each other and the organization:
Your Answer:

A. Mind Mapping
B. Benchmarking
C. Stakeholder Engagement Matrix
D. Stakeholder Assessment Matrix

Answer 69

A. Mind Mapping

Question 70

A project kickoff meeting is scheduled by the project manager to occur during which project management process group:

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing

Answer 70

B. Planning

Question 71

Which of the following is regarded as the most important aspect of Knowledge Management

A. Ensuring thorough documentation so that knowledge can be shared.
B. Creating an atmosphere of trust, so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.
C. Obtaining lessons learned at the end of the project, in order for it to be used in future projects.
D. Emphasize codified explicit knowledge, since it is not subject to different interpretations.

Answer 71

B. Creating an atmosphere of trust, so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.

Question 72

The Quality Management process used to identify ineffective processes and causes of poor quality is known as:

A. Control Quality
B. Manage Quality
C. Attribute Sampling
D. Variables Sampling

Answer 72

B. Manage Quality

Question 73

The Process Group that provides feedback to implement corrective action is:

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer 73

D. Monitoring and Controlling

Question 74

The Scope Baseline refers to:

A. What is currently known and approved by project sponsor and stakeholders.
B. The working assumptions of the subject matter experts responsible for completing the work.
C. The scope as it was defined in the Project Charter.
D. The scope value as it was presented in the Business Case.

Answer 74

A. What is currently known and approved by project sponsor and stakeholders.

Question 75

The Cost of Non-Conformance includes:

A. Prevention and Appraisal costs.
B. Money spent during the project to avoid failures.
C. Internal and External Failure Costs.
D. Cost of Inspection and Destructive Testing Loss

Answer 75

C. Internal and External Failure Costs.

Question 76

In which Project Procurement Management process does Negotiation occur:

A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer 76

B. Conduct Procurements

Question 77

Organizational culture, structure and governance are examples of:

A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

B. Stakeholder Engagement Factors

C. Organizational Process Assets

D. Organizational Matrix Structures

Answer 77

A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

Question 78

A Finish-to-Start relationship is an activity relationship that requires the:

A. successor be completed before the predecessor may begin.

B. successor be completed before the predecessor can finish.

C. predecessor be completed before the successor may begin.

D. predecessor begins before the successor may begin.

Answer 78

C. predecessor be completed before the successor may begin.

Question 79

0 / 1 point
Project-X has an approved budget of $10,000. Activity-A has a planned value of $500, Activity-B has a planned value of $900, and Activity-C has a planned value of $800. Activities A and B are both complete, but Activity-C is only 75% complete. The actual costs thus far equal $2,500.

The Schedule Variance is _____ , and the schedule status is ______.

A. +200 / ahead of schedule

B. -200 / behind schedule

C. +300 / ahead of schedule

D. -300 / behind schedule

Answer 79

B. -200 / behind schedule

PV = $500 + $900 + $800 = $2,200
EV = $500 + $900 +($800*.75) = $2,000
SV = 2,000 - 2,200 = (-200)

Question 80

Project-X has an approved budget of $10,000. Activity-A has a planned value of $500, Activity-B has a planned value of $900, and Activity-C has a planned value of $800. Activities A and B are both complete, but Activity-C is only 75% complete. The actual costs thus far equal $2,500.

What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC), assuming that all remaining work is completed according to original estimates:

A. $8,900
B. $10,200
C. $10,500
D. $12,500

Answer 80

C. $10,500

Budget at Completion (BAC) = $10,000
Earned Value (EV) = $500 + $900 +($800*.75) = $2,000
Actual Cost (AC) = $2,500
ETC = $10,000 - $2,000 = $8,000
EAC = $2,500 + $8,000 = $10,500

Question 81

External Failure Costs include the following, EXCEPT:

A. Liabilities
B. Warranty Work
C. Loss of Business
D. Destructive Testing Loss

Answer 81

D. Destructive Testing Loss

Question 82

Perform Manage Quality differs from Control Quality in that:

A. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with acceptance of deliverables and meeting product requirements, while Control Quality is concerned with correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.

B. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements, while Control Quality is concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used.

C. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with acceptance of deliverables and meeting product requirements.

D. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.

Answer 82

D. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.

