TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST TEST 2 Flashcards
1
Q
RL
A
rolled lateral
2
Q
short purporse of RL
A
localize define
3
Q
RM
A
roller medial
4
Q
short purpose of RM
A
localize define
5
Q
RS
A
Rolled superior
6
Q
RI
A
rolled inferior
7
Q
Short purpose of RS
A
localize define
8
Q
Short purpose of RI
A
localize
define
9
Q
LMO
A
lateromedial oblique
10
Q
TAN
A
tangential
11
Q
M
A
magnification
12
Q
ID
A
implant displaced breast
13
Q
short purpose of LMO
A
define
14
Q
short purpose of TAN
A
define
15
Q
short purpose of M
A
define
16
Q
short purpose of ID
A
compression
17
Q
What are the two types of breast implants
A
saline
silicone
18
Q
Which type of breast implants have a greater chance of deflation
A
saline
19
Q
Which implants hae a harder feel, more natural, and are slightly heavier
A
saline
20
Q
What type of implant has a greater risk of ripples
A
saline
21
Q
What type of implants are most common in the US
A
silicone gel
22
Q
What type of breast implant has a autoimmune controversy surrounding it
A
silicone gel
23
Q
What type of implant has a greater risk of capsular contracture
what percent
A
silicone gel
15-40%
24
Q
What type of implants are difficult to determine if they are leaking
A
silicone gel
25
What type of implants are referred to as "gummy bear" implants
silicone gel
26
Implants that are placed prepectoral is called
subfacial
27
implants that are placed behind the glandular tissue
subglandular
28
implants that are place behind the muscle
subpectoral
29
What implant placement is best for mammograms
subpectoral
30
What type of implants are obsolete
silicone injections
31
augmentation incision under the armpit
transaxillary incision
32
augmentation incision under the nipple
pariareolar
33
augmentation incision that is under the breast
inframammary incision
34
augmentation incision near the belly button
transumbilical incision
35
True or False
technologists must have training specific to imaging patients with breast implants as part of the initial training
true
36
True or false
Except when contraindicated or unless modified by a physician patients with breast implants undergoing mammography shall have mammographic views to maximize the visualization of breast tissue
true
37
True or false
Each facility shall have a procedure to inquire whether or not the patient has breast implants prior to the actual mammographic exam
true
38
How much compression should be used on implants
enough to only immobilize
39
What views are required for implants by the MQSA unless contraindicated
CC and MLO with implant and displaced implant
40
Normally a thin layer of ___ \_\_\_\_ , called a ____ develops around the implant
scar tissue
capsule
41
A capsule layer that develops excessively and rightens around the breast implant is called
capsular contracture
42
What is the most common complication with breast implants
capsular contracture
43
Envelope and capsule rutpture and implant leaks into the surrounding tissue is called
extracapsular rupture
44
Evelope ruptures inside the fibrous capsule is called
intracapsular rupture
45
If you are unable to displace an implant what view should be added for maximum tissue inclusion
90 degree lateral
46
Ruptured implant patients sometimes present with an active ____ secondary to the rupture
infection
47
What is the purpose of the implant displacement
compression and visualization of breast tissue normally obscured by the implant
48
Implants are displaced _____ and ____ against the chest wall
posteriorly
superiorly
49
What is the label code for craniocaudal implant displacement
CCID
50
In the CCID you should instruct the patient to lean their torso
forward
51
In the CCID hold the breast tissue ____ and the implant \_\_\_
anterior
posterior
52
In a CCID waht holds the implant back
the airgap between the IRSD and chest wall
53
What is the label code for mediolateral oblique implant displacement
MLOID
54
The MLOID may be positioned with the technologist\_\_\_\_ or ___ of the patient
behind or in front
55
Beginning with a full implant MLO helps maintain what for the MLOID
axillary placement
56
What pathology that depresses the sternum will cause exclusion of medial tissue on the CC and MLO
pectus excavatum
57
For a patient with pectus excavatum what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO to include all of the medial tissue
XCCM
LM
58
What pathology with a protruding sternum will cause exclusion of medial and lateral tissue on the CC and MLO
pectus carinatum
59
pectus excavatum causes loss of ____ tissue on the CC and MLO
medial
60
Pectus carinatum causes loss of ___ and ___ tissue on the CC and MLO
medial and lateral
61
What are some supplemental views that can be done for the CC and MLO with a patient with pectus carinatum
CC: XCCL, XCCM, CV
62
Post surgical irradiated breast may cause \_\_\_\_, _____ and may limit ___ tissue visualization
tenderness
scarring
posterior
63
When imaging a patient with a medical device what do you want to avoid
compression of device
64
When imaging a patient with a medical device you may use a large ___ device to compress _____ to the device
spot
inferior
65
When imaging a patient with a medical device what supplemental views can be done for the CC and MLO
CC: AC,FB
MLO: AC, LM, ML, LMO
66
What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in women
breast cancer
67
What cancer is the number 1 cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states
lung cancer
68
What is the second cause of cancer deaths in women in the united states
breast cancer
69
What is the lifetime risk of women for breast cancer
1 in 8
| (12%)
70
Approximately how many deaths will occur amongst women due to breast cancer in 2021
43,600
71
Breast cancer diagnosis and eath in mean is approximately ___ % of what it is for women
1%
72
Breast cancer death rates have been ____ since 1989
decreasing
73
What are the 3 reasons for breast cancer cases decreasing since 1989
1. advances in breast cancer treatment
2. earlier brest cancer detection through screening
3. increased breast cancer awareness
74
What are the 3 most significant uncontrollable risk factors for breast cancer
1. gender (being a woman)
2. age (growing older)
3. inherited gene mutations
75
What are 4 controllable risk factors of breast cancer
1. obesity
2. hormone replacement
3. alcohol consumption
4. physical inactivity
76
A woman with cancer in one breast has a \_\_-\_\_\_ times higher risk of developing new cancer in the other breast or another part of the same breast
3-4 times
77
Women who have been diagnosed with cancer of the \_\_\_, \_\_\_, _____ are at a higher risk of breast cancer
ovary
colon
endometrium
78
A woman with a 1st degree relative with breast cancer increases her risk by
double
79
If a woman has 2 1st degree relatives with breast cancer her risk of breast cancer
triples
80
True or False
women with a father or brother who have had breast cancer also have a higher risk of breast cancer
true
81
Approximately \_\_\_% of women who get breast cancer have a family member diagnosed with it
15%
82
About \_\_\_% of breast cancers occur in women with no family history
What are their causes
85%
genetic mutations that are a result of aging
83
about \_\_-\_\_\_% of breast cancers can be linked to gene mutations inherited from ones mother or father
5-10%
84
What gene mutation is the most common
BRCA 1 and BRCA 2
85
On average, women with a BRCA1 mutation have about a \_\_\_% lifetime risk
70%
86
Women with BRCA1 and BRCA2 genemutation are also at a higher risk for developing what other type of cancer
ovarian
87
\_\_\_ women are more likely to deveope breast CA over ___ \_\_\_ women
caucasian
african american
88
In women under 45 breast CA is more common in ___ \_\_\_ than ____ women
african america
caucasian
89
What race is most likely to die from breast cancer
african american
90
What three races have the lowest risk of breast cancer
asian
hispanic
native american
91
Women diagnosed with what 5 benign breast conditions have a higher risk of breast cancer, and what category of lesion to they fall under
Category: proliferative lesions without atypia:
ductal hyperplasia
fibroadenoma
scherosing adenosis
several papillomas
radial scar
92
Excessive growth of cells in the ducts or lobules of the breast but the cells dont look very abnormal
proliferative lesions without atypia
93
Cells in teh ducts or lobules of the breat tissue that grow excessively and some of them no longer look normal
proliferative lesions with atypia
94
What two types of proliferative lesions with atypia increase your risk of breast cancer
atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH)
atypical lobular hyperplasia (ALH)
95
Women with proliferative lesions with atypia have a ___ to ___ times higher risk
4-5
96
What is another name for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
lobular neoplasia
97
True or False
lobular carcinoma in situ doesnt become invasive if its not treated
true
98
True or False
women with LCIS have a much higher risk of developing breast cancer in either breast
true
99
Women who had mensus ____ have a higher chance of breast cancer
early
100
Women who go through menopause ____ have a higher risk
later
101
A woman who has never given brith
nulliparity
102
A woman who has given birth to one child
primiparity
103
Women who havent had children or had children after 20 have a ___ risk
higher
104
Having many pregnancies and becoming pregnant early ____ risk
reduces
105
True or False
the effect of pregnancy seems to be different for different types of breast cancer
true
106
Women who are treated with radiation therapy to the chest for disease such as ____ and ___ \_\_\_\_\_ have a higher risk
hodgkin disease
non-hodgkins lymphoma
107
Radiation exposure to the chest at a younger age ___ your risk
increases
108
Mammographic screening is recommended to begin ___ to ___ years after treatment of hodgkins dieases but not before age \_\_\_
8-10
25
109
True or False
Radiation treament after the age of 40 seems to increase breast cancer risk
false- it doesnt increase it
110
HRT increases the risk and the chances of ___ from breast cancer
dying
111
Combined HRT inceases the likelihood that cancer may be found when
at a more advanced stage
112
Women with dense breasts on mammogram have a risk of breast cancr that is about ___ to ___ times higher
1.5 to 2
113
What 5 things can affect breast density
age
menopausal status
use of certain drugs
pregnancy
genetics
114
\<25 % density
fatty
115
25-50% density
fibro glandular
116
51-75% density
heterogenoesouly
117
\>75% density
dense
118
The xrays that are generated pass through the breast and are captured by the ___ \_\_\_
image receptor
119
In digital mammography the receptor is the ___ \_\_\_
digital detector
120
The image detector converts the ___ \_\_\_\_ to ___ \_\_\_ which is sent to the computer
analog signals
digital information (1's and 0's)
121
In what capture is a light step involved
indirect digital capture
122
In indirect digital capture a ___ step is involved
light
123
In direct digital capture no ___ step is involved
light
124
The digital detector measure the _____ of xray photons that pass through the breast and converts those xrays into ___ \_\_\_\_\_
quantity
electrical charge
125
What are the two types of digital receptors
indirect
direct
126
An indirect digital receptor has a ____ flat panel
phosphor
127
In direct digital receptor the flat panel is made up of ____ \_\_\_\_ \_
amorphous selenium
128
In indirect digital detectors the xrays pas through the breast, into the detection material which is made of \_\_\_\_
phosphor
129
In indirect digital detectors the phosphor is made up of what
cesium iodide
130
In indirect digital detectors the xrays are converted into ____ by the \_\_\_
light
scintillator
131
In indirect digital detectors once the xrays are converted into light they hit the ___ \_\_\_\_ and are converted into an ___ \_\_\_\_ that is sent ot the computer
photo diodes
electrical signal
132
Name the steps of indirect capture
xrays to light by the cesium iodide
the light is converted to electrical signal by the photo diodes
133
In direct capture the xrays detection material is a ______ made of ____ \_\_\_\_
photoconductor
amorphous selenium
134
In direct capture the photoconductor absorbes xrays and converts it into ___ \_\_\_
electrical charge
135
In direct capture the electrical charges are measured by a ___ and _____ are sent to the computer to create the image
transistor
signals
136
Name the steps of direct capture
x-rays to electrival signal by photoconductor
electrical charges absorbed and measured by transistor
signals sent to computer
137
\_\_\_\_ detectors creat the image via light production that is coverted to an electrical signal that is sent to the computer
indirect
138
\_\_\_\_\_ detectors create the image through conversion of xray photons into electrical signals that are sent to the computer
direct
139
What are the two purposes of digital detectors
1. to absorb xray energy
2. convert that energy to electrical charge
140
What 4 properties to look for in a digital detector
1. high efficiency
2. low noise
3. pixel size
4. wide latitude
141
High efficiency is determined by \_\_\_\_
DQE
142
Smaller pixels yield ___ \_\_\_ in direct capture
better detail
143
Indirect digital caputre detail depends on ___ \_\_\_
light spread
144
Wide latitude is determined by what
number of bits
145
in wide latitude the more bits the more
shades of gray
146
One of the fundamental physical variables related ot image quality in radiography and refers to teh efficiency of a detector in converting incident xray energy into an image signal
DQE
147
DQE
detective quantum efficiency
148
The better the conversion for DQE the ___ the image quality of the resulting image on the monitor
better
149
high noise ____ contrast and resolution
lowers
150
high noise lowers ____ and \_\_\_
contrast and resolution
151
lower contrast impedes what
the ability to see early breast cancer
152
pixel size limits ___ \_\_\_ or ___ \_\_\_
spatial resolution
image detail
153
in theory, with no other factors involved, the smaller the pixel size the better the \_\_\_
detail
154
The intersection of a column and a row in a detector forms a \_\_\_\_
pixel
155
The largest pixel size in mammography detectors is ___ \_\_\_\_
100 microns
156
Latitude is determiend by how man ___ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_
bits per pixel
157
bits per pixel determiens the \_\_\_
contrast or shades of gray available in teh iamge
158
review workstations are between \_\_\_-\_\_\_\_ bits deep
10-12
159
mammography detectors are __ bits deep
14
160
pixel depth determines
how many shades of grey will be available for the image
161
The aquisition workstation is the _____ computer
technologist
162
HIS
hospital information system
163
RIS
radiology information system
164
When patient information is entered into the computer goes into either the ____ or \_\_\_
HIS
RIS
165
Patient information is converted into ____ from HIS and RIS
HL7 (health level seven)
166
HL7
health level seven
167
Schedling information is used to create a worklist ___ that is sent to the mammo unit AWS
MWL
168
MWL
mammography worklist
169
window width controls the \_\_\_
contrast
170
window level contols the \_\_\_
brightness
171
RWS
review interpretation workstation
172
The review interpretation workstation is also known as
the radiologist workstation
173
The digital reading room needs to be ___ than the film reading room
analog is ___ lux or less
digital is ____ lux or less
darker
50
20
174
Per MQSA reading room monitors have to be a minimum of ___ megapixels
5
175
The newest monitors can be \_\_,\_\_\_,\_\_ megapixels
10
11
12
176
Priors are retrieved in one of 3 ways
1. manually retrieved
2. prefetch through a broker
3. autofetch through a server
177
Prefetched through a broker works how
triggered by scheduled usually the night before
178
autofetch through a server works how
triggered by first image arriving into PACS on day of exam
179
How were ROI marked on analog images
with a wax pencil
180
Digital images use ___ \_\_\_ and ___ for ROI