Question 83

Deliverables are _______ of the Control Quality process.

A. Inputs
B. Outputs
C. Tools
D. Techniques

Answer 83

A. Inputs

Question 84

A Bidder Conference is a Tool/Technique of which Procurement process:

A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Control Procurements

Answer 84

B. Conduct Procurements

Question 85

The ability for stakeholders to influence a project is:

A. highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses.
B. A. lowest during the initial stages and gets progressively higher as the project progresses.
C. remains constant throughout the project life cycle.
D. is driven by the number of influencing stakeholders involved in the project

Answer 85

A. highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses.

Question 86

Which is likely to be part of operations:

A. Designing a new engine
B. Building a new plant
C. Performing scheduled maintenance on a vehicle
D. Making updates to reflect changes made to engine specifications

Answer 86

C. Performing scheduled maintenance on a vehicle

Question 87

A project is 75% complete, but has only expended 50% of its approved budget. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) equals:

A. 0.67
B. 1.25
C. 1.50
D. 1.75

Answer 87

C. 1.50

Question 88

Physical Resource Assignments and Project Team Assignments are outputs of which Project Resource Management process?

A. Plan Resource Management
B. Estimate Resources
C. Acquire Resources
D. Control Resources

Answer 88

C. Acquire Resources

Question 89

A project can add specialized expertise without incurring travel or relocation costs when utilizing this type of team:

A. Logistical
B. Circus
C. Virtual
D. Co-located

Answer 89

C. Virtual

Question 90

Activities designed to enhance the skills, knowledge, and capabilities of the project team is called:

A. Roles and Responsibilities
B. Ground Rules
C. Reward and Recognition
D. Training

Answer 90

D. Training

Question 91

An opportunity is identified to have a 40% chance of earning $200,000, but there is a 20% chance that it can lose $40,000. What is the total Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of the risk:

A. $160,000
B. $80,000
C. $72,000
D. $40,000

Answer 91

C. $72,000

Opportunity EVM = 40% * $200,000 = + $80,000
Threat EVM = 20% * $40,000 = - $8,000
$80,000 - $8,000 = $72, 000

Question 91

A Bidder Conference is among the Tools & Techniques of which Project Procurement Management process

A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Control Procurements

Answer 91

B. Conduct Procurements

Question 92

In an Agile environment, the project manager will have an inherent need to communicate

A. work performance data
B. evolving and emerging details
C. budget variance
D. fixed and total float

Answer 92

B. evolving and emerging details

Question 93

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?
A. Produce team performance assessments
B. Hold weekly meetings to engage every member
C. Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member
D. Provide recognition awards to team members

Answer 93

A. Produce team performance assessments

Question 94

Which project documents can determine the budget?
A. Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates
B. Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register
C. Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates
D. Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log

Answer 94

B. Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register

Question 95

After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?
A. Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule
C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
D. Review Activities and Develop Schedule

Answer 95

A. Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations

Question 96

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because it is a foreign location.
Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?
A. Predictive life cycle
B. Waterfall life cycle
C. Hybrid life cycle
D. Product life cycle

Answer 96

C. Hybrid life cycle

Question 97

Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?
A. Background, personality, and communications management plan
B. Personality, background, and escalation process
C. Sponsor relationship, personality, and background
D. Current emotional state, personality, and background

Answer 97

D. Current emotional state, personality, and background

Question 98

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:
A. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.
B. WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.
C. business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.
D. issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, verified deliverables, and quality reports.

Answer 98

A. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

Question 99

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?
A. Government standards
B. Organizational culture
C. Employee capabilities
D. Organizational knowledge bases

Answer 99

D. Organizational knowledge bases

Question 100

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent defined team member roles in a group of tasks?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Answer 100

B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question 101

Due to today’s competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long- range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?
A. Planning and risk management skills
B. Communication and time management skills
C. Business intelligence and leadership skills
D. Strategic and business management skills

Answer 101

C. Business intelligence and leadership skills

Question 102

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan. Which elements may be included in this plan?
A. Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process
B. Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules
C. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan
D. Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Answer 102

C. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

Question 103

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?
A. Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, audits, and decision making
D. Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Answer 103

B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings

Question 104

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training

Answer 104

C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

Question 105

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
B. Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
C. Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
D. Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Answer 105

A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.