electronic markings and annotations
181
What two ways can digital images with electronic markings be stored
1. as an overlay of the original image
2. as a secondary capture (screen shot)
182
Which of the two ways is the preferred method of saving a electronically marked image
secondary capture (screenshot)
183
Software program desined to manage all aspects of the hospitals operations ( medical, administrative,financial,legal)
HIS (hospital information system)
184
a computerized database utlized to track, manipulate, and distribute patietn data and imagery
RIS (radiology information system)
185
A digital version of a paper chart that contains all of a patients medical history in one practice
EMR (electronic medical record)
186
Universal language for the storage and transmission of patient information (data) for the medical community
HL7 (health level 7)
187
Universal language for the storage and tramission of images for the medical community
DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine)
188
DICOM
digital imaging and communications in medicine
189
The standard for handling, storing, printing and transmitting images in medical imaging
DICOM
190
Enables integration of scanners, servers, workstations, printers, network hardware and PACS from multiple manufacturers
DICOM
191
PACS
picture archiving and communication system
192
What contains electronic images and reports
PACS
193
The universal image format for PACS is \_\_\_
DICOM
194
PACS consists of what 4 major components
1. imaging modalities
2. secured network for transmission
3. workstations for interpreting and reviewing
4. archives for storage
195
What is the purpose of data compression
allows data to be stored in a smaller package
196
Data compression requires less ___ and less ___ to store
space
money
197
Data compression allows images to move ___ over the network
faster
198
What are the two type of data compression
lossy compression
lossless compression
199
What type of compression has a greater degree of compression
lossy
200
what type of compression is up to 30:1 ratio
lossy
201
What type of compression has some data loss upon retrieval
lossy
202
What type of compression is not allowed for FFDM
lossy
203
what type of compression has a 2:1 ratio
lossless
204
What type of compression is the only format for FFDM
lossless compression
205
What type of compression has no data loss
lossless compression
206
CAD
computer aided detection
207
What are the two major roles of CAD
detection
classification
208
CAD is directed towards finding ____ and \_\_\_
microcalcifications
masses
209
What is the goal of CAD
improve mammographic sensitivity by increasing detection
210
What are the 4 reconstruction options
1. breast reconstruction with implants
2. breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue
3. no reconstruction
4. prophylactic surgery
211
Breast reconstruction with your own transplanted tissue is called
flaps
212
what is the most common type of flap surgery
tram
213
TRAM
transverse rectus abdominous muocutaneous
214
Surgical removal of one or both breasts in a woman at high risk of breast cancer to reduce her risk
prophylactic surgery
215
prophylactic surgery reduced risk by __ %
90%
216
What are 4 nonsurgical treatment options
1. radiation
2. brachytherapy
3. systemic therapy
4. proton beam therapy
217
Radiation uses an ___ beam
external
218
brachytherapy uses a ___ \_\_\_\_
radiation seed
219
What are three types of systemic therapy
chemotherapy
hormone therapy
anti-HER2 therapy
220
Proton beam therapy is a new type of ____ beam therapy
external
221
What type of therapy is most used for DCIS
radiation - external beam
222
Radiation- external beam can treat breast cancer at what stage
any
223
What are the contradintiation of radiation with an external beam
pregnancy
previous radiation to the chest
prior connective tissue disease (lupus, sclerodermas)
224
Radiation with an external beam is usually given ___ for how many weeks
daily
5-6 weeks
225
True or false
If no radiation is given, the patient has a lower chance of breast cancer recurring in the same breast
false-higher
226
mastectomy patients have a __ % chance of recurrance
2
227
The whole breast is removed
mastectomy
228
Radiation is indicated if the patient has a high risk of recurrence, what 4 things make a patient high risk
positive lymph nodes
tumor size \> 5cm
positive margins
tumor that extends to the skin, nipple or chest wall
229
What therapy is 3-5 days/twice a day
brachytherapy
230
What therapy uses a catheter that is connected to a machine to insert a radiation seed to deliver higher dose radiation directly to the site
brachytherapy
231
In brachytherapy, once its complete what happens to the seed
its removed
232
In brachytherapy when is the catherer and balloon removed
the final day
233
What therpay deposits energy directly to the site and spares the surrounding tissue
proton beam therapy
234
What therpay can be given either via IV or oral
chemotherapy
235
How long is chemotherpay given
6-12 months
236
what is the most common anit-estrogen therapy
tamoxifen
237
what type of therapy is usually recommended if the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes
chemotherapy
238
Breast cancer tends to be more aggressive in ____ women
premenopausal
239
HER2 positive cancer is\_\_\_ aggressive
more
240
what additional risks does tamoxifen carry
blood clots
uterine ca
cataracts
stroke
241
Hormone therapy has shown to reduce the risk of recurrence in ____ breast cancer
early
242
What reduces the risk of metatstic cancer growth and progression
hormonal therpay
243
what type of therapy has shown to strengthen bones in postmenopausal women
hormonal therapy
244
Hormone receptors are \_\_\_
proteins
245
Hormone receptors are found where
on the surface and inside some cancer cells
246
When hormones attach to hormone receptors it causes what
cancer to grow
247
ER/PR ____ tumors have many hormone receptors
positive
248
ER/PR ____ tumors have few to no hormone receptors
negative
249
Arimidex, femara, aromasin are what type of drugs
aromatase inhibitors
250
What do aromatase inhibitors do
reduce the amount of estrogen in the body
251
Aromatase inhibitors are most effective in ___ women with ER/PR ___ tumors
postemenopausal
positive
252
what is the most common side affect of aromatase inhibitors
joint stiffness/pain
253
HER2+
human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
254
HER2 is a ___ that stimulates cell growth
protein
255
HER2 is overproduced in __ -\_\_\_% of breast cancer
20-25
256
What does herceptin do
blocks HER2 receptor overstimulation
257
\_\_\_ ____ breast cancer is a tumor that does not have any protein receptors
triple negative
258
Triple negative breast cancer has a ___ diagnosis
poorer
259
what treatment works best for tripple negraive brest cancer
chemotherapy
260
Triple negative accounts for \_\_-\_\_\_% of breast cancers
10-20%
261
The ___ of breast cancer and the _____ of the tumor will influene prognosis
stage
grade
262
In the treament of early breast cancer a ____ +\_\_\_\_\_ has an equal survival rate as a \_\_\_\_
lumpectomy + radiation
mastectomy
263
Regrowth of cancer cells at the original sites
local
264
Cancer cells travel from original site to settle in nearby nodes
regional
265
Cancer cells from the original site have traveled to distant parts of the body
metastatic
266
whart 4 risks increase the change of recurrence
varies from person to person
characteristics of tumor
stage
treatment
267
BRCA 1 gene mutation occurs in \_\_\_\_% of hereditary cases
30%
268
Patients with a positive BRCA 1 gene have an increased chance of also getting ___ cancer
ovarian
269
Men with a positive BRCA 1 have a ___ times higher chance of ___ cancer
3
prostate
270
BRACA 2 gene mutation accounts for \_\_% of hereditary cases
15%
271
Patients with a positve BRCA 2 gene have an _____ risk of other cancers
increased
272
Males with a positive BRCA 2 gene have a higher chance of ___ cancer
breast
273
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
274
What are the 7 inverventional procedures
cyst aspiration
fine needle aspiration
core biopsy
clip placement
needle localization
specimen radiography
sentinel node procedure
275
what are the 5 limitation to 2D imaging
- summation artifact and superimposed tissue
- malignancies hidden in glandular tissue
- false positives
- false negatives
- limited to 2D imaging
276
\_\_ -\_\_\_% of breast canccercs are not detected using 2D
15-30
277
DBT can find \_\_\_% more invasive breast cancers
41%
278
What are the 5 advantages of DBT
- takes multiple images from many angles
- positioning is the same as 2D
- images are perpendicular to the beam
- images are parallel to the detector
- xray tube moves in an arc taking 4-27 second images
279
In DBT the images are ___ to the DETECTOR
parallel
280
\_\_\_\_ are the angles in degrees from the neative to the positive side
projections
281
\_\_\_\_ are the images initially taken that are set by the vender
projections
282
\_\_\_ are the number of images created from the projections to create the 3D mammogram
slices
283
the number of ____ depends on how much the breast is compressed in mm
slices
284
slices are created from \_\_\_\_
projections
285
Research indicates DBT makes it easier to detect ____ in ____ tissue
malignancies
dense
286
The digital images are prcessed by a computer to produce
3D images
287
Each projection is a small fraction of the total \_\_\_
dose
288
The MQSA states that each view can be what dose
3 mGy
289
The averge DBT dose per view is
1.81 mGy
290
A 2D image created from tomosynthesis is called a
synthetic 2D
291
Sythetic 2D is created from the 3D tomo slices and can cut 2D/3D exam dose by how much
in half
292
what are 5 indications for a breast ultrasound
- screening
- abnormal mammogram
- diagnostic mammogram (symptoms)
- guidance for intervention
- second look after mri
293
On ultrasound a lesion with well defined margins is likely
benign
294
On ultrasound a lesion with smooth borders is considered to be
benign
295
On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated is considered to be
benign
296
On ultrasound a lesion that is round or oval is considered to be
benign
297
On ultrasound a lesion that is wider than tall is considered to be
benign
298
Ultrasound: anechoic
no interal echoes - black
299
On ultrasound when there are no interal echoes (black)
anechoic
300
anechoic appears as what on an ultrasound
black
301
On ultrasound echos that are darker gray than fat
hypoechoic
302
hypoechoic
darker gray than fat
303
On ultrasound echoes that are brighter grey than fat
hyperechoic
304
hyperechoic
eachoes brighter gray than fat
305
benign lesions on ultrasound have posterior \_\_\_\_
posterior enhancement
306
A thin watery fluid, with smooth borders, anechoic, round or oval, posterior enhancement
simple cyst
307
Cystic and solid lesions that have thick walls and other suspicious features are not simple cysts and may need ____ or \_\_\_
aspiration
biopsy
308
On ultrasound a lesion that has irregular borders is considered to be
suspicious
309
On ultrasound a lesion that is mircolobulated (bumpy) is considered to be
suspicious
310
On ultrasound a lesion that is taller than wide is considered to be
suspicious
311
On ultrasound a lesion that is anechoic is considered to be
benign
312
On ultrasound a lesion that is hypoechoic is considered to be
suspicious
313
On ultrasound a lesion that is angular or ill-defined margins is considered to be
suspicious
314
On ultrasound suspicious lesions have posterior \_\_\_\_
shadowing
315
True or false
suspicious lesion on ultrasound will show bloodflow
true
316
MRI can have improved ___ \_\_\_ of inconclusive masses on mammo and US
tissue contrast
317
Because malignancies are hypervascular _____ (the most common contrast agent) causes the malignancy to enhance
gadolinium
318
What are the downfalls of MRI
- expensive
- only effective in 50% of patients with DCIS
- sonographic re-evaluation is necessary
319
Permission granted in the knowledge of the possible consequences, typically that whcih is given by a doctor to the patient for treament with full knowledge of the possible risks and benefits
informed consent
320
Cyst aspiration is used for what 3 things
- testing if the cyst is not a simple cyst
- symptom releif
- eliminante mammographic masses
321
after a cyst aspiration, cytology fluid evaluation is only done if what
the color of the fluid is suspicious
322
What modality is usually used with a cyst aspiration
US
323
What procedure is perfoemd when a patient with an infection is not responding to antibiotics
abscess drainage
324
FNA
fine needle aspiration
325
What gauge of needle is used for a fine needle aspiration
18-25
326
What procedure is performed when a small needle is used to aspirate cells
fine needle aspiration
327
During a FNA adequate sampling is usually assured by what
bedside evaluation of the cells
328
True or false
during a fine needle aspiration only one pass is needed
false- multiple passes are usually needed
329
What is the indication for a fine needle aspiration
when small lesions are not clearly malignant
330
A fine needle aspiration yields ___ evaluations of cells rather than a ____ evaluation of a core
cytologic
histologic (tissue)
331
FNA are ___ invasive than a core biopsy
less
332
What are the 3 disadvantages of a fine needle biopsy
- possible false negative due to small sample size
- cytologic evaluation doesnt differentiate in situe from invasive
- not used for microcalcifications
333
Core biopsies (no vacuum) are done under who modality only
US
334
What are the 3 indications for a core biopsy
- solid lesion that need biopsied
- lesions near the chest wall
- patients with bleeding and clotting disorders
335
What size needle is used for core biopsies
14-16 guage
336
How many passes are needed for a core biopsy
3-5
337
what are the 3 advantages of a core biopsy
- less invasive than a surgical biopsy
- requires only a small incision
- sample volume is sufficient for histologic evaluation
338
A core biopsy is ___ invasive and a surgical biopsy
less
339
sample volume from a core biopsy is substatial for a ___ evaluation
histologic
340
what are the three disadvantages of a core biopsy
- risks of bleeding, infection, hematoma
- dense lesions are difficult to sample
- histologic evaluation usually take 24 hours
341
What is the most common type of image guided biopsy used for stereotactic, US,MR and tomo guided biopsy
vacuum assisted core biopsy
342
what guage needle is used for a vacuum assisted core biopsy
7-14 guage
343
How big of an incision is made for a vacuum assisted core biopsy
1/4 inch
344
How many passes are used for a vacuum core biopsy
one
345
What is the most common use of a stereotatic guided core biopsy
calcifications
346
What are the two disadvantages of a vacuum core biopsy
greater risk of bleeding, infection, hematomas
healthy tissue may be compromised
347
When is a clip placed in the breast
after a bx
348
Why is it necessary to place a clip after a biopsy
so it can continue to be surveillanced
349
What is the indication for a wire localization
preoperative guidance
350
After a wire localization what mammographic images are taken
CC and ML
351
Waste that has the risk of carrying infectious diseases
biohazardous waste (AKA medical waste)
352
During a wire localization a wire is placed ____ for pre-operative guidance
percutaneously
353
What is the reason for doing a sentinel node
to check for breast cancer cells spreading (metastasizing)
354
What nodes are taken in the sentinel node procedure
the first lymph node that drains lymph in a specific area
355
During a sentinal node procedure ____ \_\_\_\_ and ___ \_\_\_\_ are injected at the site of the lesion __ hours before surgery
isosulfan blue
radioactive isotopes
2
356
During a sentinal node procedure, a ____ \_\_\_ in surgery is used to locate the path of drainage from the tumor to the lymph nodes
gamma detector
357
OSHA
occupational safety and health administration
358
When was OSHA created
1970
359
Human bodily fluids, blood or unfixed tissue is known as
infectious material
360