Question 106

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?
A. Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team
B. Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives
C. Ensures that the project’s business operations are efficient
D. Provides management oversight tor a project’s functional or business units

Answer 106

B. Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives

Question 107

The features and functions that characterize a result product, or service can refer to:
A. project scope
B. product scope
C. service scope
D. product breakdown structure

Answer 107

B. product scope

Question 108

What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan in a project with a lot of technical uncertainty?
A. Get expert judgment
B. Count on personal experience
C. Ask project sponsors
D. Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified

Answer 108

A. Get expert judgment

Question 109

Which term refers to work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?
A. Project Scope
B. Product Scope
C. Change request
D. Acceptance criteria

Answer 109

A. Project Scope.

Question 110

During which process of Cost Management does a PM produce the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Schedule
C. Determine Budget
D. Develop Project Charter

Answer 110

C. Determine Budget

Question 111

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Develop Team
B. Manage Team
C. Control Resources
D. Plan Resource Management

Answer 111

A. Develop Team

Question 112

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?
A. Identify the different aspects of the team to manage and control physical resources efficiently
B. Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project
C. Train the team members in project skill sets
D. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member

Answer 112

D. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member

Question 113

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?
A. Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources
B. Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system
C. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements
D. Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

Answer 113

C. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

Question 114

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager identifies some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and time for the required rework.
How would the project manager define these extra costs?
A. Appraisal costs
B. Management reserves
C. Cost of nonconformance
D. Cost of conformance

Answer 114

A. Appraisal costs

Question 115

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?
A. Acquire Resources
B. Control Resources
C. Manage Team
D. Develop Team

Answer 115

D. Develop Team

Question 116

Resource Requirements and a Resource Breakdown Structure are outputs of which Project Resource Management process?

A. Plan Resource Management
B. Estimate Activity Resource
C. Acquire Resources
D. Control Resources

Answer 116

B. Estimate Activity Resource

Question 117

A User Story is tool used in Agile software development

A. to define the length of the team’s development cycle, from start to finish, needed to create a potentially releasable increment.

B. to capture the description of a software feature from an end-user perspective, describing the type of user, what they want, and why.

C. to visualize work, limit work-in-progress, and maximize efficiency and flow.

D. to summarize the vision and direction of a product offering over time.

Answer 117

B. to capture the description of a software feature from an end-user perspective, describing the type of user, what they want, and why.

Question 118

Project documents should be distributed to

A. All people identified in the Resource Breakdown Structure

B. All people identified in the Communications Management Plan

C. All people identified in the Stakeholder Register

D. All people identified in the RACI chart as accountable

Answer 118

B. All people identified in the Communications Management Plan

Question 119

Project Communications are :

A. An Output of Manage Communications, and Input to Monitor Communications

B. An Output of Plan Communication Management, and Input to Monitor Communications

C. An Output of Plan Communication Management, and Input to Manage Communications

D. B. An Output of Monitor Communications and Input to Manage Communications

Answer 119

A. An Output of Manage Communications, and Input to Monitor Communications

Question 120

Video-conferencing is an example of which communication method:

A. Virtual
B. Technology
C. Interactive
D. Channel

Answer 120

C. Interactive

Question 121

The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is used to adjust estimated costs for remaining work in a forecast when:

A. Original estimates are found to be unreliable and unpredictable

B. Original estimates are found to be accurate, but took longer than expected to complete

C. Current Variances are viewed as typical of future variances

D. Current Variances are viewed as atypical and isolated to past activities that have already completed

Answer 121

C. Current Variances are viewed as typical of future variances

Question 122

Parametric estimating involves:

A. Using Optimistic, Pessimistic and Most Likely estimates.

B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package to obtain the total cost of the project.

C. Using a prescribed rate and other variables to calculate an estimate.

D. Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project.

Answer 122

C. Using a prescribed rate and other variables to calculate an estimate.

Question 123

Given a project with a Budget at Completion (BAC) equal to $100,000, and Estimate to Completion (EAC) calculated as $80,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

A. 0.80

B. 1.25

C. 1.45

D. 1.80

Answer 123

B. 1.25

CPI = BAC / EAC, or 100,000 / 80,000 = 1.25