An approach to infection control to treat all human blood and certain human body fluids as if they were known to be infections for HIV, HBV and othe rbloodborne pathogens
Universal precautions
361
The MQSA requires that all facilites be accredited how often
once every 3 years
362
MQSA accreditation must be done by a ____ approved accrediting body, certified by the \_\_\_\_\_\_
FDA
US department of health and human services
363
For ACR accreditation you must submit ___ \_\_\_\_ for the same 30 day perior as patient images only if it the first time for the unit
QC charts
364
ACR accreditation program grades your images on what 8 categories
positioning
compression
exposure
contrast
sharpness
noise
artifacts
labeling
365
What is the #1 reason for ACR failure
poor positioning
366
What is the #2 reason for ACR failure
submitting images that are not actually negative (BiRads1)
367
What anatomical borders are fixed
medial
superior
368
What anatomical borders are mobile
lateral
inferior
369
What are the two benefits of using the function of the anatomical borders
- minimal tissue is displaced during compression
- maximizes amount of tissue visualized
370
In the CC view you want to get all of the ____ tissue
posterior
371
In the CC view what percent of time will you see muscle
30-40%
372
In the CC view the PNL should be within ___ of the MLO
1cm
373
In the CC view the _____ space should be seen
retro-mammary
374
In the MLO all of the ___ tissue should be seen from the ___ to the \_\_\_
posterior
axilla
IMF
375
In the MLO view the _____ fat should be seen
retromammary
376
In the MLO the muscle should be what shape
convex
377
In the MLO how far down should the muscle go
to the PNL
378
In the MLO the ____ should be open
IMF
379
What tissue is not well visualized in the CC view
lateral-posterior
380
What tissue is not well visualized on the MLO
medial-posterior
381
What is the #1 reason for failures on the CC view
PNL not within 1cm of MLO view
382
What are the three top reasons for CC view failure
- PNL not within 1 cm of MLO
- excessive exaggeration
- skin folds or artifacts
383
What does a short PNL mean
that the posterior tissue is not well visualized
384
What are the 7 top reasons for failure of the MLO view
- poor visualization of posteriot tissue
- improper demonstration of pectoral muscle
- inadequate amount of muscle
- drooping tissue
- inadequate IMF
- breast too high on image receptor
- inadequate anterior breast compression
385
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a shorter/heavier person
30-40 degrees
386
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for an average height and weight
40-50 degrees
387
What is the ACR guidelines for MLO angle for a tall/slender
50-60 degrees
388
The correct angle is when the IR is
parallel to the pec muscle
389
For proper arm placement for the MLO the corner should be placed between the _____ and \_\_\_\_
pec muscle and latissimus
390
On the MLO you want the front edge of the IR at the patients
mid axillary line
391
Optimal compression is reached when the breast feels ____ or slightly less than painful
taut
392
Improper compression results in what 3 errors
poor separation of glandular tissue
unequal exposure of tissue
allows for motion
393
Adequate compression accomplishes what 3 things
uniform breast thickness
reduces noise
reduces unsharpness
394
What is the min and max compression suggestions in
pounds
newtons
decanewtons
15-27 LBS
70-120 N
2-12 DaN
395
Always check anterior portion is taut otherwise what will need to be done
an anterior compression view
396
What is the most common problem in mammography
underexposure
397
underexposure results in decreased radiographic _____ and when its only present in the densest part of the breast it will obscure ___ and\_\_\_\_\_
contrast
lesions
micro calcification
398
If an image looks "washed out" it is \_\_\_\_
underexposed
399
To determine if you image is underexposued fibroglandular tissue should look \_\_\_
gray
400
In mammography you want high ___ and low \_\_\_
contrast
dose
401
What are 8 common causes for poor contrast
- inadequate exposure
- processing deficiencies
- inadequate compression
- inappropriate target/filter material
- excessive kVp
- AEC photo cell placed wrong
- improper breast positioning
- implant or hardware in region of AEC
402
The ability of the mammographic system to capture fine detail in an image is called
sharpness
403
What are 5 causes of image unsharpness
- patient motion
- compression
- focal spot size
- increased OID
- increased SID
404
skin folds create air gaps resulting in ____ unsharpness
geometric
405
\_\_\_ decreases the ability of the radiologist to recognize tiny structures like calcifications and low contrast structures
noise
406
Noise is mostly ____ with digital equipment and ___ to your machine
electronic
inherit
407
\_\_\_ should be a non-isse if your QC is passing
noise
408
Anything we can see on a mammogrpahy image that does not reflect actual breast tissue
artifact
409
presence of multiple artifacts can be a sign of ____ \_\_\_\_
deficient QC
410
Other than deficient QC what are 3 other causes of artifacts
- cleanliness
- digital artifacts
- grid lines
411
What are 3 common artifacts
streaking/banding
ghosting
bad/dead pixel
412
MQSA labeling requirements include what 8 things
- pt name
- pt identifying number
- date of exam
- view name on laterality
- facility name and location
- tech ID
- cassette ID
- unit ID
413
What labeling recommendations does MQSA advise
-technical factors : target/filter,kvp and mas, exposure time, compressing force, compression breast thickness,degree of obliquity
414
What is the most common labeling deficiency
inadequate ID of the facility
415
EQUIP
enhancing quiality using inspection program
416
When MQSA asks the question " does the facility have proceducres for corrective action when clincal images are of poor quality" they also want to know
Does the procedure have :
- ongoing feedback
- documentation of the corretive action and its efficacy
417
True or False
written dicumentation of clinical image review is required such as summary reports, written statement by LIP that review was done, image review meeting minutes, etc
true
418
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 1
IP determines image quality, may use tools such as software
419
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 2
IP, or designee, group, or organization under guidance of IP
420
Who is the responsible party for EQUIP question 3
LIP, or designee
421
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 1: Feeback and corrective action
Feedback: ongoing
Corrective Action: facilty determines approach, timeframes and retention
422
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 2: Image quality review
at least annual
minimum one exam per RT and IP
423
What frequency and volume is needed for the EQIUP question 3: Oversight and corrective actions
Process should be appropriate to ensure QA/QC performed as required along with corrective action
424
Is a written policy needed for an of the EQUIP questions
no
425
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 1: imaging quality feedback and corrective action
none, only discussion
426
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 2: image quality review
yes
dated memo, meeting notes, report, or signed statement by LIP
427
What documentation is needed for EQUIP question 3: QA/QC oversight and corrective action
no
LIP attestation or verbal description of the process
428
MQSA
mammography quality standards act
429
When did MQSA becorm law
october 27, 1992
430
Congress tasked who with developing and implementing the MQSA requirements
FDA
431
Interim regulation became effective when, and when did the final regulations go into affect
10/01/ 1994
04/28/1999
432
As of 2021 how many analog machines are left in the US
8
433
MQSA has what facility requirements to perform mammography
- meets quality standards for personnel, and equipment
- accredited by a FDA approved accredidation
- maintain accreditation by having an annual medical physicitst suvery and insepection done
434
What are the personnel requirements by the MQSA
- initial mammo training
- continuing education
- requalification
435
How many document hours of training must you have to be a certified
40 hours
436
How many exams must be under direct supervision of a MQSA qualified technologist to become certified
25
437
The tech must have ___ hours of training in tomo before they are able to do them
8
438
According to MQSA before a rad tech may independtly perform mammography using any modality in whcih the rad tech was not previsouly trained, the tech must have __ hours of training in that modality
8
439
What 3 type of mammography machines exist
analog
2D digital
3D digital breat tomo
440
The day the fully licensed xray tech completes both the __ \_hours of mammogram educaton and ___ supervised mammograms, this become her qualification date as a legal mammo tech
40
8
441
For continuing education you need __ CE per every __ years
15
3
442
For continuing experience a mammo tech must have a min of ___ mammogram every ___ year
200
2
443
\_\_ of the 15 CEs you need have to be in the modality that you are using
6
444
Your 15 continuing CE can also be used towards your ___ CE needed for ARRT
24
445
All personnel requirements are monitored annually upon
MQSA inspection by the MQSA inspector
446
Always keep copies of your mammography ___ at work
CEs
447
Only send your mammo CE credits to the ARRT if
you are using them toward your 24 CE required every 2 year
448
If you fall short on only your continuing education requirements, you only need to do the following
bring you total credits up to 15
449
If you fall shour on continuing experience requirements you must do the following
perform 25 supervised mammograms, perform 200 mammograms in the 1st 6 months of the new 2 year period
450
If the patient is a returning patient, the facility must retain imaes for a minimum of ___ years
5
451
If the facility has only 1 study or the last study of the patient, the facility must reatin that 1 study for a min of __ years
10
452
Medical reports must inlcude what 5 things
- name of facility
- name of patient
- an addition patient qualifier
- name interpreting physician
- BIRAD category
453
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 0
must indicate what additional imaging study is recommended
454
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 1 and 2
continue routine screening based on practice guidelines
455
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 3
Receive short interval follow up imaging exam. Must indicate exam and interval
456
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 4 and 5
must indicate suggested biopsy method
457
What are the follow up recommendations for a BIRAD 6
confirms presence of cancer after biopsy, before or during treatment
458
Written reports must be sent directly to the patient within __ days. If the report indicates suspicious or highly suggestive of malignancy, every atempt should be made to communicate these results within ___ days
30
5
459
Once a year each interpreting physician needs to aprticipate in a ___ \_\_\_
medical audit
460
The medical audit is confidential and reveals the following 3 categories
number of false negative (missed cancers)
number of false positives (suspected but turns out ok)
number of mammograms interpreted correctly
461
True or False
The facility must mainting documentation to show that control procedures are being followed and carried out
true
462
The facility must maintain a record of each serious complaint for __ years from the date of the complaint
3
463
Each facility has to establish a written and documented system for collecting and resolving consumer \_\_\_\_
complaints
464
What is the frequency of an FDA inspection
once a year
465
What is the purpose of an FDA inspection
The GDA or state inspetor comes into your facility and spends the day reviewing documentation and practives
466
What is the process of an FDA inspection
any issues are graded into one of 2 levels
467
During an FDA inspection level 1 is the ___ \_\_\_\_
most serious
468
During an FDA inspection a level 1 noncompliance, the facility has how logn to take the necessary corrective action and send a ___ response ot the FDA
15 working days
written
469
During a FDA inspection, a level 2 non-compliance, the facility has how long to take necessary corrective action and send a _____ reponse to the FDA
30 working days
written
470
What is the purpose of an ACR accreditation
provide facilities with peer review and feeback on staff, qaulifications, equipment, quality control, quality assurance, image quality, radiation dose etc.
471
What is the frequency of an ACR accreditation
every 3 years
472
For an ACR accreditation what 3 steps must you do
- contact ACR for application
- fill out application for each machine and send payment
- if application is accepted you have 45 days to select your best images
473
What images must be sent for a ACR accredidation
- fatty breast (4 images - 2 CC, 2MLO)
- dense breast (4 images)
- phantom (must be withing 30 days)
- QC charts ( from same 30 days)
474
The assessment of the iamges that you submit for ACR accreditation must be ____ which is a BIRAD \_\_\_
negative
1
475
You can get priors approval for a BIRAD ____ if you do not have enough BIRAD 1
2
476
During your first ACR accreditation a ___ \_\_\_ ___ must be perfomed and passed
medical physicist survey
477
Once the medial physicist survey is passed the ACR notifies the _____ who issies the new facility a __ \_\_\_\_ provisional certificate
FDA
6 month
478
Once your images are submitted for ACR accreditation, an out of state radiologist gradese them on what things
denisty
contrast
positioning
artifacts
479
Once an out of state rad grades your images for ACR accreditation he sends back your scor or ___ or ___ to the ACR
pass
fail
480
How many radiologists grade your images for ACR accreditation
2
481
During ACR accreditation if one radiologist passes you and the other fails you what happens
your images are sent to at 3rd rad
482
Your phantom image for ACR accreditation s scred and passed or failed by and ACR ___ \_\_\_
medical physicist
483
AB
accrediting body
484
ACR
american college of radiology
485
ACS
american cancer society
486
ADH
atypical ductal hyperplasia
487
ALH
atypcal lobular hyperplasia
488
AEC
automatic esposure control
489
AI
artificial intelligence
490
ALND
axillary lymph node dissection
491
AWS
acquisition workstation
492
BIRADS
breast imaging reporting and data system
493
BRCA
BReast CAncer
494
BUS
breast ultrasound
495
BSE
breast self exam
496
CA
corrective action
497
CAD
computer assisted detection
498
CBE
clinical breast exam
499
CNR
contrast to noise ration
500
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
501
DCIS
ductal carcinoma in situ
502
DICOM
digital imaging communication in medicine
503
DM
digital mammography
504
DMIST
digital mammographic imaging screening trial
505
DOB
date of birth
506
DQE
detective quantum efficiency
507
EMR
electronnic medial record
508
ER
estrogen receptor
509
EQUIP
enchancing quality using the inspection program
510
FFDM
full field digital mammography
511
FNA
fine needle aspiration
512
HER2
human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
513
HIS
hospital infomration system
514
HL7
health level 7
515
HRT
hormone replacement therpay
516
HTC
high transmission cellular
517
HVL
half value layer
518
IMF
inframmary fold
519
ID
implant displaced
520
IP
interpreting physician
521
IR
image receptor
522
KVP
kilovoltage peak
523
KEV
kilo electron volt
524
LCIS
lobular carcinoma in situ
525
LIP
lead interpreting physician
526
LIQ
lower inner quadrant
527
LOQ
lower outer quadrant
528
MEE
mammography equipment evaluation
529
M
magnification
530
MP
medica physicist
531
MQSA
mammograpahy quality standards act
532
MAS
millampere/second
533
Mrad
millirad
534
MGY
milligray
535
MOLY
molybdenum
536
MTF
modulation transfer function
537
OID
object to image receptor distance
538
PACS
picture archiving and communiation system
539
PNL
posterior nipple line
540
PR
progesterone receptor
541
QA
quality assurance
542
QC
quality control
543
RIS
radiology information system
544
RWS
review workstation
545
SBE
self breast exam
546
SNR
signal to noise ratio
547
SOD
source to image distance
548
TDLU
terminal ductal lobular unit
549
TFT
thin film transistor
550
TRAM
transverse rectus abdominus mycutaneous
551
UIQ
upper inner quadrant
552
UOQ
upper outer quadrant
553
a localized area of infection, usually very painful and common in lactating breasts
abscess
554
a small sac like dilation, found in glands
acinus
555
smallest functional unit of the breast
acini cells
556
a benign tumor containing glandular and fatty tissue
adenolipoma
557
a round or oval shaped cancer, often adhering to other tissues
adenocarcinoma
558
a benign tumor with gland like structures and intervening supporting stroma, usually well circumscribed tending to compress rather than invade adjacent tissue
adenoma
559
a benign breast change marked by an increa in proportion of glandular tissue to the other kinds of tissue in the breast. This change is not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
adenosis
560
fatty tissue
adipose
561
Use of anticancer drugs in addition to other treatments to delay or to prevent recurrence
adjuvant chemotherapy
562
The absensce of breast development; often also associated with the absence of pectoral muscle
amastia
563
a local dilation of the excretory duct, which fucntions as a reservoir for milk
ampulla
564
connections between structures
anastomoses
565
The arrangements of structures within the breast
architecture of the breast
566
the dark pigmented skin around the nipple
areola
567
any unwanted or complicating structure visible in an image which masks or is mistaken for true anatomical structure in the patient
artifact
568
Removal of fluid or cells from a mass or thickening by means of a hyperdermic syringe
aspriation
569
The condition of having abnormal cess, difference in appearance internal organization or behavior. This condition can be determined only by diagnosis of tissue ontained by biopsy. It carries an increase risk of subsequent breast cancer
atypia
570
Phototimes are designed to automatically provide the exposure needed to produce an adequate image
automatic exposure control system
571
Calculated from values of expousre in air, the xray beam, and compressed breast thickness. The max average glandular dose should be 8 milligray (0.8 rad) or less for 2 view exam on the breast is known as the ____ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_
average glandular dose
572
the armpit or underarm area
axilla
573
anatomic term fo the portion of the breast adjacent to the chest wall
base of the breast
574
not cancerous or malignant
benign
575
surgical removal of a piece of tissue to be examined microscopically to diagnose disease
biopsy
576
breast imaging reporting and data system developed b the ACR to standardize reporting and categorizing of mammography findings and recommendations
BIRADS
577
The large scale mammography screening study was conceived by the american cancer society and funded by the national cancer institue. It was an effort to test the feasibility of an HIP-type mass screening program in 27 communities through the USA in teh 1970s
breast cancer detection demonstration project (BCDDP)
578
Inspection and palpation of breasts by a woman herself
breast self examination
579
disease characterized by abnormal and uncontrolled growth of cells: the resulting mass can invade and destroy surrounding normal tissue; cells can travel to other areas of the body and start new cancers
cancer
580
cancer or malignancy
carcinoma
581
pertaining to the cells or composed of cells
cellular
582
anticancer drugs used when cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, indicating possible spread to other parts of the body
chemotherapy
583
around the areola or nipple; as in incision
circum-areolar
584
the main supportive protein of skin, tendons and connective tissue
collagen
585
degenerative changes and inflammatory reactions in and among the collagenous fibers of connective tissue
collagenosis
586
a circumscribed carcinoma containing mucinous material
colloid carcinoma
587
The thin, yellowish milk secreted by the breasts right before and right after the birth of a baby. It is especially suited to the needs of the newborn
colostrum
588
A particular type of intraductal carcinoma, so named because lgith pressure on the cut ends of involved ducts results in the expression of a caseous material, which represents necrotic tumor inside ducts
comedocarcinoma
589
a plastic paddle used ot help hold the breast stationalry and eliminate blurring due to motion, to help separate structures within the breast, and to decrease the thickness of breast tissue, minimizing the amount of radiation used
compression device
590
the device used during mammography to flatten the breasts for more accurate xrays
compressor
591
A chart used to record the performance of a quality control test as a fuction of time
control chart
592
the range of variation on a control chart beyond which action must be taken to correct th eperformance of a quality control test
control limit
593
Thin fibrous septa that are irregular and poorly defined, that separate the lobules of the breast and act as suspensory ligaments of the gland
cooper ligament
594
any sac or capsule , normal or abnormal, containing a liquid or a semi solid material; usually harmless and can be removed by aspiration
cyst
595
The study of cells
cytology
596
xray systems designed specifically for breast imaging, providing optimum imaging geometry, a device for breast compression and low dose exposure that can produce reprodicible images of high quality
dedicated mammography equipment
597
the procedures tha are used to treat a disease
definitive treatment
598
an instrument which measures the degree of blackening of film, due ot radiation or light measuring the ratio of the light intensity incident on the film to the light intensity transmitted by the film
densitometer
599
a measure of the most fibrous and glandular breast tissue, which makes it more difficult to visualize on mammography; cause by normal breast tissue in younger women, individual variation in breast structures, and some benign breast changes
density of breast tissue
600
the formation and development of fibrous tissue, often forming adhesion
desmoplasia
601
mammography performed on women who, by virtue of symptoms or physical findings, are considered to have a substantial likelihood of having breast disease
diagnostic mammography
602
a non-invasive technique that uses ordinary light to visualize breast masses. It can detect many plarge fluid filled cysts but is still considered to be investigations for other purposes. Should not be used as a screening method
diaphanography
603
Surgical division or separation of tissues. In treating breast cancer, this usually refers to removal of the axillary lymph nodes and lymph vessels
dissection
604
In breast examination, a nodule that stands out from the surrounding breast tissue, three dimensional and different from neighboring areas
dominant lump
605
The amount of energy deposited per unit mass of tissue due to x-radiation
dose
606
a channel for transporting milk from teh lobules out to the nipple
duct/ductile
607
A benign breast change in which large or small ducts in teh breast become dilated and retain secretions, often leading to nipple discharge, and someimtes a lump in the nipple/areolar areas and/or nipple retraction
duct ectasia
608
A form of breast carcinoma in situ confied to the rbeast ducts, which often reveal itself with icrocalcifications on mammography
ductal carcinoma in situ
609
abnormality of development
dysplasia
610
located away from normal position
ectopic
611
accumulation of fluid in the tissue
edema
612
cellular covering of skin and mucous membrane. Milk ducts are lined with epithelium
epithellal
613
a female hormone, produced by a womans ovaries and adrenal glands
estrogen
614
a surgical procedure which removes all of the questionable lesion or mass
excisional biopsy
615
the amount of xray dose measured in the air just before the xrays enter the skin
exposure
616
a benign breast condition common in young women in whcih the breast develope a solid lump, either firm or soft, but usually movable in the breast
fibroadenoma
617
the preferred term to describe fibrocystic breast disease or chagnes, chronic custic mastitits, fibroadenoma, mastodynia mammary dysplasia, benign breast changes
fibrocystic breast condition or changes
618
the formation of fibrous tissue
fibrosis
619
diagnostic technique utlized to dianose lumps. Cells form lumps are aspirated with a skinny needle and smeared on a glass slide. The slides are stained and the pathologist will review them to make a diagnosis
fine needle aspiration
620
The ___ \_\_\_ ___ determines the area of the target or anode, which is bombarded by electrons from the cathode of teh xray tube to produce x-rays
focal spot size
621
A technique by which a tissue specimen from a biopsy is quick frozen cut into this slices stained and examined micoscopically by a pathologist for immediate report to the surgeon
frozen section
622
An injection of a milk duct with contrast material. Radiographic procedure in which a duct is cannulated and contrast is injected to delineate the size, site, type and extent of a pathological lesion causing nipple discharge
galactography
623
a set of thin lead strips spaced close to one another, interpsaced by carbon filter
grids
624
Excessive development of the male mammary glands, even to the functional state
gynecomastia
625
The thickness of a specified substance whcih when introduced into the path of a given beam of radiation, reduces the exposure rate by half
half value layer
626
Having a similarity of structure uniform tissue throughout a structure
homogenous
627
manipulation of hormones to slow the growth of breast cancer
hormone therapy
628
Morbid enlargement of an organ or part due to increase in size of the constituent cells
hypertrophy
629
The amount of radiographic density difference between adjacent areas resulting from a fixed amount of attenuation difference or light exposure difference
image contrast
630
the overall clarity and detail of a radiographic image
image quality
631
the overall impression of detail and clarity in a radiographic image
image sharpness
632
a procedure in which the surgeon cuts into a suspicious area and removes a small sample
incisional biopsy
633
confined to site of orgin, not having invaded adjoiining tissues or metastasized to other parts of the body
in situ
634
the part of the breast examination in which the breasts are examined visually
inspection
635
Being thickened, dried or rendered less fluid. Usually refers to the hardened secretions that form intraductal calcifications
inspissated
636
tiny rounded homogeneous or ring shaped in their appearance. These calcifications are normally benign
intradermal microcalcifications
637
disease in which breast cancer cells have penetrated surrounding breast tissue
invasive breast cancer
638
the maximum potential difference setting between anode and cathode in an xray tube
kilovoltage peak
639
the secretion of milk
lactation
640
producing of conveying milk
lactiferous
641
a general term for a change in tissue structure or function due to injury or other processes
lesion
642
a fibroma (benign) containing fatty elements
lipofibroma
643
a benign fatty tumor made up of fat cells
lipoma
644
a portion of the breast, which contains a complete unit for producing transporting and delivering milk
lobe
645
branching ducts terminate in the \_\_\_\_
lobule
646
provides a method for the biopsy of non palpable mammographic abnormalities
localization
647
a surgical procedure in which a cancerous tumor or lesion or lump is removed, leaving intact most of the remaining breast tissue
lumpectomy
648
small bean shaped glands scattered along the lymphatic vessels; act as filters to infection and cancer
lymph nodes
649
general term applied to any neo-plastic disorder of the lymphoid tissue
lymphoma
650
a cyst large enough to feel with the fingers
macrocyst
651
Interaction of body tissue with radiowaves in a magnetic field. echoes or signals form the body are continuously measured by the scanner and the computer reconstructs the echoes into images
MRI
652
In mammography, a technique for producing an enlarged image and greater detail of a small area of suspicious breast tissue
magnification view
653
cancer or carcinoma
malignant
654
poorly structured tissue in the breast
mammary dysplasia
655
plastic reconstruction of the breast
mammoplasty
656
surgical removal of all or part of the breast and sotmimes adjoining structures
mastectomy
657
inflammation of the mammary glands
mastitis
658
a circumscribed carcinoma named because of its fleshy appearance. The consistency is soft and can attain a relatively large size
medullary carcinoma
659
The detector system is placed lateral to the breast and the horizontal beam is drected from medial to lateral aspect through the breast
mediolateral view
660
a tumor made up of melanin pigmented cells; usually skin lesion
melanoma
661
The spread of cancer from teh initial tumor to other parts
metastasis
662
a chemical substance, one example of which is caffiene. Said to cause lumpiness and pain in the breast
methylxanthine
663
tiny white specks of calcium salts, which can somtiems be seen on mammograms
microcalcifications
664
a cyst too small to feel with the fingers
microcyst
665
cellular debris can incite an inflammatory response whcih can cause calcium deposition
milk of calcium
666
the current of electrons passing from the cathode to anode in the xray tube
milliampere setting
667
The product of electron current and the time over which an xray exposure is made
milliapere seconds
668
a surgical procedure in which the breast and the lymph nodes in teh armpit are removed while underlying chest muscles are largely left intact
modified radiacal mastectomy
669
a nuclear medicine technique that utlizes small semiconductor based cameras in a mammographic configuration to provide high resolution fucntion images of the breast
molecular breast imaging
670
visible pores or tiny lumps on the areola openings for the oil glands, which lubricate the nipple and areola during breast feeding
montgomerys (morgagnis tubercles)
671
removal of fluid or cells with a needle
needle aspiration
672
procedure where the radiologist marks a suspicious non palpable area with a needle, hookwire or dye ; assists surgeons to locate the exact area during biopsy
needl localization
673
formation of a neoplasm
neoplasia
674
new or abnormal growth; tumor
neoplasm
675
involves the removal of the entire breast, lymph nodes and chest wall muscle under the breast
radical mastectomy
676
involves the removal of the entire breast, including the nipple/areolar region and some of the under arm lymph nodes
modified radical mastectomy
677
involves the removal of the breast tissue, but the nipple- areolar complex remains
nipple sparring mastecomy
678
what type of mastecomy is used with relatively small tumors or non agressive cancers or as a prphylactic procedure
nipple sparring mastectomy
679
involves the removal of a health breast when the individual has a high risk factor for developing breast cancer
prophylactic mastectomy
680
ilvolves the removal of the malignant tumor and the margins of the surrounding normal breast tissue
lumpectomy
681
How many weeks of radiation is a patient given after a mastectomy
6 weeks
682
how soon does raidation start after a lumpectomy
1 month after surgery
683
chemotherapy can follow a lumpectomy to control the ___ \_\_ of breast cancer
systemic spread
684
a clear fluid trapped in the wound after surgery is called
seroma
685
what issues can occur when lymph nodes are removed
lymphedema
686
what procedure removes the underarm lymph noes during a mastectomy or lumpectomy
axillary node dissection
687
a more conservative process revolving the removal of only 1-3 sentinel noes in the axillary area
sentinel node biopsy
688
the functional unit of the breast
lobules
